MB ASCP CONNECT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

Download MB ASCP CONNECT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! MB ASCP CONNECT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 1. Which PCR method has the highest specificity? Nested PCR 2. After an amplification procedure followed by gel electrophoresis, you took a photo of your gel. You notice consistent bands in all your gel lanes. However, you also see what appears to be a faint but noticeable band in your reagent blank lane. What is your best explanation for the reagent blank band? There was obvious contamination in this PCR reaction 3. A technologist uses the spectrophotometer to quantify the amount of DNA extracted from a blood specimen diluted 1:30. The absorbance reading at 260 nm was found to be 2.545. The concentration of DNA in this extract is: 3817.5 micrograms/mL 4. This translocation creates a fusion protein between the Abl1 gene on one chromosome and the BCR gene on the other chromosome, resulting in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): t(9;22) 5. The sugar in DNA is: Deoxyribose Written by studybuddy 6. Primer dimers are due to what complimentary issue? 3' to 3' complementarity of primer pairs 7. What is the sequence recognized by poly (A) polymerase? AAUAAA 8. In what part of a qPCR Amplification Plot do you take your measurement? Exponential phase 9. In CML, what fusion protein is created? BCR-Abl1 10. What assay amplifies the probe signal and the probe RNA concentration increases if the target to be detected is present? Qβ replicase 11. Purines and pyrimidines differ from each other in that: Purines have two rings; pyrimidines have one ring 12. The mother of a 3 year old boy took him to the doctor's office for concerns of an underlying genetic condition. A karyotype order was sent to the Molecular Diagnostic lab. Karyotype results show 47, XY,+21. Based on these results, the boy has: Down Syndrome 13. In a retrovirus the RNA acts as: Genome and mRNA TATAAT 29. This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Ribosomal RNA: RNA Pol I 30. The process of making proteins is termed: Translation 31. In a qPCR Amplification plot, where is the threshold set? Above background and in the exponential phase 32. Which of the subunits of RNA polymerase holoenzyme is responsible for promoter recognition? Sigma subunit 33. What is the name of the molecule that is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic RNA transcripts? GTP 35. What is the best way to store RNA for longer than a month? In Ethanol, at -20°C or -80°C 36. What type of restriction enzyme has methylation activity? Type I 37. The purines are: Adenine and guanine 38. When comparing 2 samples in a qPCR Amplification plot, a log difference can be seen as approximately: ΔCt = 3.3 39. What are the phases in a qPCR Amplification Plot? Initiation, exponential, plateau 43. How many log10 reductions in HIV viral load is considered to be successful upon treatment? 0.5log10 44. This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Transfer RNA: RNA Pol III 45. Which of the following is not a common hydrogen bond acceptor? Primary amine 46. Testing for HOXB13, BRCA1 and BCRA2 is usually done in patients with: Prostate cancer 47. What is the predominant form of DNA? B Form 48. What is the rate of mammalian DNA replication? 50 nucleotides per second 49. The 5' capping process creates what type of linkage? 5'-5' 50. What genes would be screened in a breast cancer panel? HER2, ERBB2, BRCA1 51. 3 cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) tubes labeled 1 through 3 have arrived in your clinical laboratory for evaluation. The tubes were numbered in the order in which they were obtained, with #1 being the first tube collected and #3 being the last tube collected. What is the best explanation for a macroscopic appearance seen in the CSF? A traumatic tap 52. What gene is measured following treatment with imatinib (Gleevec)? BCR/Abl 67. When this enzyme finds nicks or gaps in the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA, it closes them! Ligase 68. This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Messenger RNA: RNA Pol II 70. What is the optimum storage condition for any specimen (whole blood, bone marrow, tissue etc.) awaiting RNA extraction? Remove contaminating RBCs then immediately freeze at -20°C 71. Which of the following reagents will successfully decontaminate a bench top that has been exposed to DNA amplification products? 5% Bleach 72. 73. To what does the mecA gene product create resistance to? Penicillin 74. Which of the following best characterizes a vector? helps carry DNA into cell ie plasmids, virus 75. This polymerase is involved in "initiation of DNA replication and has primase activity": Pol α 76. What translocation results in synovial sarcoma, a muscle and fibrous tissue cancer? t(18;X) 77. In the field of molecular diagnostics, which one of the following genes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA, promote cell division, and inhibit cell death? Proto-oncogenes 79. This polymerase is involved in "replicates mitochondrial DNA": Pol γ 80. All of the following methods of amplification are considered target amplification, except: NASBA 82. Which of the following is not a step in the Southern blot procedure? Probe digest 83. Nucleic acid hybridization methods can be affected by a host of factors. Select all the factors that that can influence this process. G:C ratio of bases, pH of the hybridization reaction, Hybridization temperature 84. While at the doctor's office with your father, you overheard his physician tell another physician that test results came in, confirming the presence of the Factor V Leiden mutation, a mutation associated with deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the mutation your father has: 1691G>A 85. Choose the right pair of words to complete the following sentence: In hybrid capture technology, _______ is used to amplify the _______ Alkaline phosphatase; signal 86. A reverse dot blot is best performed by: Immobilizing multiple unlabeled probes onto the membrane and then allowing one labeled sample to hybridize to the unlabeled probes 87. What is the most common mutation in Hemochromatosis? C282Y 88. The hydroxyl group in a deoxyribonucleotide is expected to be found on which position of the sugar? C3' 1 hour Which of the following is not a characteristic of eukaryotic DNA transcription? Strict Promoter sequences. Which of the following is not a characteristic of eukaryotic DNA transcription? DNA Ligase Branched DNA amplification (bDNA) is best classified as: Signal Amplification What drug is NOT metabolized by CYP2D6? Warfarin Mutation in UGT1A1 affects metabolism of what drug? Irontecan This PCR method works by generating a signal at the annealing step (i.e. when the probe binds its target) of the PCR reaction: Molecular Beacons This restriction enzyme "digests and removes a methyl group from Adenine": Type I Between which phosphate groups is the linkage between the GTP molecule and RNA chain in the 5' cap? Alpha-beta After a patient received a bone marrow transplant, what virus is the patient more susceptible to? CMV What type of restriction enzyme has methylation activity? Type I What gene is measured following treatment with Warfarin? VKORC1 Which Molecular methodologY would be the best for detecting a trinucleotide repeat disorder such as Huntington's disease? Variable number tandem repeat analysis During DNA replication, the 3' -OH of the growing DNA chain attacks which phosphate of an incoming nucleotide? Beta The nitrogenous base in a nucleotide is expected to be found on which position of the sugar? C1' Which two HPV types are responsible for most cases of cervical cancer? 16 & 18 This restriction enzyme "digests and adds a methyl group from Adenine": Type III Testing for Aldehyde Dehydrogenase deficiency is important in patients with: Alcohol Depenence The bond between a phosphate group and the ribose sugar group in RNA is called: Glycosidic bond When sequencing HLA-DR what is targeted? Exon 2 of the Beta subunit What assay amplifies the target using DNA ligase? LCR In mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), this is the fusion gene created: CCND1-IGH The ideal spacing between the -10 and -35 regions of a prokaryotic promoter is: 17 Measures fluorescent signal generated by separation of dye and quencher. Single probe containing both molecules. Binds to ss PCR product during annealing phase. Measured in real time. TaqMan Single probe with fluorescent reporter and quencher. Forms hairpin loop. Probe knocked off during DNA pol during extension. Molecular Beacons Target specific primers are tailed at 5' end with a sequence homologous to part of the internal primer seq, a quencher, a stem-loop structure & a 5' fluorophore. Scorpion RNA target & primary product. Uses t7, RNase H and/or AMV reverse transcriptase. NASBA & TAS Amplifies probes/primers complimentary to target NA. Primers bind adjacent to each other, separated by 1 base. Even 1 BP mismatch can prevent ligation. first used to detect sickle cell. Ligase Chain Reaction (probe amplification) probe amplification that is isothermal. Strand Displacement Amplification Amplifies nucleic acid. Target can be DNA or RNA. Uses restriction enzymes and nick translation. QB Replicase Series of short oligomer probes capture target NA & additional extender probes bind to multiple reporter molecules, loading the NA with signal. Branched DNA Amplification Designed to detect & characterize HPV. Also detects HepB & CMV. Antibodies are bound to surface of microtiter well & capture DNA bound to RNA probes. Hybrid Capture Assay RT-PCR - amplifies target TMA Treatment with sodium bisulfite to convert unmethylated C to U primers are then specific to strand w/ C and U Methylation specific PCR RT-PCR at one temp, amplifies target, uses reverse transcriptase, RNAseH, and T7-RNA pol. NASBA Uses 2 primers, one w/ restriction site, incorporates dATP(alpha)s. Nuclease nicks primer allowing other primer to keep amplifying and displace 1st primer at isothermal temp. SDA