Math and Science Reviewer, Exercises of Engineering Science and Technology

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(FB) MESSENGER, GMAIL!  1 Table of Contents HOW TO ANSWER MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS LIKE A PRO ................................................................................................ 2 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY ......................................................... 13 SCIENCE ...................................................................................... 56 MATHEMATICS ............................................................................ 88 READING COMPREHENSION ................................................... 113 LANGUAGE ANSWER KEY ....................................................... 183 SCIENCE ANSWER KEY ........................................................... 188 MATHEMATICS ANSWER KEY ................................................. 191 READING ANSWER KEY ........................................................... 229 4 Hence, the correct answer should be "make" instead of "makes." c. Use of inverted sentence structure. Example: "In the middle of the forest stands the giant trees considered oldest in the region." Explanation: Inverted sentences have verbs that come before the subjects instead of the other way around. It's easy to assume there's nothing wrong with this sentence if you don't look closely. In the sentence above, for example, the verb "stands" describe the subject "trees," not the "forest." Therefore, it should be rewritten as: "In the middle of the forest stand the giant trees considered oldest in the region." d. Misplaced modifiers. Example: "Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary's presents were all picked up and admired by Mary many times throughout the course of the day." Explanation: Modifiers are words that add details or change the meaning of another word. To avoid confusion, the modifiers should be placed close to the subject being described. Misplaced modifiers can be really confusing since you're dealing with several words at the same time. The example above makes it seem as though Mary's presents, not Mary herself, are "eagerly awaiting her birthday." 5 Using common sense, we know that Mary's presents have no way of expressing the emotion of eagerness. By rearranging the words, we can come up with a sentence that makes more sense: Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary picked up and admired her presents many times throughout the day. Eliminate distracters. Most multiple choice questions provide you with four possible answers to choose from--A, B, C, or D. Use the process of elimination to whittle down the choices to only two. If you remove the distracters from the equation, it will be easier for you to get to the right answer since you'll only be choosing between two options. Dealing with only two choices also means you have 50% probability of getting it right. Watch out for qualifiers. A qualifier is a word that enhances or limits the meaning of another word. Qualifiers can either be absolute (e.g., all, always, absolutely, never, certainly, best, every, only, worst, invariably, without exception) or conditional (e.g., usually, probably, possibly, seldom, might, much, most, often, generally, frequently). When you see a qualifier in one of the choices, it can either make the option correct or incorrect. 6 For example, the sentences below seem identical: "It often rains in Batanes." "It always rains in Batanes." A closer look reveals that both sentences may look similar but they differ in meanings due to the type of qualifier used. Whereas the first sentence is correct, the second one is false because of the use of the word "always." In multiple choice exams, options that use absolute qualifiers are mostly wrong while those with conditional qualifiers like "often," "seldom," and "probably" tend to be the correct answers. Draw diagrams and pictures to solve tricky Math problems. Although some math problems can easily be solved with mental calculations, there are complex questions that warrant more visualization. By converting word problems into diagrams or pictures, you can make them less intimidating and easier to solve. Example: "The town of Marabut is located along Marikina Highway. The town of Caranglan is west of Marabut. Sarangani is east of Caranglan, but west of Marabut. Daraga is east of Rajamon, but west of Sarangani and Caranglan. Which town is the farthest west?" To solve this problem, draw a line and put the first two places in their respective locations as described in the statement: "The town of Caranglan is west of Marabut." 9 Look for grammatical clues. Multiple choice questions can be asked in different ways but regardless of the format, they all follow basic grammar rules. In some language proficiency exams, the answer can be the one that makes the most sense grammatically. For example, in a question that ends with the indefinite article "an," the answer is most likely the one that starts with a vowel. The following question is another good example: The people of Iceland a. A country located just outside the Arctic Circle b. Are the world’s most avid readers c. Claim to be descendants of the Aztecs d. The capital, Reykjavik, where arms talks have been held Based on grammar rules, we can eliminate choices (a) and (d). You can now choose between options (b) and (c) since they're the only ones that don't interrupt the flow of the sentence and follow the basic subject-verb agreement. Grammatical clues can also be used to answer questions that test your ability to organize phrases or sentences. Example: a. Secondly, they had no leader. b. Firstly, the workers were not united. c. Finally, they did not have the support of their families. d. Thirdly, they had no funds to tide them over. e. From the beginning, it looked like the worker's strike was doomed to fail. Answer choices: 10 1. abdec 2. cbead 3. deabc 4. ebadc Relying on the keywords at the start of each sentence, we can organize them into a sequence that makes sense: "From the beginning," followed by "Firstly," "Secondly," and so forth. The correct sequence, therefore, is "ebadc." Ignore conventional advice. You've probably been told that when in doubt, always choose "c." However, the probability of getting the question right if you choose this letter is similar to your chances of winning the lottery. Don't look for patterns in places that have none, especially in multiple-choice exams where answers are arranged in random order. Therefore, if you notice that you've chosen the same letter for three consecutive questions, don't be alarmed. The pattern must be coincidental so never let it interrupt you from answering the rest of the exam. Be systematic when faced with confusing questions/choices. The goal of the test maker is not to make your life easier. But no matter how long and confusing the questions and their corresponding choices may be, you can arrive at the right answer by taking it one step at a time. 11 Example: Which of the following facilitates the healing process? Resting the injured part of the body. Protection of the wound from further Injury. Adequate nutrition. Emotional support from friends and family. Depriving the patient of fluids. Choices: A, b, d, e A, b, c, d A, c, d, e All of the above None of the above At first glance, the question may look overwhelming. But by being systematic, you can easily spot the answer without wasting so much time. First, eliminate the statement that is apparently false, in this case (e) or "Depriving the patient with fluids." Next, go through the choices and eliminate those that contain the false statement (e). By doing this, you can trim down your choices and have a better chance of picking the correct answer. Additional tips.  Frequently check that your answers match the corresponding questions, especially after you have skipped some items.  Hide or cover the choices when reading the stem or the body of the question. Figure out the answer if you can so you 14 4. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences. A. She only walked fifteen miles when her legs gave out. B. She had only walked for about fifteen miles when her legs gave out. C. She has walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out. D. She had walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out. 5. A thousand pesos __________ not enough compensation and you _________ it. A. are – knows B. are – know C. is – know D. is – knows 6. If we __________ harder we would have passed the UPCAT. A. study B. had studied C. studied D. have studied 7. Amicable means the same as – A. friendly B. anxious C. jealous D. patient 8. are you deserting me you are also taking our supplies. A. neither—nor B. not only—but C. both—and D. either—or 15 9. Lolita is going to Switzerland ___________ May next year. Particularly, she would be leaving ___________ eight o’clock a.m _________ New Year’s Day. A. in – on – on B. at – on – at C. in – at – in D. in – at – on 10. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences. A. Father jogs exuberantly to the park every morning before breakfast to exercise his heart. B. Father exuberantly jogs every morning to the park to exercise his heart before breakfast. C. Father, to exercise his heart, jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the park. D. Father jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the park to exercise his heart. 11. She ______________ finished the project before tomorrow. A. None of the above B. would have C. will have D. should have Questions 12 – 14: Read the group of words provided. There may be a mistake in the sentence structure. If you find a mistake, choose the answer that is written most clearly and correctly. If there is no mistake, choose Correct as is. 12. Veronica left the room, turned right, and, without any hesitation, walked outside. 16 A. Leaving the room, turning right, Veronica walking outside without any hesitation. B. Veronica left the room and she turned right and walked outside without any hesitation. C. Veronica left the room turned right and walked outside without any hesitation. D. Correct as is 13. There are extra chairs in that room that are not needed or necessary. A. There are extra chairs in that room. B. There are extra and unnecessary chairs in that room. C. The extra chairs in that room are not needed or necessary. D. Correct as is 14. Some tortoises living up to 100 years are among the world’s oldest animals. A. The world’s oldest animals, some living up to 100 years are some tortoises. B. Some tortoises, among the world’s oldest animals, are living up to 100 years. C. Living up to 100 years, some tortoises are among the world’s oldest animals. D. Correct as is For question numbers 15 – 21: Determine which of the following synonyms on the given choices best corresponds to how the underlined word/s were used on each sentence. 15. Leo made a disappointed, misunderstood face from the many creases at his disposal. A. authority B. distribution C. garbage unit D. regulation 19 D. 5-3-2-1-4 24. (1) Most of this material which we call ash, stays behind after the fire burns out. (2) When we burn fuel such as wood, oil or coal, the fuel combines with oxygen in the air to form gases that escape into the atmosphere. (3) Some of it, however, is carried aloft by the hot gases of the fire and adds to the volume of smoke produced. (4) In addition, most of the fuels contain a small amount of various substances that do not burn. (5) But most of the burning we do is far from perfect, so tiny particles of unburned fuel escape up the chimney in the form of smoke. A. 2-5-3-4-1 B. 2-3-5-1-4 C. 2-3-5-4-1 D. 2-5-4-1-3 25. (1) In the Philippines, the population boom has derailed efforts to make the benefits of economic growth trickle down to the grassroots. Thousands of new people are born on our planet every day. (2) With the population galloping toward the 100-million mark, the Philippines will be among one of several developing nations leading global population growth in the coming years, according to the United Nations. (3) With limited resources and economic growth failing to keep pace with the population boom, this means more people getting an ever-shrinking share of the pie. 20 (4) This has been a problem in previous administrations and remains a problem of the Aquino government, despite sustained economic growth since 2010. (5) This is true both in the Philippines and around the planet, whose resources cannot meet the demands especially of the poorest segments of the 7.2 billion population. A. 1-2-3-4-5 B. 4-2-3-1-5 C. 2-3-5-1-4 D. 5-3-2-1-4 26. (1) Ang bawat polista ay kinakailangang magtrabaho ng apatnapung araw sa bawat taon. (2) Ang polo y servicios o sapilitang paggawa ay ang sapilitang paglilingkod sa pamahalaang mga Pilipinong lalaki mula 16 hanggang 60 taong gulang. (3) Noong 1884, ito ay ginagawa na lamang labinlimang araw. (4) Ang mga manggagawa sa ilalim ng polo y servicios ay tinatawag na polista. (5) Upang makaligtas sa sapilitang paggawa, kinakailangang magbayad ng falla na tanging mga mayayaman lamang ang nakakabayad. A. 2-4-1-3-5 B. 2-5-1-4-3 C. 2-3-1-5-4 D. 2-1-5-4-3 27. (1) Ipinakikita ng panitikang eksistensyal ang kamulatan sa kamalian at kahangalan ng uniberso. 21 (2) Madalas na paksa nito ang mga bagay at galaw na etikal na titiyak sa kahulugan ng buong buhay ng isang indibidwal. (3) Ang eksistensyalismo ay naniniwalang ang tao mismo ang gumagawa at humuhubog ng kanyang kapalaran. (4) Di nito tinatanggap na ang herediti at kapaligiran ang tumitiyak sa motibasyon at ang pag-uugali ng tao. (5) Ang kanyang kahihinatnan ay ayon sa kanyang pagpili ng aksyon o ng pamamaraan ng pamumuhay. A. 3-1-2-5-4 B. 3-5-4-1-2 C. 3-5-1-2-4 D. 3-2-1-4-5 28. His reassuring words mitigated our fears. Mitigated means – A. reinforced B. added to C. caused D. eased 29. By the time the operation ends, Billy _____ a total of 1,300 hours for his friend and _____ countless outdated magazines in the emergency room waiting area. A. will have waited…will have read B. have waited…have read C. waited…read D. will have waited…read 30. Sarah wanted to see the concert she had been looking forward to it for a long time. Choose the answer that is the best way to write the underlined section of the sentence. A. concert, she had been B. concert; she had been 24 38. Patungo ______________ ang mga kandidato. A. roon B. doon C. dito D. rin Questions 39 – 41: Read the paragraph and then answer the questions that follow it. “The Challenge” It started when she was in elementary school. Sonia knew that she wanted to be a champion synchronized swimmer. Today’s competition would determine whether she would earn the opportunity to go to the national contest. She performed the required technical routines flawlessly and led the other swimmers going into the free competition, the portion of the program that counted most. This series of choreographed moves performed to music required a couple of qualities. For one particularly difficult element, Sonia had to remain upside down in the water for over half a minute. She could tell by the audience’s thunderous applause when she emerged from the pool that the performance had gone well. Seconds later the judges confirmed it; Sonia was on her way to the national contest. 39. This series of choreographed moves performed to music required a couple of qualities? Good writers describe the subject using details. How can the underlined words be better written to include exact details? A. some abilities that she had to develop B. specific physical qualities C. special moves D. great strength and control 25 40. Which sentence would not belong in this paragraph? A. Sonia had worked hard for many years to get to this point. B. The routine had gone smoothly, and Sonia had done even better than she had anticipated. C. The cool water always felt wonderful to Sonia; she loved the smell of chlorine. D. Her dream, since childhood, was finally coming true. 41. Which of these would be the best topic sentence for this paragraph? A. A synchronized swimming team will be sent to the Olympics. B. Sonia got a new swimsuit and cap for the competition. C. Only a few extremely talented athletes win competitions. D. For almost as long as she could remember, Sonia had wanted to go to the Olympics. Questions 42 – 56: Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea in standard written English and is worded most consistently with the tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is best, then choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions about sections of the passage or about the passage as a whole. Read the entire passage before answering any of the questions. For some questions you may need to read beyond the underlined section in order to determine the correct answer. Building the Plaza de Toros Thousands of tourists from all over the world gather in Seville, Spain each year, two weeks after Easter Holy Week, to witness the La Real Maestranza. La Real Maestranza is part of the Seville Fair, and the Fair (42) originated back in 1847 when (43) it was originally organized as a livestock fair. Of central importance to the festival are the bullfights that took place (44) in the Plaza de Toros, a circular ring on Baratillo Hill. 26 Construction on the stunning and beautiful (45) Plaza de Toros first begun in 1749 but had not completed (46) for many years after. The inner facade of the plaza (called the Palco del Príncipe or Prince’s Box) was completed in 1765, and this box consists of two parts; the (47) access gate through which the successful bullfighters exited (48), and the theater box itself, which was reserved for the exclusive use of not only the Spanish King and Queen, but for (49) other members of the Royal Family. [50] When monarch Carlos III prohibited bullfighting celebrations in 1786, work halted, and (51) only one-third of the plaza had been completed (52) at the time. The construction of the ring was finally completed in 1881, two thirds (53) were constructed in stone, the rest in wood. Choosing to redo them in brick, the stone grandstands were replaced between 1914 and 1915 by architect Anival Gonzalez. (54) All the rows were reconstructed with a smoother slope. Ten to twelve rows of shaded seating were constructed as well as fourteen rows in the sun and three rows of barrier. A row of armchairs was built in the superior part of the shaded area, and they (55) were placed in front of the theater boxes. [56] 42. A. NO CHANGE B. which originated C. which did originate D. and the Fair originated 43. A. NO CHANGE B. in which C. after which D. as 29 54. A. NO CHANGE B. Choosing to redo them in brick, between 1914 and 1915 architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands. C. Choosing to redo them in brick, architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands between 1914 and 1915. D. Choosing, between 1914 and 1915, to redo them in brick, architect Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands. 55. A. NO CHANGE B. those C. these chairs D. it 56. Which of the following sentences best completes the passage? A. Today spectators from around the world enjoy watching this traditional Spanish sport in this world-class ring. B. Between 1729 and 1733 Felipe V stayed in Seville and received support from the Corporation in spite of being French and the first Bourbon king of Spain. C. More than 12,500 spectators can watch the fight between the torero and the bull in this ring. D. During the Seville Festival, men and women dress up in their finery, ideally the traditional "traje corto" (short jacket, tight trousers and boots) for men and the "faralaes" or "trajes de flamenca" (flamenco style dress) for women. Questions 57 – 64: Determine which of the following synonyms on the given choices best corresponds to how the underlined word/s were used on each sentence. 57. His stoic attitude earned him the title "man made of stone." A. active B. heavy 30 C. hard D. indifferent 58. Samuel could not stand the gelid surroundings of the Alpine Mountains. A. very cold B. very hot C. humid D. tepid 59. Do not worry about running short of rice because we had a copious harvest last month. A. weak B. innumerable C. depleting D. abundant 60. Jojo is suffering from asphyxia. Noxious gases during fire have suffocated him. A. an unconscious state B. a state of trance C. a state of suppression D. a state of affliction 61. Her hair was full and lightly curled. A. chubby B. filled C. detailed D. thick 62. The judge exculpated the accused for lack of evidence. A. proved guilty B. exonerated 31 C. banished D. proved innocent 63. The politician was criticized for his preposterous remarks. A. lengthy B. witty C. absurd D. promising 64. Having lived with three old maids, Lucy projects a reticent attitude. A. meek B. effusive C. effulgent D. offensive 65.________________ni Aling Nena ang mga pinamalengke dahil sa takot. A. Nabitawan B. Nabitiwan C. Nalaglag D. Nabuhos 66. Ang pagbabasa ng mga iba’t ibang aklat sa Filipino ay isang mabisang paraan upang lalong ______________ang kaalaman ng mag-aaral tungkol sa wika. A. malinang B. maayos C. masinop D. masubukan 34 76. protein : meat; A. energy : sugar B. calories : water C. vitamins : minerals D. starch : potatoes 77. fern : plant; A. shark : water B. cat : lion C. collie : boxer D. dog : animal 78. try : tried; A. came : come B. fly : flew C. go : gone D. dead : died 79. lion : cub; A. duck : drake B. child : baby C. horse : colt D. goat : lamb 80. rabies : dogs; A. malaria : mosquitoes B. fever : ants C. cough : worms D. AIDS : rat 81. gloves : hand; A. welder : steel B. gun : combat C. field : football D. helmet : head 35 82. gun : holster; A. sword : scabbard B. sword : slay C. sword : bayonet D. sword : cadet 83. canvas : painting; A. clay : pottery B. clay : mold C. clay : art D. clay : statue Directions: Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea in standard written English and is worded most consistently with the tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is best, then choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions about sections of the passage or about the passage as a whole. Read the entire passage before answering any of the questions. For some questions you may need to read beyond the underlined section in order to determine the correct answer. For questions 84 – 98: Passage 1 “Hair-raising Problems” Why is it that we are so completely obsessive (84) with the hair on our heads? Millions of dollars are spent each year on cutting hair, lengthening hair, bleaching hair, straightening hair, curling hair, highlighting hair, and even growing hair; whatever you can do to hair, someone is willing to pay the money (85) to do it. Natural redheads long for to be (86) brunettes and dishwater blondes dream of shiny golden tresses. Both men and women cringe at the sight of each gray hair, so (87) teenagers enjoy 36 weekly experiments with magenta dyes, spikes, and tangerine streaks. All of these thoughts cross my mind as I examine the result of (88) my most recent hair adventure. As a mature woman watching the gray hairs mixing in rapidly (89) with my natural brunette tones, I decided over a year ago, to (90) approach my stylist with the idea of highlights. Having seen many of my peers go this route, I figured that highlighting was for to be (91) the answer to my reluctance to look my age. [1] The monthly highlighting went well: excepting (92) for those times when my hair turned out a little too subdued, making me look partially gray instead of brunette. [2] I suffered through it remarkably well, saying to myself, “She’ll get it right the next time.” [3] For the most part, (93) I’ve enjoyed my year of highlights, so much so that I bravely approached Donna, my stylist, two months ago and proclaimed that I was done with wimpy highlighting and ready to go blonde. [4] The result was not quite what I expected, but I resolved to live with it! (94). [5] Donna was surprised at my suggestion, but quickly began sharing my unbridled enthusiasm as she gathers (95) the appropriate chemicals and concoctions that would soon transform me. Three months later, I find myself seesawing between tears and (96) laughter as I attempt to cover up a patch of nearly bald scalp on the top of my head. For someone who has long been fanatical about the appearance of her hair, this absence of hair has proven to be quite a challenge to my ego and self-confidence. I’ve always enjoyed styling my hair, and suddenly, I have nothing to style. Each time I begin to experience a new pang of disgust and despair over this new hair anomaly, I once again ask myself why we are so 39 be placed: A. where it is now. B. before Sentence 1. C. after Sentence 2. D. before Sentence 4. 95. A. NO CHANGE B. she was gathering C. she had been gathering D. she gathered 96. A. NO CHANGE B. along with C. or D. as well as 97. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. If the sentence was deleted, the essay would primarily lose: A. a summary of the essay. B. the narrator’s ability to put her situation into perspective. C. a stylistic link to the essay’s introduction. D. an understanding of the author’s purpose in writing the essay. 98. Suppose the writer had chosen to write a how-to article for people wanting to change their hair color. Would this essay fulfill the writer’s goal? A. Yes, because the author’s approach to changing her own hair color would ease the anxiety of others wishing to do the same. B. Yes, because this essay emphasizes the universality of people changing their hairstyles and hair color. 40 C. No, because this article only deals with the narrator’s own experimentation with her hair and does not provide steps for others to do the same. D. No, because the essay discourages people from changing their hair color. For questions 99 – 113: Passage 2 “A Modern Blacksmith” You will probably never find his name in a history book, but to this day, Walker Lee continues to contribute to America heritage (99). Walker Lee is an old-fashioned, modernday blacksmith who still practices (100) the fine art of manipulating metal over a hot fire. In his words, “Blacksmithing is no dying art!” Walker Lee had began (101) his career in hand-forged ironwork at the age of 30. The idea of creating an object out of iron, a most intractable material (102), appealed to him. He started on this new venture by collecting and reading every book he could find that described the process of blacksmithing: its history, its practical and decorative uses, and the equipment needed to establish and outfit his own smithy. During the course of his research, Lee discovered a tool necessary for the success of any blacksmith: the anvil, a heavy block of iron or steel upon which the blacksmith hammered and shaped the malleable metal. Lee bought his first anvil from 84-year-old Hurley Alford Templeton of Philadelphia, lugging (103) it home to Michigan in the back of a 4-H county bus. This anvil weighed 100 pounds, about the minimum size Walker Lee needed to get started (104) in his craft. Lee’s first anvil cost him $100, and four months later, he paid $75 for an additional implement—a vice—from Cornell University in New York. This important tool also made its (105) way back to Michigan in the back of Lee’s 4-H bus. 41 Lee had spent the summer carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the east coast for various county fairs and expositions. (106) Once Lee obtained his first portable forge, he was ready to build his blacksmith shop, commonly referred to as a “smithy.” (107) In the interest of economy, he constructed this shop out of inexpensive oak planks and tarpaper. It was a crude little shack but stood for (108) only nine years. Lee, who by then was completely hooked on blacksmithing, replaced his first shop with a finer one made of more expensive wood; this shop also had glass windows, a definite improvement over Lee’s original “smithy.” [1] The very first object Lee forged was a long, pointed (109) Hudson Bay dagger. [2] Many people refer to this type of knife as a “dag.” [3] As he recalls that event he says, “From the minute I first saw the thing take shape, I was hooked . . . still am. There’s an element of magic in it to me. You heat it up and pound it with a hammer and it goes where you want it to go.” [4] Years later at a family event Lee (110), Discovered that his Italian ancestors were accomplished coppersmiths. [5] During the gathering, Lee’s great uncle Johnny was proclaiming (111) that Lee’s propensity for blacksmithing was “in the blood” as he happily presented Lee with a new 125-pound anvil. (112) As an outside observer watches (113) Walker Lee bending and shaping a hot metal rod into some recognizable form, it is difficult to discern the origin of the magic Lee spoke of; is it in the glowing, orange steel or in Walker himself? 99. A. NO CHANGE B. American heritage. C. Americas heritage. D. American’s heritage. 44 108. A. NO CHANGE B. that stood for C. which standing for D. and stands for 109. A. NO CHANGE B. long pointed, C. long, and pointed D. long-pointed 110. A. NO CHANGE B. later at a family, event Lee C. later, at a family event, Lee, D. later, at a family event, Lee 111. A. NO CHANGE B. proclaimed C. had been proclaiming D. having proclaimed 112. Which of the following sentences in this paragraph is LEAST relevant to the main focus of the essay and, therefore, could be deleted? A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 3 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 5 45 113. A. NO CHANGE B. was watching C. had been watching D. watched For questions 114 – 128: Passage 3 “Unfulfilled Promises” If you have ever entered a contest of any sort—you (114) are well aware of the legal requirements, exclusions, and disclaimers that always accompany (115) the contest’s entry form. Many laws today regulate a contest sponsor’s responsibilities to the entrants, and courts are filled with lawsuits asserting with non-compliance (116) on both sides. However, this was not always the case. In 1896, a contest motivated a Norwegian immigrant, Helga Estby, to travel nearly 3,500 miles on foot (117) from the state of Washington to New York City. Unfortunately, as is still sometimes true, Helga won the competition only to find that the promise (118) $10,000 award was mysteriously absent. [1] Helga had been living (119) on her farm with her husband and nine children in Spokane, Washington, when she read of a $10,000 prize being offered to a woman who was willing to walk across the country. [2] Because the Estby farm was facing foreclosure, Helga decided that walking across the country in a bicycle skirt for that kind of money was a small price to pay for a greater rewarding. (120) [3] At the time, this style of skirt was considered to be inappropriate because it revealed the female ankle. [4] The only requirement, from all accounts, was that she wear a modern, newfangled bicycle skirt as she traveled. (121) 46 So, in May of 1896, Helga and her 18-year-old daughter, Clara, had set off (122) on their long journey. Helga carried a revolver and a spray gun containing red pepper for protection. (123) Presumably, Helga and Clara found food and shelter along the way, and they arrived in New York City in December, seven months after their departure. The contest sponsors, however, were to be found nowhere. (124) This story of bravery and persistence had therefore been kept a secret (125) for nearly a century, primarily because Helga’s seven- month absence from the farm wreaked havoc on her family. Two of her children died of diphtheria while she was gone. Even worse, her husband had sequestered the surviving children in an unheated shed, thinking that this was the only way to keep them from being infected with the disease. Since the contest sponsor failed to award Helga the money, the Estbys ended up losing the farm; her expedition had been a disaster. At the time, Helga’s trip was considered an embarrassment by the Norwegian-American community and was kept utterly quiet. After Helga’s death, her own children burned the hundreds of pages Helga had written through the years, leaving only (126) a small scrapbook of newspaper clippings and very few details of Helga’s life or her ill-fated trip. Looking back 100 years, one can only marvel at the boldness and bravery that must have energized Helga Estby to make that journey on foot across the country in an effort to save her family farm.(127) (128) 114. A. NO CHANGE B. sort; you C. sort you D. sort, you 49 D. were nowhere to be found 125. A. NO CHANGE B. had been kept a secret C. had been actually kept a secret D. had in fact been kept a secret 126. A. NO CHANGE B. years leaving only C. years; leaving only D. years leaving only, 127. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would best conclude the sentence while providing the reader with the most specific explanation for Helga’s motivation to walk across the country? A. NO CHANGE B. to win $10,000. C. in an effort to save her children from diphtheria. D. to help her daughter Clara gain experience. 128. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: In 1984, Helga’s great-great-grandson wrote a story about his ancestor for a history assignment. Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it links the ending of the essay to its introduction. B. Yes, because this information is highly relevant to the rest of the essay. C. No, because this story might not focus on Helga’s farm. D. No, because this information introduces a new subtopic of the essay. 50 Questions 129 – 133: Choose the word closest to the meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. 129. The corrupt policeman was discharged from service due to his ignominious act of accepting bribes. A. honorable B. disrespectable C. unwanted D. remarkable 130. Jacqueline is an irascible girl who frequently has tantrums. A. impatient B. cheerful C. hot-tempered D. jolly 131. The piquant mouse was able to find its way out of the maze in a short while. A. dumb B. clever C. small D. unusual 132. Only a ruffian could do such a heinous act of killing a helpless child. A. an insane person B. a brutal person C. a lovable person D. a confused person 133. The plane overshot the runway and landed on a ditch. A. passed through 51 B. passed by C. went beyond D. did not reach Questions 134 – 138: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. 134. The garrulous girls were distanced from each other. A. mute B. talkative C. behaved D. quiet 135. The players were confused when the kibitzers suddenly butted-in during the team’s huddle. A. advisers B. spectators C. onlookers D. crowd 136. Mahirap pakinggan ang sinasabi ng taong garil. A. utal B. bulol C. matalino D. matatas 137. Hungkag ang bigasan dahil nasira ng bagyo ang mga palay. A. salat B. puno C. bulok D. bago 54 Questions 144 -150: Fill in the blank with the word that creates the most logical sentence. 144. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________ it is made with freshly picked blueberries. A. whether B. because C. when D. as if 145. _________ our low annual fee, you will receive a 20% discount if you sign up this week. A. Because B. While C. In spite of D. In addition to 146. I ________ the speech you gave last Thursday night, but I was in bed with the flu. A. will have heard B. would hear C. might hear D. would have heard 147. . ________ the Beatles’ most popular songs— most of which were written by Lennon and McCartney—are “I Want to Hold Your Hand” and “Hey, Jude.” A. With B. Considering C. Among D. To 148. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside without a leash. 55 A. moreover B. yet C. mainly D. consequently 149. The ticket said the show would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t go up _________ 8:30. A. less than B. until C. about D. since 150. A large percentage of the class _______ fascinated by the museum. A. was B. be C. any of the above D. were 56 Science Directions: Read the questions carefully and choose the letter that corresponds to your answer. 1. All of the following are solutions except _____. A. Brass B. Coffee C. Seawater D. Milk 2. How come a person with type B blood cannot donate to a person with type A blood? A. The recipient has antibodies against B blood, which has B- antigens, resulting in clotting up the donated blood. B. The recipient has B surface antigens that can be recognized by antibodies of the donor, resulting in rejection of the donated blood. C. Both A and B are true. D. None of the above statements are true. 3 59 B. van der Waals forces C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds 10. The eruption of Mt. Pinatubo caused widespread destruction and loss of human life. Gases and solids injected into the stratosphere circled the globe for three weeks. Volcanic eruptions of this magnitude can impact global climate, reducing the amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth's surface, lowering temperatures in the troposphere, and changing atmospheric circulation patterns. Which of the following was an effect of the Mt. Pinatubo eruption? A. an increase of the Earth’s temperature by 2˚C B. massive global warming C. El niño phenomenon D. lowered global temperature by 0.5˚ 11. Which of these would be least likely to diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane? A. water B. sodium ions C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide 12. The bacteria that causes syphilis is A. a coccus. B. E. coli. C. a bacillus. D. a spirochete. 13. Give the mass number for an atom that has 10 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons. A. 31 60 B. 20 C. 10 D. 21 14. The graph below shows the change in energy that occurs during a chemical reaction. Which of the following is most likely to happen as the reaction nears completion? A. The reaction releases energy to its surroundings. B. The energy level of the reactants remains constant. C. The reaction takes in energy from its surroundings D. The energy level of the reactants increases gradually. 15. Cloud seeding can be done by dispersing Silver Iodide or dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) into clouds to induce precipitation. Cloud seeding has also been used to dissipate fog, modify hurricanes, and decrease lightning and hail in thunderstorms. The results have been remarkable but never guaranteed increase precipitation on all trials. The Beijing Weather Modification Office has researched on the application of cloud seeding to control weather. During the 2008 Beijing Olympics, the Chinese governments executed cloud seeding to clear the air of pollutants and to keep it from raining over the Bird’s Nest stadium while the games were going on. They managed to deliver as they have promised. 61 What could be an obvious negative effect of cloud seeding in China? A. Excessive precipitation and unanticipated drought B. Significant increase of Silver contamination on crops and water C. Unpredictable weather D. Increase in thunderstorms and typhoons that may hit the country within the same year of cloud seeding in the area 16. During ______, the chromosomes attach to the spindle and align at the metaphase plate of the spindle. A. prophase B. prometaphase C. metaphase D. anaphase 17. Geothermal systems produce electricity from what energy source? A. heat from the Sun B. mechanical energy from wind C. heat from Earth’s interior D. mechanical energy from waves 18. Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field. Which of the following has the most gravitational potential energy? A. A truck at the top of a hill B. A truck speeding down the hill C. A man on top of the hill D. A man on his mountain bike speeding down the hill 64 24. Agglutination is the A. clumping of students in hallways. B. clumping of platelets to help stop bleeding. C. clumping of white blood cells around bacteria. D. clumping of blood cells due to an antibody-antigen reaction. 25. The figure below shows resistors connected in series and parallel. If the total resistance from A to B is 6 Ω, find the resistance of R. A. 1 Ω B. 2 Ω C. 3 Ω D. 4 Ω 26. What mass, in g, of hydrogen gas is formed when 3.0 mol of aluminum react with excess hydrochloric acid according to the following equation? 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g) A. 3.0 B. 4.5 C. 6.0 D. 9.0 1 Ω 1 Ω R 2 Ω 3 Ω A B 65 27. Removing all lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of ClF3 would change the geometry from A. trigonal pyramidal to trigonal planar. B. from square shaped to trigonal pyramidal. C. from T–shaped to trigonal planar. D. from trigonal bipyramidal to trigonal planar. 28. Differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells include all of the following except ______. A. eukaryotic cells have mitochondria B. eukaryotic cells have cilia and flagella with complex structure C. prokaryotic cells have more complex cell walls D. prokaryotic cells have no genetic material 29. Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength? A. Radio B. UV C. Visible Light D. Gamma 30. I lack respiratory, excretory, and circulatory systems, have bilateral larva, deuterostome development, and move using a water vascular system. What am I? A. echinoderm B. chordate C. jellyfish D. mollusc 31. Assuming that complete dominance is followed, which of the following genotypes has the same phenotype as QQRrssTt? 66 A. AABbccDd B. QqRRssTT C. Qqrrsstt D. QQRrSsTt 32. What percent of a parent isotopes remains after 2 half-lives? A. 50% B. 25% C. 6.25% D. 2% 33. Which factors are involved in Gay-Lussac’s Law? A. Pressure and Temperature B. Pressure and Volume C. Temperature and Volume D. Volume and Moles 34. Potassium-40 is used to determine the age of rocks. The diagram below shows a rock sample in which some of the potassium-40 atoms have undergone radioactive decay. According to the diagram, how many half-lives has the rock sample undergone? A. 9 half-lives B. 3 half-lives 69 D. The mice will be lethargic since they won’t be able to process absorbed nutrients to transform them into energy in the form of ATP. 42. What enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? A. Aqua-enzymes B. Amylase C. Adenine D. Glyoxalase 43. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the density of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2. Which of the following will not float in liquid X? A. Water B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9 D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3 44. Vitamins help to control chemical reactions in our bodies. Without vitamins certain reactions cannot take place. We need only tiny amounts of vitamins, but without them we will suffer from deficiency diseases, like the lack of vitamin D will lead to A. beriberi B. rickets C. scurvy D. night blindness 45. In which population would you expect the most rapid evolutionary change? A. a small population with a high mutation rate in a changing environment 70 B. a small population with a low mutation rate in a stable environment C. a large population with a high mutation rate in a changing environment D. a large population with a low mutation rate in a stable environment 46. In a species of pea plant, white flowers were completely dominant over red flowers. Pure breeding, white flowered pea plants are crossed with pure breeding, red-flowered pea plants. What proportion of white- and red-colored plants will be produced in the F1 generation? A. all white-flowered plants. B. all red-flowered plants. C. a 3 : 1 ratio of white-flowered plants to red-flowered plants. D. a 3 : 1 ratio of red-flowered plants to white-flowered plants. 47. What are the coefficients that will balance the formula equation below? A. 1, 3, 1, 3 B. 3, 1, 3, 1 C. 1, 1, 1, 3 D. 1, 3, 3, 1 48. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point A. its temperature increases. B. heat is given out. C. its particles gain energy. D. its particles become more ordered. 71 49. Flowers are the reproductive organs of angiosperms. These organs have various parts that fall under three groups: (1) male parts, (2) female parts and (3) accessory parts. Depending on the present structures, a flower may be categorized as complete, incomplete, perfect or imperfect. Which of the following lists of parts describes a perfect flower but not a complete flower? A. Pistil, stamen and accessory parts B. Pistil and accessory parts only C. Stamen and accessory parts only D. Pistil and stamen only Read the passage below to answer questions 50 and 51. Eutrophication is a phenomenon where excessive amounts of nutrients are added to a marine ecosystem. These nutrients cause plant life like algae to multiply rapidly, leading to very high population densities. In freshwater ecosystems, the algae can become so dense that it can turn ponds, lakes or even smaller rivers green. The algae grows to an unreasonable level at a very fast rate. The algae are known as phytoplankton and are microscopic, single-celled organisms. A body of water that is experiencing eutrophication and a resulting bloom can be quickly devastated. Eutrophication affects all living organisms in the area including fish, birds and mammals. The top layer of phytoplankton causes such a build-up on the surface that they accumulate sediment. When this occurs the sunlight is blocked and it will choke off the plant life below the surface. The phytoplankton will also cause less surface area for the water to interface with air. As a result, there will be less oxygen available in the water. As oxygen continues to deplete, the depletion can have a negative effect on life as there will be less oxygen to support the organisms below the surface that depend on the oxygen from plants that diffuses into the water. 74 55. Torque is the product of the force and the lever arm. In symbols, Refer to the diagram below. Two masses, 8 kg and 10 kg, are hung at both ends of a 90-cm stick. The stick has markings every 10 cm. If the mass of the stick is negligible, where should the stick be suspended by means of a cord to remain the stick horizontal? A. A B. B C. C D. D 56. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt batteries in it, arranged in a chain to give a total of 4.5 volts. Current passes first through battery (a), then through battery (b), then through battery (c), on its way to the bulb. When you operate the flashlight, the batteries provide power to the current and they gradually use up their chemical potential energy. Which battery will run out of chemical potential energy first? A. All three will run out at the same time. B. Battery (a) will run out first. C. Battery (b) will run out first. D. Battery (c) will run out first. A B C D 8 kg 10 kg 75 57. A neutral atom in the ground state contains 16 electrons. What is the total number of electrons in the 3p sublevel? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 58. If you balance the equation below, what is the least sum of the coefficients? MnO2 + HCl  Cl2 + MnCl2 + H2O A. 26 B. 15 C. 9 D. 7 59. What is the probability that a father with a homogenous dominant trait and a mother with the same homogenous dominant trait will produce an offspring with the recessive trait? A. 25% B. 15% C. 0% D. 100% 60. A graduated cylinder is used to measure liquid volume. The correct way of reading the level of mercury in a graduated cylinder is A. read from the top of the meniscus. B. read from the bottom of the meniscus. C. use the lowest point of the mercury in the cylinder. D. take the average of the highest and the lowest points. 76 61. Suppose a cold steel bar (at 10C) and a hot iron block (at 70C) are placed inside the same room at the same time. With time, the steel bar and the iron block are brought to thermal equilibrium with the room. The final temperature of the room is 25C. What are the final temperature of the steel bar and the iron block? A. Steel bar (at 40C), iron block (at 25C) B. Steel bar (at 25C), iron block (at 40C) C. Steel bar (at 40C), iron block (at 40C) D. Steel bar (at 25C), iron block (at 25C) 62. Mount Mayon is what type of volcano? A. Stratovolcano B. Shield C. Caldera D. Cinder 63. The radioactive half-life of a certain isotope is 2 days. What part of this isotope will remain after 8 days? A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/8 D. 1/16 64. The circulatory system has three main components: (1) the pumping organ – the heart, (2) the circulating medium – the blood and (3) the passageways of blood – the blood vessels. Furthermore, there are three types of blood vessels: capillaries, arteries and veins. Capillaries are the site of gas exchange between the blood and the bodily tissues. Arteries carry blood away from the heart while veins carry blood towards the heart. Apart from these differences in function, these three types of blood vessels all have different morphological features. 79 71. How many star/s is/are there in our solar system? A.1 B. 1 million C. 1 billion D. infinitely many 72. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is halved, ______. A. its temperature is halved B. its temperature is doubled C. its temperature remains constant D. its temperature increases according to a geometric progression 73. The reason why we see eclipses of the Moon more often than solar eclipses, even though solar eclipses happen more frequently is that A. lunar eclipses are visible over more than half of Earth compared to less than 20% of Earth’s surface for partial solar eclipses. B. the weather is more cloudy during the new moon. C. a lunar eclipse lasts longer than a solar eclipse. D. people are not so interested in the solar eclipse. 74. What measurement is used to quantify the destruction caused by an earthquake? A. the Richter scale B. the modified Mercalli scale C. the moment magnitude scale D. the moment destruction scale 75. Igeneous rocks originate when magma or lava cools and crystallizes or when pyroclastic materials are consolidated. The two categories of igneous rocks are plutonic rocks, which form within 80 the earth’s crust, and volcanic rocks, which form at the surface. Volcanic rocks can usually be distinguished from plutonic rocks by A. its color B. its composition C. its iron-magnesium content D. the size of its mineral crystals 76. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is removed, the candle continues to burn. In this reaction, the match ______. A. behaves as a catalyst. B. supplies activation energy. C. is part of the rate determining step. D. lowers the activation energy barrier 77. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the density of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2. Which of the following will not float in liquid X? A. Water B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9 D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3 78. The solidification of molten rock from inside or outside the earth causes the formation of igneous rocks. These rocks are characterized by the presence of large or small crystals, depending on the rate of cooling of the rocks. Granite is an intrusive igneous rock that cooled beneath the earth’s crust, and has large crystals. What is the most probable reason for this? A. Extreme pressures at the bottom create larger crystals. B. Gravity causes the heavier crystals to collect at the bottom of intrusive igneous rocks. 81 K Na Be Co Ba Os Fe Al Si N O Sb I C. Hotter temperatures act as a catalyst to increase the rate of crystal formation in intrusive igneous rocks. D. Hotter temperatures beneath the earth’s crust decrease the cooling rate, allowing more time to grow larger crystals. 79. 1 atm is equal to ______ Torr. A. 700 B. 720 C. 273 D. 760 80. Based on the following periodic table, which two elements have a half-filled p orbital? A. Nitrogen and antimony B. Iron and cobalt C. Barium and osmium D. Sodium and potassium 81. Of the first 101 elements, which is the most unstable? 84 upon by an unbalanced force.” What is the net force acting on an airplane in level flight at 500 kph due north? A. 100 N B. 490 N C. 980 N D. 0 89. What is the molar concentration of NaCl solution that contains 30 grams of salt per 200 mL of solution? A. 0.15 M B. 0.30 M C. 1.3 M D. 2.6 M 90. What is the limiting reagent for the following chemical reaction if 24 grams of hydrogen and 48 grams of oxygen react to form water? 2H2 + O22H2O A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. This reaction has no limiting reagent. 91. Coulomb’s law and Newton’s law of gravitation both involve which of the following? A. the inverse square law. B. the charge on the particle. C. the mass of the particle. D. permeability 92. Which among the following is correctly paired? A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous 85 B. liquid soap : homogeneous C. sugar : element D. orange juice : compound 93. An analysis of a compound used in the production of aluminum is 32.79% sodium, 13.02 % aluminum and 54.19% fluorine. The empirical formula of the compound is A. Na3AlF6 B. Na5AlF8 C. NaAlF D. Na3AlF3 94. Flooding frequently happens in the Philippines. It may occur due to an accumulation of rainwater on saturated ground. This can threaten several lives, properties and even livestock. If there is a flood, what characteristics of soil would make the situation of flooding worse within the affected area? A. high porosity and high permeability B. high porosity and low permeability C. low porosity and high permeability D. low porosity and low permeability 95. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury barometer is dependent on the following EXCEPT on the A. diameter of the tube. B. atmospheric pressure. C. density of mercury and weather condition. D. altitude at which the measurement is made. 96. A 7-m rope is stretched between two poles, which are 6-m apart. A boy is holding on to the middle of the rope and hanging 86 down. If the boy weighs 300 N, what is the tension in the rope on the right-hand side? A. 183 N B. 291 N C. 425 N D. 291 N 97. What process can be used on a liquid to separate its components without losing either component in the process? A. Distillation B. Evaporation C. Sieving D. Paper Chromatography 98. What component of hard water makes it “hard”? A. sodium and nitrogen B. oxygen and hydrogen C. large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions D. large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide 99. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity. Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown? 89 y = A. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -5 B. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -7 C. y{( − 3) − 4a} = 5 D. y{( − 3) − 4a} = -6 3. If x is an even integer and y is an odd integer, which of the following must be an odd integer? A. 2x + 2y B. 2x – 2y C. x + y + 1 D. x + y + 2 4. 35% of 15% of x is equivalent to which of the following? A. 0.0525x B. 0.125x C. 0.25x D. 0.525x 5. A farmer has a rectangular field that measures 125 feet by 200 feet. He wants to enclose the field with a fence. What is the total length, in feet, he will need for the job? A. 450 B. 550 C. 650 D. 750 6. A farmer is raising a hog that weighed 20 lbs. when he bought it. He expects it to gain 12 pounds per month. He will 90 sell it when it weighs 200 lbs. How many months will it be before he will sell the animal? A. 14 B. 15 C. 24 D. 25 7. Twenty-five more girls than the number of boys participate in interscholastic sports at a local high school. If the number of girls participating is 105, how many boys participate? A. 110 B. 115 C. 120 D. 125 Use the following ndiagram to answer questions 8 to 13: 91 8. How many lines can be drawn through •A that are parallel to line m? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinite 9. How many lines can be drawn through •A that are perpendicular to line l? A. 0 B. 1 C. 10,000 D. Infinite 10. Which lines are perpendicular? A. n, m B. o, l C. l, n D. m, l 11. How many points do line m and line l share? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinite 94 C. 90° D. 100° 21. Solve this quadratic equation: 24x2 = 3(43x − 15). A. x = and x = 6 B. x = and x = -5 C. x = 3 and x = D. x = and x = 5 22. A 20 ft. beam leans against a wall. The beam reaches the wall 13.9 ft. above the ground. What is the measure of the angle formed by the beam and the ground? A. 44° B. 35° C. 55° D. 46° 23. The lines y = 2x and 2y = - x are A. parallel B. perpendicular C. horizontal D. vertical 24. The inequality corresponding to the statement:"the price is no less than 100 Dollars" is A. x < 100 B. x ≥ 100 C. x ≤ 100 D. x > 100 95 25. Which of these points DOES NOT lie on the graph of y = -x + 3? A. (9,- 6) B. (3,0) C. (-2,5) D. (2,2) 26. Which of these relations DOES NOT represent a function? A. {(2,3),(-4,3),(7,3)} B. {(0,0),(-1,-1),(2,2)} C. {(2,3),(-5,3),(2,7)} D. {(-1,3),(-5,3),(-9,0)} 27. Which property is used to write:3(x y) = (3 x)y? A. Commutative property of multiplication B. Multiplicative inverse property C. Distributive propery D. Associative property of multiplication 28. Which of these values of x satisfies the inequality -7x + 6 ≤ -8 A. -2 B. 0 C. -7 D. 2 29. The equation |-2x - 5| - 3 = k has no solution if k = A. -5 B. -3 C. 7 D. 0 30. What is the slope of the line perpendicular to the line y = -5x + 9? A. 5 B. -5 C. 1/5 D. -1/5 31. If x > 0, which of the following must always be true? I. < x II. x2 > x III. x2 > 96 A. I only B. II only C. III only D. none of these 32. Find the value of k such that the quadratic equation 4x2 + 7x + 3 = 2k have equal roots. A. B. - C. D. - 33. What is the slope of the line containing (0,1) and (6,8)? A. B. C. D. 2 34. Three concentric circles whose radii are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the area of the smallest circle is 36 , what would be the area of the largest circle? A. 75 B. 81 C. 100 D. 225 35. If a = 3c − 4 and b = 2(3 − c) what is 3b expressed in terms of a? A. 10 – 2a B. 5 – 2a