Medical Practice Exam Review Study Guide, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Practice Exam Review Study Guide and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 CCBMA Exam Review Study Guide 2023 In a medical practice, what should patient sing-in sheets only contain? - Patient's first names as they sign in When can a medical practice call patients by their first name? - When they have permission In what form must patients of a medical practice have acknowledgement of their privacy? - Written signature and initials on notice What does the cycle of "the chain of infection" explain? - How pathogens transmit disease from person to person What sheets contain information about chemicals, lists hazards, precautions, and manufacturer information? - MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) sheet What are gowns, face shields, and gloves considered? - PPE's Where does a tympanic thermometer measure temperature? - In the ear Visual acuity measures a person's sight at specific distances... A. Ishihara test B. Weber test C. Snellen chart - C. Snellen chart A reflex hammer, tuning fork, and stethoscope are instruments used in what type of exam? - A physical exam Mensuration refers to... - Body measurement Why is patient education important? - It helps patients understand situation/need for changes The ROS (Review of Systems) is part of the Medical History and is GENERALLY taken by who? - The physician When interviewing a patient to obtain their medical history, the first step would be to ensure... A. prior testing is completed B. adequate time for interview C. privacy in a separate room - C. privacy in a separate room 2 What would the patient be draped with in the lithotomy positon? - A diagonal drape What is a percussion hammer used to check for? - Reflex action What test is used to assess a patient's lung function? - Spirometer What is an electrocardiograph used to detect? - Heart dysfunction What must a medical office adhere to when laboratory procedures are performed on site? - CLIA and OSHA standards The urine specimen that is MOST concentrated is the... A. random B. 24 hour C. first morning - C. first morning What is the most COMMON site for capillary puncture in adults? - The middle finger What is the minimum amount of time records for dispensing/administration of controlled drugs be kept? - 2 years How many times must a drug label be read before administration? - 3 times What is an advantage of using parenteral administration of medication? A. less chance of infection B. faster completion time C. faster rate of absorption - C. faster rate of absorption A 25 gauge needle with 3/8 length is used for what type of injection? A. z-track B. IM C. ID D. subcut - C. ID What are the basic "ABC'S" for resuscitation? - Airway, breathing, circulation What is a severe allergic reaction caused by hypersensitivity to a substance called? - Anaphylactic shock What do you do first when responding to an office emergency? - Stay calm and follow office protocol For what purpose would you use an AED? - When a patient is in cardiac arrest Adenoma defined - Tumorous gland 5 What is the tympanic membrane? - It is a semitransparent membrane that receives sound waves, aka "ear drum" Schedule for control substances: I II III IV V - I: Cannot be prescribed II: Must be on triplicate prescription form in physician's own hand writing III: May be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period-must be indicated on the prescription form IV: Sign by physician, can be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period V: Inventory records must be kept STD's that the CDC keeps track of are... - Chancroid, chlamydia, gonorrhea, Hepatitis B, HIV, and syphilis. What is a scalpels function? - To make surgical incisions What is an operating scissor function? - To cut through tissue What is a plain slinter forcep used for? - To remove foreign objects from tissues What is a standard thumb forcep used for? - To pick up tissue What is a standard tissue forcep with teeth used for? - To grasp tissue What is a Kelly hemostatic forcep used for? - To clamp off blood vessels What is a Mosquito hemostatic forcep used for? - To hold delicate tissue or to clamp off small blood vessels T/F: A Crile-Wood needle holder is used to grasp a curved needle. - T T/F: A tenaculum is not used to grasp and hold the cervix. - F; A tenaculum is used to grasp and hold the cervix. What is Meniere's disease? - Meniere's disease affects the ear, causing progressive deafness, and attacks of tinnitus and vertigo. What does the Ishihara test measure? - Color vision/blindness What does the Weber test measure? - Hearing loss assessment 6 What does the Jaeger reading card assess? - Near visual acuity What does MSDS stand for and mean? - MSDS: Material Data Safety Sheet It contains information regarding the potential health effects of exposure to chemicals What does an audiometer measure/assess? - An audiometer quantitatively measures hearing for various frequencies of sound waves. What does the Rhine test measure/assess? - It measures hearing acuity and loss Definitions of medical suffixes: -phagia -phasia -plagia -ptosis - -phagia: swallowing -phasia: speech -plagia: paralysis -ptosis: drooping Parenteral administration of medication defined - Taking into the body through the piercing of the skin barrier, like an injection What gauge needle and length are used for IM and the Z-track injections? - 18-23 gauge needle, and 1-1 1/2" length What gauge needle and length are used for an ID injection? - 25-27 gauge needle, and 3/8-5/8" length What gauge needle and length are used for a subcutaneous injection? - 23-25 gauge needle, and 1/2-5/8" length Septic shock defined - Significant drop in BP that can lead to respiratory or heart failure, can lead to death Metabolic shock defined - Body's homeostasis impaired; acid-based balance disturbed (insulin shock (hypoglycemia) or diabetic coma (ketoacidosis)) body fluids imbalanced Parts of the syringe and needle - plunger, barrel, needle hub, and the needle Needle: shaft, lumen (diameter/gauge), bevel Tort of Negligence: Malfeasance Misfeasance Nonfeasance - Malfeasance: Performing illegal act Misfeasance: Performing legal act improperly Nonfeasance: Failure to perform necessary action What does the Snellen Chart measure? - Visual acuity of distance Hypovolemic shock defined - The loss of blood or other bodily fluids Cardiogenic shock defined - Failure of the heart to pump blood adequately to all of the body's vital organs Neurogenic shock defined - Nervous system unable to control the diameter/dilation of blood vessels Psychogenic shock defined - Caused by unpleasant physical/emotional stimuli; temporarily deprives brain of blood, thus fainting can occur (syncope) What are all the ways a physician can be granted a license to practice medicine? - Examination: State exam or national (NBME-National Board of Medical Examiners) Endorsement: State accepts successful NBME examinees Reciprocity: Other state accepts physician's license from the state they took and passed their exam Cysto- is a prefix meaning - Bladder The term for narrowing is - Stenosis Gastrectomy is the term for excision of the - Stomach The abbreviation meaning two times a day is - BID Indicate the correctly spelled word A. Pharengitis B. Pharyngitis C. Pharyngytis - B. Pharyngitis Communication with patients can be improved by A. Using their first name B. Talking about yourself C. Providing privacy D. Avoiding eye contact - C. Providing privacy What are patient instruction sheets used for? - Prevent misunderstanding The best time to perform a breast exam . - Monthly Hyper- - Increased Nephro- - Kidney Auto- - Self Osteo- - Bone Dys- - Painful Litho- - Stone What is a sterile covering placed over a wound called - A dressing What is the procedure where instruments such as fiberoptic scopes are soaked in chemicals called - Cold sterilization What is the pulse located at the elbow called - Brachial What is the pulse at the knee called - Popliteal What is the pulse located at the thumb side of the wrist called - Radial What is the pulse located at the side of the neck called - Carotid What is the pulse located in the middle of the groin called - Femoral What is the highest reading of the blood pressure called - Systolic What is blood pressure measured while the patient is lying, sitting, and standing considered - Orthostatic What is an instrument used to test reflexes called - Percussion hammer What is an instrument used to open a body orifice for viewing called - Speculum What is an instrument used to examine the eye called - Ophthalmoscope What is an instrument used to examine the ear called - Otoscope What is an instrument used to examine the rectum and colon called - Sigmoidoscope What is irregular heart rhythm called - Arrhythmia What is rapid pulse called - Tachycardia What is having no symptoms called - Asymptomatic What is slow pulse called - Bradycardia What is family history considered: subjective or objective info - Subjective What is marital status considered: subjective or social history - Social history What do the patient's own words determine: the chief complaint or subjective - Chief complaint What is the physician's physical examination considered: objective or subjective - Objective Physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine - Urinalysis A chemical substance that prevents clotting of blood in a blood specimen - Heparin A vacutainer that contains no anticoagulant has a stopper colored... - Red Material that presents a risk of possible infection is called - A biological hazard The first step in preparing a laboratory specimen is... - Patient identification What is the usual site for capillary testing - Fingertip A urine specimen obtained by the patient simply urinating in a cup is... - Random catch When a patient is instructed to cleanse the urethra with a antiseptic towelette is considered what type of specimen? - Clean catch The legal method of documenting lab testing process security is called... - Chain of custody What would a sterile swab be used for? - Wound culture The intensity of color in a urine specimen indicates what - Concentration What can improper handling of lab specimens result in - Contamination What instrument is used to prepare urine for a microscopic examination - Centrifuge What is the number of leads for a standard EKG. - 12 What is a simple lab test that has a high degree of accuracy - A waived test What type of results are ensured by a quality control in a laboratory - Accurate What are stool specimens tested for - Occult blood What is a machine used for testing lung capacity - Spirometer What type of specimen can be used to diagnose tuberculosis - Sputum specimen What the patient begins urinating in the toilet and catches the remainder in the cup, what type of catch is that considered? - Midstream catch A physician orders 150 mcg of Vitamin B12. You have 100 mcg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? - 1.5 A physician orders 10mg of Compazine. You have 5 mg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? - 2 A sub cut injection is given at what angle - 45-90 degree What is the most used deep (adult) IM injection site - Dorsogluteal When administering a sub cut injection, what is the max dose - 2cc aka 2ml What should you keep in mind when choosing a needle/syringe unit for the patient - Age and size of patient Skeletal system organs - Bones Muscle system - Muscles Opposition - Thumb touch to other fingers Elevation - Shrugging shoulders Depression - Lowering shoulders Protraction - Hunching shoulders Retraction - Squaring shoulders Pronation - Back of the hand facing forward anatomically Supination - Front of the hand facing forward in anatomical position Plantar flexion - Pointing toes Dorsiflexion - Flexing foot/toes Eversion - Turning sole of the foot outward/laterally Inverison - Turning sole of the foot inwardly/medially Nervous system organs - Brain, spinal cord, sensory organs, and nerves Circulatory system organs - Heart, and blood vessels Lymphatic system organs - Red bone marrow, thymus gland, spleen, and lymph nodes Respiratory system organs/structures - Nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx (voice box), trachea, the lungs, respiratory airways (bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli) Respiratory airways - Trachea (anterior to the esophagus), Bronchi (primary, secondary, and tertiary), bronchioles, alveolar ducts Digestive system organs: Alimentary canal and Accessory - Esophagus, stomach, small intestine (duodenal, jejunum, ileum), large intestine (cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum) Liver, and pancreas Urinary system organs - Kidneys, and urinary bladder Endocrine system glands and organs - hypothalamus, pituitary gland, pineal gland, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal gland, pancreas, and reproductive organs (female: ovaries, male: testes) Male reproductive structures and accessory glands - Penis, testes, and scrotum Prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland Female reproductive structures and accessory glands - Ovaries, uterine tubes (fallopian tubes), uterus, cervix, vagina, and vulva Mammary glands Applied ethics - Practical application of moral standards that are meant to benefit the patient Bioethics - Moral dilemmas and issues of advanced medicine and medical research (a branch of applied ethics) Litigious - Inclined to sue Laws - Rule or actions prescribed by authority that have a binding legal force Precedent - The decision of the case acts as a model for any future cases in which the facts are the same Ethics - The branch of philosophy related to morals, moral principles, and moral judgements Morality - Quality of being virtuous or practicing the right conduct Utilitarianism - An ethical theory based on the principle of what is the greatest good for the greatest number of people The greatest good for the greatest number of people Right-based ethics - Places the primary emphasis on a person's individual right Individual's rights to be protected Duty-based ethics - Focuses on performing one's duty to various people and institutions Based on absolute moral rules Justice-based ethics - Based on an important moral restraint called "veil of ignorance"- no one person is advantaged or disadvantaged Fair distribution of benefits and burndens Virtue-based ethics - Based on the belief that we have a duty or responsibility to others Quality assurance (QA) - Gathering and evaluating information about the services provided and comparing this information with an accepted standard Checks and balances - Designed by the framers of the Constitution so that no one branch of government would have more power then another and so that each branch of government is scrutinized by other branches of government Statutes - Laws passed by legislative bodies, Congress or a state legislature Common law (Case law) - Court decision Stare decisis - "Let the decision stand" Civil law defined - Concerns relationships either between individuals or between individuals and the government; all law that in not criminal Preponderance of evidence - Favors one side more than the other Tort law definition and Needs for Tort - Harms done to others 1. harm done 2. caused by the other person (intentional or not) Assault - Threat of bodily harm to another Battery - Actual bodily harm to another person without permission -algia - Pain -ectomy - Surgical removal -itis - Inflammmation -ology - Study -emia - Blood condition -tomy - Incision -osis - Abnormal condition -megaly - Enlargement -graphy - X-Ray exam -phasia - Speech -scopy - Examination -gram - Record STAT - Immediately po - By mouth Term for Lower blood pressure - Hypotension Term for Scar tissue - Cicatrix Term for Enlargement of the kidney - Nephromegaly Term for Gallbladder stones - Cholelithiasis Term for Beneath the skin - Subcutaneous Term for Upper jaw - Maxilla Goiter is what type of disease? - Endocrine system disease Term for Vomiting blood - Hematemesis Term for Smallest blood vessel - Capillary Term for Kneecap - Patella Term for Inflammation of a nerve - Neuritis Term for Heart attack - Myocardial infarction Term for Blood in the urine - Hematuria Term for Large tongue - Macroglossia Term for Fainting - Syncope Term for X-Ray study of the bladder - Cystogram Term for Slow heart beat - Bradycardia Term for Membrane covering the lungs - Pleura Term for Loss of calcium in the bones - Osteoporosis Term for Severe itching - Pruitis Situated in front, or in the front part - Anterior Remote, farther from the point of origin - Distal Nearest, closer to the point of origin - Proximal Situated toward the outer part - Peripherral Situated below, or directed downward - Inferior Straightening motion that increases the angle between adjoining bones - Extension Movement toward the midline - Adduction Situated near the surface - Superficial Pertaining to the belly - Ventral Away from the midline, pertaining to a side - Lateral Pertaining to the back - Dorsal Pertaining to the middle - Medial Situated above, or directed upward - Superior Referring to the sole of the foot - Plantar Bending motion that decreases the angle between adjoining bones - Flexion Lying face down and flat - Prone The lungs are found in which immediate to most general cavity - Thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Lying flat on the back - Supine Toward the tail - Caudal Toward the brain/head - Rostral The liver is found in which immediate to most general cavity - Abdominal, then abdominopelvic, then ventral (anterior) The heart is found in which immediate to most general cavity - Pericardial, then mediastinum, then thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Frontal/Coronal plane divides the body into - Anterior and posterior Midsagittal plane divides the body into - Left and right Transverse plane divides the body into - Superior and inferior What are the main cavities - Dorsal and ventral What is located in dorsal cavity - Cranial and vertebral What cavities are located in the thoracic cavity - Right pleural cavity, left pleural cavity, mediastinum What organs are located in the thoracic cavity - Lungs, heart, part of the esophagus, trachea, and thymus gland What cavities does the diaphragm divide - Thoracic and abdominopelvic What organs are located in the abdominopelvic cavity - Stomach, small intestine, large intestine, kidneys, bladder, gall bladder, liver, pancreas, and reproductive organs What cavities are located in the abdominopelvic cavity - Abdominal and pelvic The abdomen is divided into 9 areas. Starting from upper right (under the breast) and going across, then down the rows - Right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac Right lateral, umbilicus, left lateral Right iliac/inguinal, hypogastric/pelvic, left iliac/inguinal Going in order from the most superior vertebrae to the tail bone name the type of vertebrae and give the right number of each - Cervical (C1-C7), includes atlas (C1) and axis (C2) Thoracic (T1-T12) Lumbar (L1-L5) Sacrum Coccyx T/F: When two people communicate, both persons will alternate roles as sender and receiver as they seek responses and clarification. - T T/F: Shaking your head in a negative way can jeopardize your communication with the patient. - T T/F: A MA may need to enter a patients' personal space to deliver care to a patient. - T T/F: Explanations do not help ease patient anxiety about what will happen. - F Patient rights include this principle . - Confidentiality Failure to perform professional care is called . - Negligence The patient's medical records belong to the . - Physician A patient agrees to receive a flu shot. This is an example of . - Consent A method of meditating disputes between a patient and a physician is called . - Arbitration A false statement said about another person's character is called . - Slander A person under legal age who is self-supporting and living apart from parents is called This document is required in order to provide medical records . - Records release State law requires that physicians always report this condition . - Abuse Billing an insurance company for false charges is considered . - Fraud Carefully documenting the patient's care will help prevent professional . - Liability T/F: Written instructions are the best way to be sure patient's understand directions. - T T/F: One way to be sure a patient understands instructions would be to have the patient repeat them. - T T/F: in communications, responding may be verbal and non-verbal. - T T/F: Patients should be informed of the office payment policy only after several visits. - F T/F: Many offices use visual aids to inform patients about their medical care. - T T/F: Written prescriptions must be signed by the physician. - T T/F: Verbal explanations of a procedure do not help the patient remain calm. - F a/an . - Emancipated minor T/F: A patient on a soft diet should avoid rough foods such as ground meat. - T T/F: A patient could have milk on a clear liquid diet. - F T/F: Patients with certain allergies may have a reaction with routine immunization. - T T/F: Postoperative wound care instructions may include dressing changes. - T T/F: Physically impaired patients may require an attendant when seen in the office. - T T/F: Guide dogs are allowed to accompany their blind person to a physician's office. - T T/F: The USDA Food Guide is often used when explaining healthy eat habits. - T T/F: The best fluid to ingest during physical exercise is water - T What is the best method of preventing transmission of disease? - Hand washing What artery is normally used for taking a pulse reading? - Radial An instrument used to examine the ears is called what? - Otoscope Does social history include marital status? - Yes Which of the following occurs as a urine specimen remains on the counter for a long time? - Bacteria multiply What does a Holter monitor measure? - Heart rhythm What nerve is most apt to be affected during an injection in the buttock? - Sciatic What is an injection into fatty tissue lying immediately under the skin is called? - Subcutaneous What is the first and most important rule to remember is an emergency? - Stay calm What are MA's expected to make decisions in medical office emergencies based on? - Medical knowledge Instruments touched by unloved hands are considered... - Contaminated Define aerobes - Bacteria that thrive in oxygen In what position should hinged instruments be in when sterilized - Open What are molds and yeasts types of - Fungi False imprisonment - A violation of the personal liberty of another person through unlawful restraint Defamation of character - Damage caused to a person's reputation thought spoken or written word Fraud - Deceitful practice that deprives another person od his or her rights Invasion of privacy defined - The unauthorized publicity of information about a patient Public Law (Criminal law) - Socially intolerable conduct that is punishable by law Misdemeanors - Punishable by fines or imprisonment of up to one year; less serious offenses than felonies Felony - A serious crime that carries a punishment of death or imprisonment for more than one year Defendant - Plaintiff; The person being sued in a court of law Beneficence - Bringing about good Veracity - The duty of telling the truth The four D's - Duty, Dereliction, Direct (proximate) cause, and Damages Duty - Obligation est. between physician and patient Dereliction of duty - The physician or healthcare professional failed to provide a correct standard of care to the patient, thus not meeting their duty Direct (proximate) cause - The breach of duty was the direct cause of the patient's injury Damages defined - Injuries caused by the defendant for which compensation is due Res ipsa loquitur - "The thing speaks for itself" Res judicata - "The thing has been decided"; a matter decided by judgement Mediation - Involving an opinion of a neutral third party for a nonbinding decision What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (1991) prohibit? - Discrimination- unfair or unequal treatment Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 defined - An employer is required by law to provide a safe and healthy work environment Clinical Laboratories Improvement Act (CLIA) defined - Minimum quality standards for laboratories enforced by the federal governent Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1985 defined - An important act that covers a wide range of federal government financing for health insurance coverage continuation AFTER an employee had been laid off or left a job Social Security Act of 1935 defined - Federal law that covers all private and most public sector employees Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 defined - Regulates the privacy of patients' healthcare information HIPAA objectives - Improve portability of health insurance Combat fraud, abuse, and waste Promote the expanded use of medical savings accounts Simplify the administration of health insurance Stages of grief - Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance Palliative care - The total care of patients whose disease is no longer responsive to curative therapy Control systems Medical terminology uses what main languages? - Latin and Greek What do doctors of osteopathic medicine stress the importance of? - Preventative medicine and holistic patient care, in addition to a special focus on the musculoskeletal system and osteopathic manipulative therapy (OMT) Subluxations - Removing any disruptions or distortions of this energy flow that may be caused by slight misalignments Substance abuse - The repeated and excessive use of a substance, despite its destructive effects, to produce please and escape reality What is the use of illegal drugs or the misuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs considered? - Substance abuse Addiction regarding substances - The compulsive use of a substance despite its negative and sometimes dangerous effects Tolerance - The need to increase the amount of a substance to get the same effect Paraphrasing - Listening to what the sender is communication, analyzing the words, and restating them to confirm that the receiver has understood the message as the sender intended Types of defense mechanisms - Verbal aggression, sarcasm, rationalization, compensation, regression, repression, apathy, displacement, denial, physical avoidance, and projection Apathy - A lack of feeling, emotion, interest, and concern Barriers of communication - Physical impairment, language, prejudice, stereotyping, and perception Maslow's hierarchy of needs (bottom of the pyramid to the top) - Physiological needs (survival), Safety and security, Love and belonging (relationships), Esteem and recognition, and Self-actualization (fulfillment) Infraction - A minor offense punishable only by a fine; violation Libel - Written defamation; a harmful, false statement made about anther person written out Slander - Oral defamation; a harmful, false statement made about another person by mouth Burden of proof in a Criminal case - Reasonable doubt; 100% guilty Burden of proof in a Civil case - Preponderance of the evidence; more than 50% guilty Arbitration - An alternative to trial in which a third party is chosen to hear evidence and make a decision because of the individual's familiarity with or knowledge of the law or the issues involved Continuity of care - Continuation of care smoothly from one provider to another, so that the patient receives the most benefit and no interruption in care Problem-oriented medical record (POMR) 4 bases - Database, problem list, treatment plan, and progress notes SOAP acronym for... - Subjective impressions Objective clinical evidence Assessment or diagnosis Plans for further studies, treatment, or management Subjective information defined and examples - Provided by the patient; symptoms Personal demographics, personal and medical history, family history, social history, and chief complaint Objective information defined and examples - Provided by the physician; signs; measureable/observable Physical exam findings, lab reports, radiology reports, diagnosis, and treatment prescribed How long do medical records of Medicare or Medicaid patients have to be kept? - 10 years Electronic health record (EHR) defined - An electronic record of health-related information about a patient that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff from MORE THAN ONE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION Lithotomy position description - Lying on back, with legs open and bent at the knee and feet in stirrups Sims position description - Lying on stomach with right leg flexed sharply and raised up to hip area, with left leg slightly bent Knee-chest position description - Kneeling with butt elevated, head resting to one side lying on the table Fowler's position description - Sitting position with table head at a 45 degree angle and patient resting completely back What is myopia? - Nearsighted What is hyperopia? - Farsighted What is presbyopia? - A decreased ability to focus clearly on close objects; begins to occur after age 40 Erythema defined - Redding of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin Edema defined - Swelling Dilation versus Effacement - Opening versus thinning of the cervix Gravida (gravidity) defined - Pregnant Para (parity) defined - Birth What is a normal fetal heart rate? - 120-160 beats per minute What does a Doppler measure? - Fetal pulse starting between 10-12 weeks What two measurements are taken of an infant not normally taken after infancy? - Head and chest circumference Types of wounds: incision - Clean, smooth cut caused by a sharp instrument Types of wounds: laceration - Tissues are torn apart leaving ragged and irregular edges Types of wounds: puncture - A sharp-pointed object piercing the skin layers Types of wounds: abrasion - Scrape; like a "rug burn" Routes of administration of medication - Oral, sublingual, inhalation, rectal, vaginal, topical, ID, subcut, IM, and IV Adverse reactions defined - Secondary effects that occur along with the therapeutic effect of the drug What degree angle does an intradermal injection be inserted? - 10-15 degree angle What is ischemia? - Deficiency of blood in a body part Cardiac cycle: P wave, QRS complex, and T wave - P wave: contraction (depolarization) of the atria QRS complex: contraction (depolarization) of the ventricles, relaxation (repolarization) of the atria T wave: ventricles relax (repolarize) What is the difference between a segment and an interval regarding the cardiac cycle? - A segment is the portion of the ECG between two waves, and an interval is the length of a wave. What is the normal standardization mark of the electrocardiograph (ECG)? - 10mm high How many leads and electrodes are there in an ECG? - 12 and 10 Types of artifacts - Muscle, wandering baseline, 60-cycle interference, and interrupted baseline What are muscle artifacts caused by? - Patient movement of any kind What are wondering-baseline artifacts caused by? - Loose electrodes, dried-out electrolyte, body lotions, and excessive respirations What causes 60-cycle interference artifacts? - Lead wires not following body contour, other electrical equipment in the room or walls, and improper grounding of the electrocardiograph Normal sinus rhythm - ECG that is within normal limits What are pulmonary function tests used for? - PFT's are used to assess lung functioning, assisting in the detection and evaluation of pulmonary disease Spirometry defined - A simple, noninvasive screening test that is often performed in the medical office; it measures how much air is pushed out of the lungs and how fast it is pushed out What is asthma? - A chronic lung disease that affects the small airways (alveoli) of the lungs What does a peak flow meter measure? - Measures how quickly air flows out of the lungs when the patient exhales forcefully What is the difference between radiolucent and radiopaque? - Radiolucent permits the passage of x-rays; soft-tissue structures Radiopaque obstructs the passage of x-rays; bones What type of patient is recommended to have a bone density scan for osteoporosis? And at what age do they start having it every 2 years? - Postmenopausal women, above 65 years old have it done every 2 years Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) defined - A radiograph of the kidney's, ureters, and bladder to detect kidney stones, blockages, narrowing, and growths within the urinary system What is computed technology (CT)? - An advanced radiographic exam that uses only minimal amounts of radiation What are MRI's used for? - For imaging tissues of high fat and water content that cannot be seen with other radiologic techniques Reference range defined - within an acceptable range Waived test defined - A laboratory test that has been determined by CLIA to be simple procedure that is easy to perform and has a low risk of erroneous results Nonwaived test defined - A complex lab test that does not meet the CLIA criteria for waiver and is subject to the CLIA regulations What is an analyte? - A substance that is being identified or measured in a lab test What does quality control ensure? - Test results to be reliable and valid What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative tests? - Qualitative indicates whether or not a substance is present; while qualitative indicates the exact amount of chemical substance is present Hematology defined - The study of blood What do these stand for: WBC, RBC, HgB, Hct, PT, and Plt? - White blood cell Red blood cell Hemoglobin Hematocrit What are the three tiny bones in the middle of the ear called? - Ossicles What were HCPCS codes developed to identify? - Services/supplies not in the CPT-4 What is a necessary trait a MA should have? A. bilingual B. empathy C. negativity - B. empathy Body language is an example of... A. eye contact B. verbal communication C. non-verbal communication - C. non-verbal communication In CA, the MA may administer which of the following procedures? A. suturing lacerations B. intravenous therapy C. intramuscular injections - C. intramuscular injections By law in CA, all MA's shall receive training in... A. infection control B. basic surgical procedures C. intubation - A. infection control When one state accepted another state's license for a doctor, it is... A. reciprocity B. endorsing C. credentialing - A. reccprocity What are the two main types of law? - Civil and criminal What type of consent is this considered: when the physician has explained a procedure, the risks and whether there are alternatives to the patient? - Informed consent Arbitration is... A. a court session B. a deposition C. mediating a dispute D. dismissing a charge - C. mediating a dispute Misfeasance, malfeasance, and malpractice are forms of... A. contracts B. liabilities C. negligence - C. negligence What is the one thing physicians in CA are required to report by law? - Abuse A housekeeper is a job classification which has... A. occupational exposure B. special requirements C. minimal requirements - A. occupational exposure Under CAL-OSHA, an exposure control plan must include... A. record keeping of occupational injuries B. information on sterilization procedures C. training in intravenous injections - A. record keeping of occupational injuries Is gonorrhea considered a reportable disease or condition? - Yes it is. The medical record can only be released once... - there is a signed release form filled out by the patient or guardian of the patient Under the Controlled Substance Act, Schedule II drugs... A. are written on special Rx blanks B. can not be prescribed to regular patients C. may be refilled up to 5 times in the span of 6 months - A. are written on special Rx blanks When instructing a specific procedure to a patient, it is MOST important that the MA... A. tell the patient what to do B. show the patient what to do C. give the patient a video to review - B. show the patient what to do What should you provide a patient when giving instructions for a 24 hour urine collection? - A collection container with written orders What should follow-up instructions for wound care include? - How to recognize complications Special diets may be needed for patients with... A. HIV/AIDS B. glaucoma C. emphysema D. Meniere's disease - C. emphysema Hemocoult instructions would include... A. time of day for the procedure B. correct dietary modifications C. use of special preservatives - B. correct dietary modifications What should you do when a patient has a hearing impairment? - Face the patient directly when speaking A patient from a different culture may need... A. written guidelines B. translated procedure C. outline of the office beliefs - B. translated procedure