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MN 568 FINAL EXAM 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

MN 568 FINAL EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!! |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST UPDATE MN 568 FINAL EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!! |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST UPDATE

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2023/2024

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Download MN 568 FINAL EXAM 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e MN 568 FINAL EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!! |GUARANTEED PASS |LATEST UPDATE The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety? Question options: a) Acetylcholine b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) c) Dopamine d) Serotonin b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least: Question options: 2 | P a g e a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 12 months c) 6 months A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack? Question options: a) Pheochromocytoma b) Hyperthyroidism c) Cardiac arrhythmias d) All of the above d) All of the above Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders? Question options: a) Benzodiazepines b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) c) Tricyclic antidepressants d) Cognitive behavioral therapy d) Cognitive behavioral therapy Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Question options: a) Hypersomnolence b) Blunted feelings c) Loss of interest in significant activities 5 | P a g e a) Memory impairment Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter? Question options: a) GABA b) Acetylcholine c) Dopamine d) Serotonin c) Dopamine What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion? Question options: a) 0.05 b) 0.1 c) 0.2 d) 0.3 d) 0.3 Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep? Question options: a) Every 30 minutes b) Every 60 minutes c) Every 90 minutes d) Every 180 minutes c) Every 90 minutes Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa? Question options: a) Hypercholesterolemia b) Hypermagnesmia c) Leukocytosis 6 | P a g e d) Decreased TRH a) Hypercholesterolemia Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration? Question options: a) Sertraline b) Fluoxetine c) Citoprolam d) Imipramine b) Fluoxetine Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? Question options: a) Liver function b) Vision c) Growth parameters d) Renal function c) Growth parameters It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault? Question options: a) Depression b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder c) Substance abuse d) PTSD d) PTSD Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth? Question options: a) 2 weeks 7 | P a g e b) 1 month c) 3 months d) 6 months d) 6 months Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States? Question options: a) Depression b) Anxiety c) Substance-related addictions d) Gambling b) Anxiety What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)? Question options: a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention b) Personality or environmental problems c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors d) Global assessment of functioning c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person's suicide risk? Question options: a) CAGE b) SANE c) SAD PERSONAS d) DIGFAST c) SAD PERSONAS Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups? Question options: 10 | P a g e b) False a) True When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects. Question options: a) True b) False a) True A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination? Question options: a) Human papillomavirus (HPV) b) Endometrial hyperplasia c) Vagismus d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome a) Human papillomavirus (HPV) A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea? Question options: a) Ceftriaxone b) Doxycycline c) Acyclovir d) Metronidazole a) Ceftriaxone A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to? Question options: a) Gonorrhea b) HPV 11 | P a g e c) Chlamydia d) Trichomonas c) Chlamydia A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding? Question options: a) Trichomonas b) Bacterial vaginosis c) HPV d) Herpes simplex virus b) Bacterial vaginosis Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? Question options: a) Metronidazole b) Ceftriaxone c) Diflucan d) Doxycycline a) Metronidazole A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate? Question options: a) Fluconazole b) Estrogen vaginal cream c) Metronidazole d) Doxycycline a) Fluconazole 12 | P a g e Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a: Question options: a) Filiform/digitate wart b) Dysplastic cervical lesion c) Condyloma acuminata d) Koilocytosis c) Condyloma acuminata During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious? Question options: a) An enlarged rubbery gland b) A hard irregular gland c) A tender gland d) A boggy gland b) A hard irregular gland Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers? Question options: a) Necrotizing fasciitis b) Periorbital cellulitis c) Erysipelas d) "Flesh-eating" cellulitis c) Erysipelas The forced vital capacity is decreased in: Question options: a) Asthma b) Chronic bronchitis c) Emphysema 15 | P a g e A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses? Question options: a) Testicular cancer b) Inguinal hernia c) Varicocele d) All of the above d) All of the above What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer? Question options: a) Radical orchidectomy b) Lumpectomy c) Radiation implants d) All of the above a) Radical orchidectomy A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan? Question options: a) Every month b) Every 3 to 4 months c) Every 6 to 12 months d) Every year b) Every 3 to 4 months Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause? Question options: a) "You must be under a lot of stress lately." 16 | P a g e b) "It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?" c) "The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism." d) "We'll have to do some tests." c) "The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism." Which of the following is "a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?" Question options: a) An ulcer b) A fissure c) Lichenification d) An excoriation b) A fissure A bulla is: a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do? Question options: a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment. b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient. c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint. d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture. 17 | P a g e c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint. Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition. Question options: a) True b) False a) True The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis. Question options: a) True b) False b) False Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia? Question options: a) Prednisone b) Metformin c) Synthroid d) Cephalexin a) Prednisone Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus? Question options: a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy? Question options: a) Insulin 20 | P a g e Which drug for Alzheimer's disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? Question options: a) Cholinesterase inhibitors b) Anxiolytics c) Antidepressants d) Atypical antipsychotics a) Cholinesterase inhibitors Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery? Question options: a) Epidural hematoma b) Subdural hematoma c) Subarachnoid hematoma d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage a) Epidural hematoma Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing? Question options: a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X a) CN V Which statement best describes a carotid bruit? Question options: a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery. b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less. c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency. 21 | P a g e d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis. d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? Question options: a) A female in her reproductive years b) A 40-year-old African American male c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of? Question options: a) Dementia b) Alzheimer's disease c) Parkinson's disease d) Delirium d) Delirium Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus? Question options: a) Purulent meningitis b) Chronic meningitis c) Aseptic meningitis d) Herpes meningitis c) Aseptic meningitis 22 | P a g e Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis? Question options: a) MRI b) CT c) Electroencephalogram (EEG) d) An initial lumbar puncture a) MRI What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? Question options: a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c) A pain that is worse upon awakening d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body Gabby, aged 22, has Bell's palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her? Question options: a) "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months." b) "Unfortunately, you'll probably have a small amount of residual damage." c) "Don't worry, I'll take care of everything." d) "You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage." a) "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months." Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson's disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him: Question options: a) "L-dopa is neuroprotective." b) "The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine." c) "This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit." 25 | P a g e Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire? Question options: a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik's cube b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean About 90% of all headaches are? Question options: a) Tension b) Migraine c) Cluster d) Without pathological cause d) Without pathological cause Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder? Question options: a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again. b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive. c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder. d) These persons may drive but never alone. c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder. Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month? Question options: a) Glatiramer acetate b) Natalizumab c) Fingolimod d) Glucocorticoids 26 | P a g e b) Natalizumab The 'freezing phenomenon' is a cardinal feature of? Question options: a) Parkinson's disease b) Alzheimer's disease c) A CVA d) Bell's palsy a) Parkinson's disease A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as? Question options: a) Spinothalamic dysfunction b) Ratcheting c) Cogwheeling d) Hand tremors c) Cogwheeling Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition? Question options: a) Guillain-Barré syndrome b) Parkinson's disease c) Alzheimer's disease d) Huntington's disease b) Parkinson's disease Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception? Question options: a) Guillain-Barré syndrome b) Parkinson's disease 27 | P a g e c) Alzheimer's disease d) Delirium c) Alzheimer's disease A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer's disease: Question options: a) SLUMS b) MoCA c) FAST d) MMSE d) MMSE Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset? Question options: a) 1 hour b) 3 hours c) 6 hours d) 12 hours b) 3 hours When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache? Question options: a) Tension b) Migraine c) Cluster d) Stress c) Cluster After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies? Question options: a) Elevated TSH 30 | P a g e c) Bone mass density measurement by densitometry d) Magnetic resonance imaging c) Bone mass density measurement by densitometry How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? Question options: a) Once a year b) Every 6 months c) Every 3 months d) Every visit d) Every visit Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient? Question options: a) Elevated uric acid level b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen c) Decreased urine pH d) Decreased C-reactive protein a) Elevated uric acid level A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first? Question options: a) Check his blood sugar. b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. c) Call 911. d) Ask him about his usual eating habits. 31 | P a g e b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity. Question options: a) True b) False b) false Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions? Question options: a) Myxedema b) Thyrotoxicosis c) Cushing's syndrome d) Pan-hypopituitarism b) Thyrotoxicosis A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment? Question options: a) No treatment at this time b) Diet and exercise for 6-week trial c) Diet, exercise, and oral medication d) Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin b) Diet and exercise for 6-week trial Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or "frozen shoulder." Which clue in Mrs. Gray's history supports this diagnosis? Question options: a) History of hypertension 32 | P a g e b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm. c) Her history of diabetes mellitus d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions. c) Her history of diabetes mellitus Question 16 0 / 2 points Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves' disease? Question options: a) Elevated TSH b) Elevated T4 c) Elevated thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) d) All of the above d) all of the above A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate? Question options: a) "Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications." b) "Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine." c) "Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control." d) All of the above d) All of the above Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates? Question options: a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs. b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying. 35 | P a g e c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint. Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? Question options: a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel. b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel. c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel. d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance. a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel. Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true? Question options: a) The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side. b) The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first. c) When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain. 36 | P a g e d) Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient. a) The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side. Mr. W, 53 years old, is seen in the clinic with concerns about his left foot. He has a 40-year history of type 1 diabetes with "fairly good" control on twice-daily insulin. He denies injury but states that he tripped a few months ago and that his foot is sore when he walks. Physical examination reveals an edematous, erythremic, and warm foot. There is a superficial ulcer on the plantar surface. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Question options: a) Fallen arch b) Arthritis c) Charcot joint d) Sprained ankle c) Charcot joint The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as: Question options: a) Apprehension sign b) Bulge sign c) Thumb sign d) None of the above a) Apprehension sign Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility, minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician? Question options: a) "Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful." b) "I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss 37 | P a g e more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition." c) "I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy." d) "It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition." c) "I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy." Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM. Question options: a) True b) False a) True A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next? Question options: a) Serum calcium b) TSH c) Electrolytes d) Urine specific gravity b) TSH The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane's description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane's examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs? Question options: a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle d) All of the above 40 | P a g e 3 weeks of use. b) An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred. c) Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention. d) All of the above c) Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention. We have an expert-written solution to this problem! Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Question options: a) Gastrocnemius weakness b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex c) Numbness in the lateral foot d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs? Question options: a) "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage." b) "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication." c) "You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain." d) "It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption." a) "You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage." 41 | P a g e Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? Question options: a) Decreased C-reactive protein b) Hyperalbuminemia c) Morning stiffness d) Weight gain c) Morning stiffness The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient? Question options: a) Overweight b) Mild obesity c) Moderate obesity d) Morbid obesity a) Overweight John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? Question options: a) Valgus stress test b) McMurray circumduction test c) Lachman test d) Varus stress test b) McMurray circumduction test Which stage of Paget's disease is characterized by elevated numbers of osteoblasts, resulting in abnormal increases in bone remodeling and leading to an irregular deposition of collagen fibers? Question options: a) Lytic b) Mixed 42 | P a g e c) Sclerotic d) All of the above b) Mixed A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? Question options: a) Sinus bradycardia b) Atrial fibrillation c) Supraventricular tachycardia d) U waves a) Sinus bradycardia The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit? a. High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 b. Free T4 and serum calcium c. Free T3 and T4 d. TSH and thyroxin antibodies a. High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes? a. Reduces postprandial blood glucose b. Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) c. Reduces total cholesterol d. All of the above d. All of the above A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin? a. Ketoacidosis b. Cirrhosis c. Hypoglycemic episodes d. All of the above d. All of the above A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of "my feet feel like they are on fire." He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left 45 | P a g e structure? Question options: a) Bone b) Synovium c) Tendons d) Fascia b) Synovium Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome? Question options: a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist. b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position. c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection. d) All of the above d) All of the above Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia. Question options: a) True b) False b) False Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity. Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobicbacteria? a. Staphylococcalaureus b. Clostridium perfringens c. S. pyrogenes d. Streptococcus b. Clostridium perfringens Tinea unguium is also knownas: a. Onychomycosis b. Tinea versicolor c. Tinea manuum d. Tinea corporis 46 | P a g e Onychomycosis
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