NACC PSW EXAMS, PRACTICE EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE EXAMS, Exams of Nursing

Download NACC PSW EXAMS, PRACTICE EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE EXAMS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e NACC PSW EXAMS, PRACTICE EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE EXAMS WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS 2024(NEWEST) ALREADY GRADED A+ In Canada's provinces and territories, support services are governed by: A. Regional health boards B. The Federal government C. Private or not-for-profit agencies D. The Provincial and territorial government D The trend in the Canadian health care system is to: A. Increase public spending on hospitals B. Decrease spending on community-based services C. Focus on providing more community-based services D. Promote facility based services over home care C Home care is an example of: A. A community-based service B. A facility-based service C. A community day program D. Palliative care A Which work setting provides acute care? A. Home care B. Long-term care facilities C. Assisted-living facilities D. Hospitals D Which work setting may provide subacute care? 2 | P a g e A. Retirement homes B. Long-term care facilities C. Group homes D. Hospices B What type of service aims to provide a temporary break to family caregivers? A. Acute care services B. Palliative Services C. Respite services D. Outpatient services C Which of the following is an example of residential facility? A. Hospital B. Methadone clinic C. Private residence D. Assisted-living facility D Residents in retirement facilities generally include: A. People with mental impairment B. Young adults with physical or other disabilities C. Frail older adults with multiple health problems D. Older adults with limited care needs D Residents in long-term care facilities generally require: A. 24-hour nursing care and support services B. Supervision and limited support services C. Acute care D. Housekeeping services, but not meal services A In which setting is maintaining a homelike atmosphere especially important? A. Hospital B. Doctor's office C. Community day program D. Long-term care facility 5 | P a g e C. The unfair treatment of people on the basis of their physical characteristics, health history, or group membership D. A refusal to admit the truth C During an exchange of information, a message is sent: A. From a sender to a receiver B. From a receiver to a sender C. From a sender to a sender D. Without feedback A Which is true? A. Verbal communication does not involve the spoken word B. Verbal communication is the truest reflection of a person's feelings C. Messages can sent by facial expressions, gestures, posture, body movements, appearance and eye contact D. All people like to be touched C To communicate with your client, Mr. Lam, You should: A. Use words and phrases B. Listen to concerns and report them to the supervisor, who can answer his questions C. Give your opinion when he is sharing fears and concerns D. Ask closed questions when you need specific information B When talking with Mr. Long, Which of the following might indicate that you are listening? A. You continue making the bed with your back to him B. You have direct eye contact with him C. You cross your arm and look away D. You roll your eyes at what he has said B You and Mrs. Jones are talking about her surgery. Which of the following is a closed question? A. "Do you feel better now?" B. "Tell me what your plans are for home" 6 | P a g e C. " What will you do when your fully recover?" D. "How long will you be off work?" A Your client tells you she is not happy that she has to use a walker. Which of the following response show empathy? A. You tell her about a time you had to use crutches. B. You suggest methods that might help her use her walker more efficiently . C. You quickly tried to change the subject to something more happier. D. You listen to her and acknowledge her feelings D Focusing is a useful communication tool when: A. A person is rambling B. You want to make sure you understand the message C. You want the person to share thoughts and feelings D. You need information A Which statement will promote communication? A. "Don't worry" B. "Everything will be just fine" C. This is a good facility" D. "I see you are upset. Do you want to talk about this?" D Which is a barrier to communication? A. Interrupting B. Repeating what the person says C. Giving advice D. A and C D A client is angry. Which of the following statement is true? A. The person probably has a disease that affects thinking and behavior. B. Drug or alcohol abuse is likely. C. You should tell the person to calm down and that everything will be fine. D. Listening and using silence are important 7 | P a g e D In regard to assertive communication, which of the following is true? A. You appear upset, cold and angry. B. You appear confident, calm and composed. C. You are usually not respectful. D. You appear hesitant, apologetic, and timid. B The membership of a health care team is determined by: A. The client's needs B. The nurse's needs C. The physician's needs D. The needs of the client's family A Which of the following is a benefit of the team approach of health care? A. Opportunities for confidentiality B. Opportunities for delegation C. Opportunities for collaboration D. Opportunities for assignment of tasks C The following statements are about health care teams and facilities. Which is true? A. Teams are often interdisciplinary B. Family conferences do not include the client C. Team members usually work in different locations D. Team members have few opportunities to meet A In a community setting, who usually accesses, monitors, and evaluates a client's needs and coordinates the services of the health care team? A. The family physician B. The case manager C. The occupational therapist D. The social worker B 10 | P a g e A. Blame others B. Avoid facing reality C. Solve Problems D. Make excuses for behaviour B Which of the following is a sign of burnout? A. Increased patience with clients and co-workers B. Improved appetite C. Increased use of sarcasm D. Getting enough sleep at night C Goals should be SMART. What does SMART stand for? A. Simple, monthly, allowable, reasonable, timely B. Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, timely C. Simple, measurable, achievable, reasonable, topical D. Specific, monthly, allowable, realistic, topical B when trying to stay organized and save time, it is best to: A. Save the important tasks until last B. Not set yourself a time limit for each task C. Develop a routine that works for you and the client D. Remain Inflexible C The first step in the problem-solving process is to: A. Call for help B. Learn to say no assertively C. Identify the problem D. Think of as many solutions as you can C What is an important part of resolving conflict? A. Communication and good work ethics B. Focusing on the person, not the problem C. Avoiding the person with whom you have a conflict D. Confronting the person with your supervisor for support 11 | P a g e A Ethics apply only to life and death situations. A. True B. False B Code of ethics provide rules and answers to ethical Activities of daily living (ADLs) are: A. Social and recreational activities B. Activities that support workers performs to prevent injuries C. Physical exercise that people perform daily to keep themselves fit D. Self-care activities that people perform daily to remain independent and to function in society D Which of the following is a way in which support workers assist nurses or other health care team members? A. Assist the client's needs B. Order range-of-motion exercises C. Witness legal signatures on permission forms D. Report changes in the client's behavior or health D Resident is a term used to describe a person who is receiving care at: A. Home B. A long-term care facility C. An outpatient clinic D. A hospital B The main focus of the health care team is to: A. See as many clients as possible B. Provide quality care for the client C. Complete assigned task as quickly as possible D. Find a cure for the client's illness or condition B Support workers are: 12 | P a g e A. Unregulated care providers B. Licensed health care workers C. Members of a professional college D. Members of a regulatory body A Scope of practice means: A. The task that are assigned by your supervisor B. The task that a client ask you to perform C. The effort you put into performing a task or procedure D. The legal limits of your role D Professionalism is: A. A term used to describe workplace settings B. An approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behavior C. A commitment made by regulated professionals D. Another term for confidentiality B Which of the following is true? A. You can use a client's phone to make personal calls B. Friends can visit you at work C. You must follow your employer's dress code policy D. Sharing your personal problems with a client shows compassion C In a long-term care facility, the client's information should be share among: A. Health care team members involve in the client's care B. Health care team members and friends who visit the client C. Family and friends of the client D. All staff members at the facility A Compassion means: A. Keeping one's feelings to oneself B. Approaching your work with enthusiasm 15 | P a g e B. Provincial government funding is shifting to home care. C. Hospital care is cheaper and better alternative for most people D. All provinces and territories govern their programs in a similar manner B The Canada Health Act Which law ensures that every citizen has access to health care? Rising costs of providing technology, drugs and services The most pressing cause of health care reform has been : Support services provided through home care DO NOT include Respiratory Therapy A holistic approach to health Takes into account the whole person Do people with strong emotional health show their emotions easily? People with strong emotional health do not show their emotions easily. Acute Illness Appears suddenly and lasts a short time People usually recover from chronic illness This is not true of chronic illness Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs A system that arranges human needs into categories Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms the bill identifying human rights that are guaranteed to everyone in Canada; on every level and embedded in the Constitution of Canada Provincial Human Rights Codes Freedom from discrimination, harassment. Equal treatment with respect to services and facilities, age, sex, ethnicity. Does not promote the right to vote informed consent Must include information about the nature of the treatment, discuss potential risks and side effects, likely consequences of not having the treatment. Does not include reassurance that this is the best and only option. Negligence 16 | P a g e careless neglect, often resulting in injury. Prison term is unlikely. Assault Intentional attempt or threat to touch a persons body without the persons consent. False Imprisonment the illegal restraint of another person's movement prejudice preconceived opinion that is not based on reason or actual experience Activities of Daily Living Self care activities that people perform to remain independant and function in society Unregulated Health Care Provider Personal Support Worker Professionalism An approach to work that demonstrates a respect for others, commitment, competence and appropriate behaviour Hospitals Work settings that provide acute care respite services service that provides a temporary break to family caregivers Residents in retirement facilities older adults with limited care needs Membership of the healthcare team determined by the clients needs opportunity for collaboration benefits of team approach to health care Case manager evaluates a clients needs and coordinates the services of the health care in a community team Delegated task responsibility You, and the RN are responsible Stress 17 | P a g e the emotional, behavioural, or physical response to an event or situation. Not influenced by gender. Displacement When you respond in anger to someone who was not the person who angered you. S.M.A.R.T Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timely Non-maleficence duty to do no harm, provide a safe environment Autonomy self-government, respecting personal preferences Function of the Care Plan Provide central reference point on the clients health problems, needs and care for communication and to ensure everyone provides the same care. NOT to provide information that never changes. Subjective Data things a person tells you about that you cannot observe through your senses; symptoms Graphic sheet used to record measurements and observations made three to four times per day. Speaker to reciever exchange of information Verbal communication expressing ideas to others by using spoken words, NOT the truest reflection of a persons feelings. Closed questions Questions that can usually be answered with yes or no. Focussing as a communication tool When a person is rambling Questions Used to promote good communication receptive aphasia difficulty understanding spoken or written words, language apraxia of speech 20 | P a g e Contracture The lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle Flexion Bending the body part Ambulation the act of walking. Do not let client shuffle or slide after bed rest A single tip cane To be used on the strong side Cycle of abuse honeymoon phase, tension building phase, abusive incident. Both men and women can be abused. Situation with an abusive client Do not touch the client Not a sign of physical abuse stiff and sore joints a potential sign of sexual abuse intense fear of bathing or perineal care financial abuse stealing, taking advantage of, or threatening someone for financial gain When you suspect a client is being abused Tell your supervisor Home management duties include Light housekeeping tasks When working in a clients kitchen Use paper towel to dry hands Nutrition the many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption and use of foods and fluids by the body Protein needed for tissue growth and repair 21 | P a g e Daily Value indicates whether there is a little or a lot of a nutrient in a serving of food Diabetes A condition in which the body is unable to produce enough insulin. Does not require a sodium restricted diet. Insulin A hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics Diabetic diet must eat the same amount of carbohydrates, protein and fat each day. Gastronomy tube The surgical placement of a feeding tube from the exterior of the body directly into the stomach. Common reasons for tube feedings cancer of the esophagus, surgery to the mouth, dysphasia dysphasia difficulty speaking Aspiration Breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. Major complication of nasogastric or naso- intestinal tubes. rehabilitation Restore to normal life. Often slower for older adults. physiotherapist therapist who treats with exercises and other physical treatments to restore strength and balance Rehabilitation process addresses the whole person DIPPS Dignity, independence, preference, privacy, safety Assessment involves Collecting information about the client Nursing diagnosis 22 | P a g e a health problem that can be treated by nursing measures. Trendelenburg position head of the bed is lowered, foot of the bed is raised Sims position lying on left side with right knee drawn up and with left arm drawn behind, parallel to the back Fowler's position a semi-sitting position; the head of the bed is raised between 45 and 60 degrees Semi-Fowler's Position the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees water temperature for bed bath 40.5 degrees (105F) alopecia hair loss Elastic stockings reduce swelling in legs, prevent blood clots, exert pressure on the veins. Radiation pain pain that spreads out from an area Amount of time between medication and procedure 30 minutes How often should a client who tires easily rest? As often as they need too. Adults of all ages often fear dying alone Palliative care Services for all people with a progressive and life threatening illness that relieves and reduces uncomfortable symptoms The last sense to be lost as death approaches hearing DNR 25 | P a g e supine position lying on back, facing upward prone position lying on abdomen, facing downward do not do this with an indwelling catheter tape any leaks at connection site indwelling catheter one that remains inside the body for a prolonged time clean the perineum before collecting midstream specimens fecal impaction the prolonged retention and buildup of feces in the rectum bowel training developing a regular elimination pattern for controlling bowel movements Empty an ostomy pouch when feces is present Melena Black tarry stool Ostomy surgically create an opening Glass thermometer rarely used in a health care setting radial pulse the pulse felt at the wrist, most common method adult pulse of 120 bpm report immediately systolic blood pressure the pressure created in the arteries when the left ventricle contracts and forces blood out into circulation. Point where the first sound is heard. 26 | P a g e prevent stasis ulcer Skin breakdown from inadequate circulation. avoid injury to legs and feet when giving care. serous drainage clear, watery drainage purulent drainage thick green, yellow, or brown drainage serosanguineous drainage thin, watery drainage that is blood-tinged Cyanosis bluish discoloration of the skin Hypoxia lack of oxygen in the cells Orthopnea ability to breathe only in an upright position 5 rights of medication administration right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time Cell basic unit of body structure Epidermis Outer layer of skin How many bones in the body 206 bones Layers of skin 3: Epidermis, Dermis, Subcutaneous Skeletal muscles Under voluntary control Cerebral cortex place for the highest functions of the brain Medulla 27 | P a g e the base of the brainstem; controls heartbeat and breathing Arteries carry blood away from the heart Veins Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart small intestine duodenum, jejunum, ileum. where most food absorption takes place. Goal of first aid to prevent death and prevent injuries from becoming worse During a stroke loosen tight clothing, keep person quiet and warm, position on unaffected side. a.c before meals connective tissue anchors, connects and supports other body tissues hemoglobin the substance in red blood cells that carries oxygen and gives blood its red color homeostasis steady state or stable internal environment maintained when the organs all work together mastication the process of chewing perineum in females, the area between the anus and the vagina joints Areas where two or more bones join together, allows body movement skeletal muscle striated and voluntary, appears striped under a microscope Plasma Liquid part of blood 30 | P a g e F When removing soiled linens, roll the linens toward you. F Wash your hands before handling clean linens and after handling soiled linens. T Hot water is used for cleaning dentures. F Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony areas. T You never trim or shave a beard or moustache without the person's consent T Clothing is removed from the person's unaffected side first. T Catheters treat the cause of urinary incontinence. F Adhesive tape is used to secure condom catheters. F The person is positioned in the right-side-lying position for a cleansing enema. F When preparing meats, roasting, broiling, and baking are better than frying. T Support workers are responsible for IV therapy. F Axillary temperatures are more reliable than oral temperatures. F Respirations are counted right after taking a pulse. The person should be unaware that you are counting respirations. T If a person starts to fall, ease him or her to the floor. 31 | P a g e T Acute pain is felt suddenly and generally lasts less than 6 months. T Changes in a person's usual environment can affect the amount and quality of sleep. T The person will feel safer and more secure if you explain what you are doing and why. T The client wears a robe and slippers when being weighed and measured. F burns are usually more severe and require emergencv care when a person is over 50 T Support workers are responsible for obtaining a person's written consent for surgery. F A procedure should be explained to a client before it is started. T Wound care involves preventing infection and preventing further injury. T Soiled linen can be placed on the floor to avoid contact with clean linen. F Moist cold applications slow blood flow. T Altered function of any system affects the body's ability to meet its oxygen needs. T Persons with breathing difficulties often prefer to sit up in bed and lean forward, T Rehabilitation focuses on the person's disabilities. F Hearing loss may cause speech problems. T 32 | P a g e Surgery is the only treatment for cataracts. T A malignant tumour grows slowly and does not invade healthy tissue. F Traction is removed when making the person's bed. F Unmet needs at any age affect personality development. T Panic is the severest degree of anxiety, T Acute confusion is usually permanent. F Persons with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias (ADD) can stop agitated and rude behaviours if they choose to. F People with developmental disabilities will require constant support throughout their lives. F Wheat bags or beanbags provide moist heat. F Do not leave a baby unattended on a table, bed, sofa, high chair, or other high surface. T A vaginal discharge during the postpartum period is a sign of infection. F Basic life support procedures are aimed at restoring breathing and circulation. T Choking can lead to cardiac arrest. T Internal bleeding is easily controlled by applying direct pressure to the bleeding site. 35 | P a g e c. Pain 74. Which statements about recording are true? a. Save time by charting a procedure before it is completed. b. Record your opinions about the client and the care received. c. Skip a line between each written line. d. Use the client's exact words when possible. d. Use the client's exact words when possible. 75. The values, language, and beliefs of a group passed from one generation to the next is: a. Self-actualization b. Religion c. Culture d. Holism c. Culture Which statement about holistic client care is true? a. A person's culture rarely influences health and illness practices. b. Food practices are not related to culture. c. A person may not follow all of the beliefs and practices of his or her religion or culture. d. A person's religious and cultural practices are not allowed in the health care agency. c. A person may not follow all of the beliefs and practices of his or her religion or culture. 77. The basic unit of body structure is: a. An organ b. A cell c. Tissue d. Mitosis b. A cell 78. The substance in red blood cells that carries oxygen and gives blood its colour is: a. Protoplasm b. Plasma c. Hemoglobin d. Leukocytes c. Hemoglobin 79. Besides hearing, the ear is involved with: a. Regulating body movements b. Balance c. Smoothness of body movements d. Controlling involuntary muscles b. Balance 36 | P a g e 80. Which best describes sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? a. The unexpected death of a 2-year-old b. The unexpected death of a 6-month-old c. The sudden death of a 6-month-old with a heart condition d. The sudden death of a 2-year-old with a heart condition b. The unexpected death of a 6-month-old 81. Reproductive organs begin to function and secondary sex characteristics appear during: a. Late childhood b. Preadolescence c. Puberty d. Early adulthood c. Puberty 82. A client refuses a bath. What should you do first? a. Call the client's family b. Get help and give the bath c. Try to determine the cause for the refusal d. Report the refusal to the nurse c. Try to determine the cause for the refusal 83. A death of a partner results in the loss of a: a. Friend b. Lover c. Companion d. All of the above d. All of the above 84. Who decides how to style a client's hair? a. The client b. The nurse c. The support worker d. The family a. the client 85. Paralysis on one side of the body is called: a. Hemiplegia b. Paraplegia c. Coma d. Quadriplegia a. Hemiplegia 37 | P a g e 86. A restraint attached to the person's body and a stationary object is a (an): a. Chemical restraint b. Environmental restraint c. Physical restraint d. Full bed rail c. Physical Restraint 88. An infection acquired after admission to a health care agency is a: a. Communicable disease b. Health care-associated infection C. Viral infection d. Hepatitis infection b. Health care-associated infection 87. You are caring for an infant and young children. Which measure is unsafe? a. Checking children in cribs frequently b. Keeping one hand on a child in a crib if you need to look away c. Propping a baby bottle on a rolled towel or blanket d. Keeping plastic bags away from children c. Propping a baby bottle on a rolled towel or blanket 89. Masks prevent the spread of microbes from the client's: a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Skin c. Respiratory tract d. All of the above c. Respiratory tract 90. When cleaning equipment, which step is correct? a. Clean from the dirtiest area to the cleanest. b. Wash the item with soap and cold water. c. Wear latex gloves. d. Rinse the item in cold water before cleaning. d. Rinse the item in cold water before cleaning 91. The back-lying position is the: a. Sims' position b. Semi-Fowler's position c. Supine position d. Prone position c. Supine position 92. To provide visual privacy for clients, you must remember to: a. Provide care with the room door open 40 | P a g e c. Should be consumed sparingly d. Have great nutritional value c. Should be consumed sparingly 105. A person is bleeding from an intravenous (IV) site. You should: a. Remove the IV catheter or needle b. Apply direct pressure c. Call for the registered nurse (RN) immediately d. Apply a dressing to the site c. Call for the registered nurse (RN) immediately 106.A person with a persistent blood pressure measurement above 140/90 has: a. Tachycardi b. Hypertension c. Hypotension d. Anxiety b. Hypertension 107. What should you do when taking a blood pressure? a. Place your stethoscope over the client's brachial artery b. Wrap the cuff gently over the client's clothing c. Pump up the cuff as high as it will go and release the air very slowly d. Take the blood pressure in the arm with an IV infusion a. Place your stethoscope over the client's brachial artery 108. Muscle atrophy is: a. The abnormal shortening of a muscle b. Bending backward c. A decrease in the size or a wasting away of the muscle tissue d. Excessive straightening of a body part c. A decrease in the size or a wasting away of the muscle tissue 109.Mr. Bélanger has an ankle brace. You notice a reddened area on the ankle bone when you remove the brace. You should: a. Put a bandage on the reddened area b. Massage the reddened area c. Report your observation to the nurse d. Do all of the above c. Report your observation to the nurse 110. Passive range-of-motion exercises are performed by: a. The client b. A health care team member 41 | P a g e c. The person with the assistance of another d. All of the above d. All of the above 111. Which of the following measures will best promote sleep? a. Following bedtime rituals b. Drinking alcoholic beverages at bedtime c. Exercising vigorously just prior to bedtime d. Doing a leisure activity like playing a video game a. Following bedtime rituals 112. Which statement regarding sleep is correct? a. Voluntary muscle activity increases during sleep. b. Tissue healing and repair occur during sleep. c. Napping should always be avoided. d. Ill and injured persons need as much sleep as healthy persons do. b. Tissue healing and repair occur during sleep. 113.A person with dementia is being admitted to a long-term care facility. Which statement is correct? a. Family members are asked to leave to help the person adjust. b. The admission process is completed as quickly as possible. c. The person's confusion may increase in new surroundings. d. All of the above. c. The person's confusion may increase in new surroundings. 114. Mr. Lopez is confused. He resists your efforts to get him dressed for the day. Which is cor- rect? a. You may need to dress him another time. b. He is restrained if necessary. c. Ask the nurse to medicate him. d. His rights are respected. d. His rights are respected. 115. You prepare the room for the client's return from a weekend visit with family by: a. Making an open bed b. Cleaning and organizing the room c. Lowering the bed to the lowest position d. Raising the bed rails c. Lowering the bed to the lowest position 116.Mr. Long's analgesic medication was given to relieve his arthritis pain, Your responsibility includes: a. Documenting the medication given 42 | P a g e b. Giving the medication to Mr. Long c. Reporting to the nurse if the pain is not relieved after one hour d. Explaining to Mr. Long how the medication works c. Reporting to the nurse if the pain is not relieved after one hour 117. An open wound on the lower legs and feet caused by poor return blood flow from veins is called: a. A stasis ulcer b. An arterial ulcer c. A pressure ulcer d. A thrombus a. A stasis ulcer 118. You are changing a non-sterile dressing. Before you begin: a. Review the procedure with the nurse b. Allow pain medications time to take effect c. Collect all needed equipment and supplies d. Do all of the above d. Do all of the above 119. The skin and underlying tissues were pierced by accident with a sharp object. This is: a. A puncture wound b. An incision c. A contusion d. An abrasion a. A puncture wound 120. Hypothermia is a: a. Very low body temperature b. Bluish discoloration of the skin c. Very high body temperature d. Moist cold application a. Very low body temperature 121. Which guideline for bathing a client is correct? a. Clean the perineum first. b. Encourage the resident to help. c. Rub the skin dry. d. Use cool water at all times. b. Encourage the resident to help. 122. Identify the measure that supports oxygenation. a. Allowing the chient to rest in the same position for 4 hours 45 | P a g e 134. Mr. Lao has dementia. Dementia describes: a. A false belief b. A loss of memory caused by changes in the brain c. Seeing, hearing, or feeling something that is not real d. A disease that causes progressive loss of balance and coordination b. A loss of memory caused by changes in the brain 135.A congenital defect of the spinal column is known as: a. Cerebral palsy b. Spina bifida c. Hydrocephalus d. Epilepsy b. Spina bifida 136. The person with epilepsy has: a. Seizures b. Diplegia c. Athetoid d. Spastic movements a. Seizures 137. Mike has difficulty breathing. This is called: a. Apnea b. Dyspnea c. Orthopnea d. Eupnea b. Dyspnea 138.Mr. Dawson has dementia, and today, he is demonstrating sexually aggressive behaviours. The behaviour may be: a. An attempt to prove he is still attractive and able to perform sexually b. Due to confusion and disorientation c. Done on purpose d. All of the above d. All of the above 139. Which action is correct when bottlefeeding a baby? a. Hold the baby close to you and relax. b. Prop the bottle and lay the baby down. c. Leave the baby alone with the bottle. d. Burp the baby every 10 minutes. a. Hold the baby close to you and relax. 46 | P a g e 140. Which correctly describes how to ensure that 2-month-old Zach sleeps safely? a. Zach's bedroom door should be closed at all times to keep out noise. b. Zach should be positioned on his back for sleep. c. Zach should have a pillow for sleep. d. One of Zach's crib rails should be up at all times. b. Zach should be positioned on his back for sleep. 141. Emergency care of burns includes: a. Leaving the burns open to the air b. Removing the person from the fire or burn source c. Putting butter or oil on the burned skin d. Calling for someone to provide basic life support if needed b. Removing the person from the fire or burn source 142. Which of the following is true about "do not resuscitate" (DNR) orders? a. They can be written by the nurse or doctor. b. They are ordered for clients who are not expected to recover. c. Family can never make this decision. d. If a client is not mentally able to make the decision, the nurse does. b. They are ordered for clients who are not expected to recover. 143. The person's legal written statement about the use of life-sustaining measures is called: a. A power of attorney b. A "do not resuscitate" order c A living will d. Hospice care c A living will 144. The prefix "ab" means: a. Toward b. Against c. Double d. Away from d. Away from 145.Multivitamins are an example of: a. Prescription medication b. Generic medication c. Over-the-counter medication d. A metered dose inhaler Over-the-counter medication 146. Which of the following is a regulated profession? a. Support worker 47 | P a g e b. Speech-language pathologist c. Respiratory therapist d. Dietician a. Support worker 147.Mr. Willard is moving to another province. Which aspect of the Canada Health Act (1984) governs his right to keep his health care coverage? a. Public administration b. Universality c. Accessibility d. Portability d. Portability 148.Mrs. Tremaine has a broken arm. This is an example of a: a. Persistent illness b. Disability c. Illness d. Acute illness b. Disability 149. Which statement is true about delegation? a. A support worker can delegate to another support worker. b. You may be delegated a task for an acutely ill patient. c. You will always have supervision. d. You will be supervised and monitored before doing the task alone. d. You will be supervised and monitored before doing the task alone. 150. When should handwashing using soap and water be practised instead of using waterless al- cohol-based hand sanitizers? a. When switching from one client to another b. When visible soiling is present on the hands c. After making a bed d. After feeding a client c. After making a bed 151. The suffix -itis means: a. Inflammation b. A condition c. Paralysis d. Pain a. Inflammation 152. An example of when Miss Drew, a support worker, should call her supervisor is: a. When the daily routine has gone smoothly 50 | P a g e 2. Predation 3. Parasitism 4. Mutualism 5. Commensalism Interspecific competition competition between individuals of different species (their niches overlap) intraspecific competition competition between individuals of the same species Predation An interaction in which one organism captures and feeds on another organism Parasitism A relationship between two organisms of different species where one benefits and the other is harmed - tapeworms, fleas, barnacles Mutualism A relationship between two species in which both species benefit (providing each with food, shelter, protection, or some other resource) - bees and flowers, oxpeckers and rhinoceroses, clownfish and anemone, woolly bats and pitcher plants Commensalism A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected - Bird making a nest in a tree, sharks and remora/sucker fish, burdock seeds on animals, air plants like epiphytes attaching themselves to large trees to access sunlight What drives competition between species? Food, Shelter, Space Resource partitioning Occurs when competing species evolve specialized traits that allow them to use shared resources at different times, in different ways, or in different places the differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist in a community niche 51 | P a g e Full range of physical and biological conditions in which an organism lives and the way in which the organism uses those conditions How do predators capture prey and likewise how do prey species avoid predators? CAPTURE (predators) Herbivores can walk up to their prey (plants) Carnivores have a variety of methods to capture prey: - Running and flying - Working together to hunt - Ambush - Camouflage - Chemical warfare AVOID (prey) - Run, swim, or fly fast - Highly developed senses of sight, hearing or smell - Physical protection: shells, thick bark, spines - Camouflage: shapes and colors - Chemical warfare: poisons, irritating (stinging), foul-smelling or bad tasting (can be poisonous) What is mimicry an adaptation in which an organism copies or mimics a more dangerous organism - Scarlet king snake mimics the poisonous eastern coral snake - Angler Fish: uses specialized spine as a lure to catch prey - Stick Bug: Looks like a stick to avoid predators What are behavioral strategies that help prey survive? - Scare off: puffing up, spreading wings, mimicking a predator, exhibiting warning coloration (often bright/neon colors; "eating me is risky") - living in large groups (schools) What is coevolution and how does it influence gene pools and evolution? when populations of two different species interact over a long period of time, changes in the gene pool of one species can lead to changes in the gene pool of the other Ecological Succession - The normal, gradual change in species composition in a given geographic area - The species composition of an ecosystem or community can change in response to changing environmental conditions - Primary and secondary succession are examples of natural ecological restoration Primary ecological succession ecological succession in an area without soil or bottom sediments. (an environment without previous life, or a barren habitat) 52 | P a g e Takes hundreds to thousands of years Secondary ecological succession. ecological succession in an area in which natural vegetation has been removed or destroyed, such as a wildfire, but the soil or bottom sediment has not been destroyed Enriches biodiversity of communities and ecosystems by: - Increasing species diversity and interaction among species - Enhancing sustainability - Promoting population control - Increasing the complexity of food webs - Enhancing energy flow - Increasing nutrient cycling How does resilience influence ecological stability and sustainability? It gives a natural system the ability to withstand external stress in response to changing environmental conditions, reorganize itself and adapt to a new environment. This is vital for safeguarding biodiversity and mitigating climate change. What are physical and chemical limiting factors to population size? Availability of food, presence of predators or diseases, and environmental conditions like temperature, humidity, and pH levels. Density dependent factors Becomes more important as a population size increases - disease, competition, and predation - Parasites and diseases spread more easily; Sexually reproducing individuals can find mates more easily Density independent factors limiting factor that affects all populations in similar ways, regardless of population size - Drought and climate Considering population growth rates, what is the difference between J-shaped curves and S-shaped curves. J-shaped curves: Some species reproduce and grow exponentially; Members reproduce at an early age; many offspring in each generation; time between generations is short - boost and boom cycle represented by algal bloom and some insects. -- exponential growth (insects during the rainy season) followed by a sudden decrease in the population (insects by the end of the season). 55 | P a g e - Deaths - Emigration - More people are fed with modern agriculture - Technology has helped humans migrate to and live in almost all of the planet's climate zones and habitats emigration vs. immigration Emigration: Migrating FROM a place permanently (decreases population size) Immigrate: Migrating TO a place permanently (increases population size) total fertility rate the average number of children born to women in a population during their reproductive years death rate The number of deaths in a population in a certain amount of time (the number of deaths each year per 1,000 people) *Over the last 100 years, the human population grew because of reduced death rates What factors affect birth/fertility rates? - Children as part of the labor force - Cost of raising and educating children - Fewer children needed to support seniors - More family planning in urban areas - Access to education/employment outside the home - Age: women over 25 have fewer children - Abortion and reliable birth control What factors affect death rates? - Life span - Predation - Diseases - Food availability - Weather, natural disturbances (e.g., fire), drought, etc. Causes of today's reduced death rates: - Nutrition, medicine, and sanitation improved - Life expectancy increased (the average number of years a person may expect to live) 56 | P a g e - Infant mortality rates dropped (the number of babies out of every 1,000 that die before their first birthday) What is population age-structure diagrams? How do they differ between different countries/cultures (i.e. Japan vs. US vs. Nigeria) Population age-structure diagrams: The growth or decline of a population is determined by the number of males and females in specific age categories (youth, middle, older age) EXPANDING RAPIDLY - Nigeria - Uganda - Afghanistan EXPANDING SLOWLY - United states - China - Australia STABLE - Russia - Denmark - Poland DECLINING - Japan - Germany - Italy How does aging affect population age structure Age structure is the number and percentages of people in the young, middle and old age categories - Demographers create age-structure diagrams for populations to determine whether the population is increasing or decreasing As the percentage of people age 65 or older increases in a population, that population will decline - Japan: highest percentage of people over 65 - With declining population, few adults are working and paying taxes - Younger people have to support the increasing population of those over 65 - Japan could experience economic difficulties in the future What are primary ways to slow human population growth? 57 | P a g e - Reduce poverty - Elevate the status of women - Make family planning available - Accessible, higher quality education Demographic transition As countries industrialize and develop economically, per capita income rises, poverty declines, and populations grow more slowly 4 stages of demographic transition 1. Pre-industrial - Population is stable. The birth and death rates are both high. The death rates are at a high due to the increase of disease, poor medical and personal hygiene care along with the limited supplies of food. - Egypt, Bolivia, Bangladesh 2. Transitional - the population begins to increase due to continued high birth rates and declining death rates through increased standards of living. - Niger, Uganda, Afghanistan 3. Industrial - death rates are low and birth rates diminish, as a rule accordingly of enhanced economic conditions, an expansion in women's status and education, and access to contraception. - Columbia, India, Mexico 4. Post-industrial - ideal placement for a country because total population growth is gradual. low net growth rates, net zero population growth, and in some cases negative net growth rate. - Australia, China, United States What are the best ways to stabilize populations? Empowerment of women, promote family planning... - Educated women who control their own fertility have fewer children; stabilizing populations, reducing poverty and minimizing environmental impact - Access to education and clinical services enables couples to choose how many children they will have What are the major urban resource and environmental problems? Poor air and water quality, insufficient water availability, waste-disposal problems, and high energy consumption (exacerbated by the increasing population density and demands of urban environments) 60 | P a g e 1. Tropical 2. Dry 3. Temperate 4. Continental 5. Polar What causes climatic variation across the globe? Air Circulation Patterns and Ocean Currents What factors affect air circulation in the lower atmosphere? - Uneven solar heating of the earth's surface - Rotation of the earth on its axis; the Coriolis effect - Properties of air, water, and land Coriolis effect The effect of Earth's rotation on the direction of winds and currents. Causes moving air and water to turn left in the southern hemisphere and turn right in the northern hemisphere due to Earth's hemisphere. Hadley cells a large-scale atmospheric convection cell in which air rises at the equator and sinks at medium latitudes, typically about 30° north or south. - Responsible for the general pattern of rain forests, grasslands, and deserts across the globe. Moist, warm air rising at the equator causes considerable rainfall. The same air, drier and cooler when it falls, contributes to arid (dry) conditions near 30° north and south. What causes the El Nino-Southern Oscillation? When prevailing winds in the tropical Pacific Ocean weaken and change direction, altering large scale weather patterns for one or two years over at least two-thirds of the planet ENSO events are not caused by climate change, they are caused by the interaction between the surface layers of the ocean and the overlying atmosphere in the tropical Pacific. How do greenhouse gasses influence the lower atmosphere? They absorb the sun's heat that radiates from the Earth's surface, trap it in the atmosphere and prevent it from escaping into space. This greenhouse effect traps radiation from the sun and warms the lower atmosphere and planet's surface. What is causing the increase in greenhouse gasses currently? 61 | P a g e Human activities (production and burning of fossil fuels, clearing crops) emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere What is the rain shadow effect and what causes it to happen? Some mountains block most precipitation from falling into a valley, creating a dry climate where few plants grow Biomes a large naturally occurring community of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat (ex: forest or tundra) - Characterized by distinctive climate and soil conditions and a distinctive kind of biological community adapted to those conditions. Where are the major biomes of the world? - Tundra - Taiga (Boreal coniferous forest) - Deciduous Forest - Grasslands - Deserts - Tropical Rainforests - Temperate zones Ecosystems The interaction of the living and non- living components in an environment. It comprises a large geographical area covering a vast distance What are the 3 major types of deserts, grasslands, and forests? How does precipitation and temperature vary between the three of each? Deserts: - Hot: High temperatures - Cold: Extreme temperature fluctuations with cold winters and hot summers - Coastal: Mild temperatures influenced by oceanic climates Precipitation: Generally very low precipitation Grasslands: - Temperate: Moderate rainfall; Moderate to hot - Tropical (savannas): Distinct wet and dry seasons; Hot - Cold (Montane): Moisture from nearby mountains; Cooler due to higher elevations Precipitation: varies 62 | P a g e Forests: - Tropical rainforests: Heavy rainfall, Warm and humid year-round - Temperate deciduous forests: Moderate rainfall, Distinct seasons with warm summers and cold winters - Boreal forests (taiga): Lower rainfall, Cold winters and short, cool summers Precipitation: Generally high difference between marine and freshwater systems Marine: called aquatic life zones. Environments with high levels of dissolved salt. These include the open ocean, the deep-sea ocean, and coastal marine ecosystems. Freshwater: Low concentrations of salt as opposed to seawater. Includes ponds, lakes, streams, and rivers, and are a vital source of drinking water. What influences biodiversity in aquatic environments? determined largely by salinity - Marine life zones (oceans, estuaries, coastal wetlands, and coral reefs) - Freshwater life zones (lakes, rivers, streams and wetlands) What role do oceans play in ecosystem and economic services? How about coastal aquatic ecosystems and economic services? Water temperature, dissolved oxygen, and the availability of food, light and nutrients determine the abundance and location (water depth) marine organisms - Filter out toxic pollutants, excess plant nutrients, and sediments, and absorbs other pollutants - Provide food habitats, and nursery sites Reduce storm damage and coastal erosion by absorbing waves. storing excess water produce by storms and tsunamis euphotic ocean zone the layer closer to the surface that receives enough light for photosynthesis to occur - brightly lit with phytoplankton that carry out photosynthesis, large fish bathyal ocean zone "midnight zone" The only light at this depth and lower comes from the bioluminescence of the animals themselves. - dimly lit, no photosynthesis producers, smaller animals abyssal ocean zone 65 | P a g e - 25-50% of the world's roughly 2 million identified species, as well as, millions of unidentified species, could become extinct by the end of the 21st century This will potentially be the sixth mass extinction - We need to save species (especially keystone species) in order to reduce the human impact on biodiversity and ecosystem services How do extinction rates in biodiversity hotspots compare to the global average? Extinction rates in biodiversity hotspots are much higher than the global average - The rapidly growing human population increases per capita use of resources, which sharply increases harmful environmental impacts Endangered species A species whose numbers are so small that the species is at risk of extinction California condor, Hawaiian crow, leatherback turtle, pandas, sea otters Threatened species A species that could become endangered in the near future elephants, tigers, red wolves, gorillas Why should we work to prevent extinction possibilities? - Ecosystem services for food, fuel and lumber - Medicinal drugs - Maintain speciation - Recovering from large-scale extinctions can take millions of years - Many people think species have a right to exist, even if they are harmful or not useful to humans - When one species goes extinct, this can affect many other populations Define each element in the acronym HIPPCO? Habitat destruction Invasive species Population growth Pollution Climate Change Overexploitation Habitat fragmentation 66 | P a g e With no where else to go, island species (often endemic) are vulnerable to extinction and ecosystem degradation Habitat islands: formed by habitat fragmentation (occurs when intact habitats are divided into smaller patches by roads, logging, crop fields, and urbanization) - Species migration routes can be affected, making them vulnerable to predators, storms and fires What are the impacts of non-native (introduced) species? At present, about 40% of U.S. species are listed as endangered - 95% of which are endangered because of nonnative species. Invasive species are capable of causing extinctions of native plants and animals, reducing biodiversity, competing with native organisms for limited resources, and altering habitats. Examples: - Argentinean fire ants (accidental) - Burmese and African pythons (both intentional and accidental) - Kudzu plant (intentional) - Zebra mussels (accidental) Utah Lake: Carp: The carp's aggressive foraging habits eventually destroyed the pondweed on the surface and the plant life on the lake floor. This directly impacted the native fish (June sucker) population. Phragmites: Compared to other native shoreline plants, phragmites takes up more than its fair share of water. Combine this with its virulent spreading across the shoreline and you get lower lake levels. How can the negative impacts from non-native species be limited? - Preventing their introduction is the best way to limit threats of nonnative species - Funding research to identify bio-invador characteristics useful for controlling species - Use satellite observations and ground surveys to develop models predicting dispersal patterns and harmful effects - Physically or mechanically removing them (in Utah Lake there's been a 75% reduction in carp through this method) Once nonnative species become established it is almost impossible to remove them Population growth overuse of resources, and climate change Exponential growth of the human footprint Pollution 67 | P a g e - Washing into hydrologic systems has a damaging effect on terrestrial and aquatic species - Pesticides kill more than 67 million birds and 6-14 million fish each year - and threaten 20% of endangered species Climate Change Overexploitation ¼ to ½ of terrestrial animals and plants may be driven to extinction by the end of the century What are the effects of overhunting? - depletes species population - decreases biodiversity - harms migrating animals. They may change their path if their typical prey no longer exists on their annual migration route - Some African species are threatened with extinction due to the rising demand for bushmeat --Eating of bushmeat has also spread fatal diseases (HIV/AIDS and Ebola) What is CITIES and what influence does it have on wildlife populations? Convention on International Trade In Endangered Species - treaty signed by 178 countries bans hunting, capturing, and selling of threatened and endangered species - Enforcement varies from country to country - Countries can exempt themselves from a particular species - Much of the hunting takes place in countries that did not sign the treaty Describe the benefits of wildlife refuges, seed banks, botanical gardens, wildlife farms, and zoos. Wildlife refuges: Wetlands are protected in ¾ of these refuges and this protects waterfowl migration At least ¼ of all US endangered and threatened species have habitats in these wildlife refuges Seed banks: Plant genetic information is preserved in climate controlled seed banks (Svalbard Global Seed Vault in the arctic) Botanical gardens help - but only 3% of the world's plants are preserved in these gardens Wildlife farms: raise endangered species for sale which takes some of the ecological pressure off the endangered species