NASM CNC CERTIFIED NUTRITION COACHING EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUES, Exams of Nursing

Download NASM CNC CERTIFIED NUTRITION COACHING EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUES and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e NASM CNC CERTIFIED NUTRITION COACHING EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |LATEST UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS When working with a client who has been complaining of low back pain that has been getting worse, what is the most appropriate recommendation? A. Refer her to a certified personal trainer. B. Tell her to use a heating pad when the pain gets bad. C. Refer her to a chiropractor. D. Recommend use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications. C. Refer her to a chiropractor. With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work? A. Elite clients competing in a national Ironman B. Clients who want testing for vitamin deficiency C. Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain D. Clients trying an elimination diet to identify food sensitivities C. Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake? A. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level B. Body type and cultural preferences C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans D. The Nutrition Coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake. C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans During a regular meeting, a client is complaining of irregular gastrointestinal issues, ranging from diarrhea to constipation. What is the best course of action? A. Closely monitor his situation and re-evaluate during the next meeting. B. Evaluate his prescription medications to look for similar side effects. 2 | P a g e C. Advise him to eat more vegetables and drink more water. D. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician. D. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician. A new client has just moved into the area. She states that she occasionally suffers from anxiety and panic attacks and needs to renew her prescription medications. To which healthcare professional should she be referred? A. Podiatrist B. Physiologist C. Physiotherapist D. Psychiatrist D. Psychiatrist One of the roles of a Nutrition Coach is to help facilitate weight loss. Which of the following would be most appropriate to recommend for the overweight client? A. Limit carbohydrates to 35% of the diet. B. Give up bread and avoid gluten. C. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program. D. Drink a protein shake instead of eating lunch. C. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program. Where should client files be kept to ensure client confidentiality? A. In an electronic version only B. With the client C. In the manager's office D. In a locked and secure location D. In a locked and secure location A Nutrition Coach has been working with an overweight client for 6 weeks. During the most recent weight-in, they discover that she has lost 27 pounds. What is the best course of action for the Nutrition Coach? A. Congratulate her for a job well done. B. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits. C. Add an additional 300-500 calories to her daily intake. D. Suggest she limit her exercise to twice per week. B. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits. According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, what is the minimum number of positive answers which might indicate an eating disorder? 5 | P a g e C. Hydrostatic weighing D. SCOFF test B. Anthropometric measurements Where might a Nutrition Coach find reputable information on recent dietary guidelines? A. Popular magazines B. Government-funded agencies C. Private, for-profit supplement companies D. Celebrity blogs B. Government-funded agencies Clients often confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional? A. Slow weight loss of 1/2 pound per week (0.22 kg) B. Late-night ice cream binging C. Chronic fatigue D. Occasional sleeplessness C. Chronic fatigue A client confides that she is taking laxatives to help her lose weight. What is the best course of action? A. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian. B. Tell her to eat more fiber as that will help. C. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. D. Tell her that regular use of laxatives are bad for her digestive tract. C. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. It is not uncommon for clients to confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional? A. Daily panic attacks B. Stress-eating from recent divorce C. Occasional constipation D. Self-proclaimed "sugar addict" A. Daily panic attacks A client has several relatives who have recently been diagnosed with cancer. She has been reading many books about natural health and is interested in taking herbal supplements that will help prevent cancer. What is the best course of action? A. Visit a health food store together. B. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician. 6 | P a g e C. Tell her to save her money and stay away from herbal remedies. D. Tell her to follow the guidelines of the books she read. B. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician. A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has diabetes and she has trouble keeping her blood glucose controlled. What is the best course of action? A. Advise her to cut back on her simple carbohydrates at each meal. B. Inform her that when she loses 10% of her body weight, her blood glucose will be easier to manage. C. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian. D. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator. D. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator. Scientists perform a diet study in which they assign half the people to a continuous dieting group and the other half to an intermittent fasting group. Which term best describes this study design? A. Observational B. Crossover C. Parallel D. Factorial C. Parallel Which of the following is an example of descriptive research? A. Cohort study B. Survey C. Randomized controlled trial D. Meta-analysis B. Survey Scientists perform a study comparing 1000 women with breast cancer to 1000 women without breast cancer. They gather information on the women's diets and look to see if the women diagnosed with breast cancer had more fat in their diet compared to the women who did not get cancer. Which term best describes this study? A. Cross-sectional study B. Case-control study C. Cohort study D. Survey B. Case-control study Which term best describes formulation of a hypothesis, collecting data to test the hypothesis, and changing or discarding the hypothesis when the data does not support it? 7 | P a g e A. Evidence-based practice B. Primary research C. Science D. Scientific method D. Scientific method Fructose has been shown in studies to have adverse effects on blood triglycerides when consumed in excess of calorie needs. However, moderate doses of fructose have been shown to have no effect. Which of the following items best describes the conclusion that should be drawn from this data? A. There is no reason to ever restrict fructose intake. B. Fructose should be limited in the diet as much as possible. C. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed within energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high. D. There is insufficient evidence to draw conclusions as to the impact of fructose intake on triglycerides. C. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed within energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high. Which term refers to a proposed explanation for a set of observations? A. Randomized controlled trial B. Theory C. Hypothesis D. Prediction C. Hypothesis Scientists perform a study tracking 10,000 people over a 10-year period. They look at their sugar intake at the beginning of the study and then see who develops diabetes over the study duration. Which term best describes this study? A. Survey B. Cross-sectional study C. Case-control study D. Cohort study D. Cohort study Scientists gather 20 studies looking at the relationship between protein intake and lean body mass, and then they statistically analyze them together as a group. What type of study is this? A. Narrative review B. Observational research C. Randomized controlled trials D. Meta-analysis 10 | P a g e C. Subjects D. Diet type D. Diet type Scientists perform a study looking at the effects of caffeine on vertical jump performance. On one day, they give all the subjects caffeine followed by vertical jump tests. Two weeks later, they give all the subjects a placebo followed by the same vertical jump tests. Which term best describes this study design? A. Factorial B. Crossover C. Parallel D. Observational B. Crossover Which term encompasses the weight of the scientific evidence, field observations, and individual client needs? A. Primary research B. Science C. Scientific method D. Evidence-based practice D. Evidence-based practice Which of the following represents the lowest level of evidence? 1. Observational research 2. Non-peer reviewed media 3. Peer reviewed editorials and expert opinion 4. Randomized controlled trials 2. Non-peer reviewed media Which of the following represents a strength of observational studies? A. Can establish cause and effect B. Can determine mechanisms for effects C. Large subject numbers D. High degree of control C. Large subject numbers Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study? A. Uncontrolled variable 11 | P a g e B. Generalizability C. Selection bias D. Recall bias C. Selection bias Scientists find that a protein supplement increases lean mass in the elderly. However, they caution that the results may not apply to other populations, like younger people. What term best describes what the scientists are referring to? A. External validity B. Selection bias C. Test-retest reliability D. Reliability A. External validity Seven studies show Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. Three studies show no difference. Assuming all the studies are equivalent in quality, which item best describes this situation? A. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed. B. There are insufficient studies to conclude that Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. C. It is unknown whether Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. D. The weight of the evidence suggests that Diet A and B are equivalent in their ability to lower cholesterol. A. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed. Scientists gather 20 studies looking at the relationship between protein intake and lean body mass, and then they statistically analyze them together as a group. What type of study is this? A. Narrative review B. Meta-analysis C. Randomized controlled trials D. Observational research B. Meta-analysis A scientist proposes that sugar is inherently fattening, and performs a study comparing a high-sugar diet to a low-sugar diet with equal calories. He finds that fat gain was the same between the diets. Which term describes how this study effects the initial proposal? A. Falsification B. Scientific method C. Prediction D. Validity 12 | P a g e A. Falsification A scientist observes that people tend to perform better in a weight training session after consuming a pre-workout supplement. The scientist proposes that the caffeine in the supplement is increasing arousal, leading to increased performance. Which term best describes this scientist's proposal? A. Prediction B. Hypothesis C. Theory D. Conclusion B. Hypothesis Scientists take 5000 people and have them fill out questionnaires on their dairy intake. They then compare cancer rates between people with high intakes and low intakes. What type of study is this? A. Observational B. Randomized controlled trial C. Meta-analysis D. Anecdotal A. Observational Scientists perform a study comparing 1000 women with breast cancer to 1000 women without breast cancer. They gather information on the women's diets and look to see if the women diagnosed with breast cancer had more fat in their diet compared to the women who did not get cancer. Which term best describes this study? A. Cross-sectional study B. Case-control study C. Cohort study D. Survey B. Case-control study Which statement best describes science? A. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena. B. It is the use of anecdotes to explain observations. C. It is the process of collecting data that confirms a hypothesis while discarding data that refutes it. D. It is the collection of ideas that are not subject to falsification. A. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena. Studies show that Diet A causes more weight loss than Diet B. A client is able to better adhere to Diet B than Diet A. Which item represents the best option for this client? A. Diet A B. Diet B 15 | P a g e C. Theory D. Prediction C. Theory "I tried this diet and lost 30 lbs." What type of evidence is this? A. Observational research B. Anecdote C. Randomized controlled trial D. Expert opinion B. Anecdote Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study? A. Selection bias B. Recall bias C. Uncontrolled variable D. Generalizability A. Selection bias A scientist hypothesizes that a supplement will improve fat loss by suppressing appetite. Which item represents a prediction generated by this hypothesis? A. Subjects will eat a similar amount of food after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it. B. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it. C. Subjects will lose fat after taking the supplement with no change in the amount of food consumed. D. Subjects taking the supplement will lose a similar amount of fat as subjects who do not take it. B. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it. Seven studies show Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. Three studies show no difference. Assuming all the studies are equivalent in quality, which item best describes this situation? A. There are insufficient studies to conclude that Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. B. The weight of the evidence suggests that Diet A and B are equivalent in their ability to lower cholesterol. C. It is unknown whether Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. D. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed. D. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed. Which of the following is best defined as the quality or state of being fed or gratified to or beyond capacity? 16 | P a g e A. Satiety B. Hunger C. Stressed D. Complete A. Satiety Intellectual wellness implies which of the following? A. Constant learning B. High IQ C. Superior knowledge D. Lack of knowledge A. Constant learning Which of the following is a tip for a health-supporting diet? A. Include lots of processed meats in your diet. B. Follow a diet that is highly rigid and controlled. C. Follow a diet that is low in saturated fat. D. Eat foods that are highly palatable. C. Follow a diet that is low in saturated fat. Which of the following is true in regards to obesity-related conditions? A. They are the least likely cause of premature death. B. They are not associated with preventable disease. C. They are a problem, but don't cause disease. D. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death. D. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death. Which of the following best describes chronic diseases? A. They are of short duration. B. They are of long duration. C. They are infectious and transmitted through the air. D. They are isolated to cardiovascular conditions. B. They are of long duration. To which of the following terms can 'non-communicable disease (NCD) also refer? A. Transient diseases B. Infectious diseases 17 | P a g e C. Chronic diseases D. Curable diseases C. Chronic diseases Changing seasons have which of the following? A. Little impact on food choices B. Importance only in developing cultures C. Limited applicaion in western society D. A significant impact on food choices D. A significant impact on food choices Which of the following is best defined as a high degree of body fat, or excess body fat, with a BMI greater than 30? A. Obesity B. Overweight C. Sickness D. Underweight A. Obesity How does basal metabolic rate change with age? A. Decreases B. Increases C. Does not change D. Changes little A. Decreases Dietary habits associated with a lower incidence of cancer rates include which of the following? A. Eating foods low in antioxidants B. Eating high glycemic index foods C. Eating foods high in antioxidants D. Decreasing dietary calcium intake C. Eating foods high in antioxidants Non-communicable diseases are which of the following? A. Cureable with traditional medicines B. A premature death sentence C. Transmitted via saliva D. The first leading cause of death 20 | P a g e C. Reduced TEA D. Increased TEF A. Reduced RMR Between 1969/1971 and 1999/2001, global food consumption per person has risen by how much? A. Approximately 2,000 kcal per person per day B. Approximately 1,000 kcal per person per day C. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day D. Approximately 150 kcal per person per day C. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day Which hormone is referred to as the hunger hormone because it stimulates appetite, increases food intake, and promotes fat storage? A. Leptin B. Ghrelin C. Cholecystokinin D. NPY Neuropeptide Y B. Ghrelin Most cells utilize which of the following as their primary source of energy during intense activity? A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Protein D. Fat B. Glucose he storage form of glucose is know as which of the following? A. Ketone bodies B. Triglyceride C. Glycerol D. Glycogen D. Glycogen A deficiency in which hormone is associated with an increased fat mass (central adiposity in particular), reduced insulin sensitivity, and impaired glucose tolerance? A. Cortisol B. Estrogen C. Testosterone D. Adrenaline 21 | P a g e C. Testosterone Worldwide, activity levels (including occupational work, home/domestic work, leisure and exercise, and physical activity) are doing which of the following? A. Increasing B. Staying the same C. Remaining undocumented D. Declining D. Declining ATP consists of an adenosine molecule bonded to how many phosphate groups? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four C. Three Resting metabolic rate, or RMR, declines by what percentage per decade for men? A. 1 to 2% B. 5 to 6% C. 8 to 10% D. >10% A. 1 to 2% Energy expended during walking at work, typing, walking to and from meetings, and fidgeting is referred to as which of the following? A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF) B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) C. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) D. Thermic effect of activity (TEA) B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) The process of generating energy (in the form of ATP) from nutrients we consume in our diet is referred to as which of the following? A. Energy metabolism B. Energy restriction C. Energy requirement D. Energy adaptation A. Energy metabolism 22 | P a g e Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during digestion and processing of food? A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF) B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) C. Thermic effect of activity (TEA) D. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF) The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following? A. The law of facilitation of energy B. The law of estimation of energy C. The law of probability of energy D. The law of conservation of energy D. The law of conservation of energy To which of the following is one metabolic equivalent (MET) equal? A. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min B. 10 ml O2/kg/min C. 15 ml O2/kg/min D. 30 ml O2/kg/min A. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min A metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates such as lactate, glycerol, and glucogenic amino acids is referred to as which of the following? A. Glycogenolysis B. Glucagon C. Gluconeogensis D. Glycolysis C. Gluconeogensis Which hormone, produced by adipose cells, decreases appetite when released? A. Ghrelin B. Leptin C. Cholecystokinin D. NPY Neuropeptide Y B. Leptin Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during everyday activities? 25 | P a g e C. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH. D. They do nothing to influence body pH. C. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH. To meet body composition goals, is it prudent for the client to meet the prescribed protein intake by choosing protein-based foods that also cause them to exceed prescribed fat intake? A. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs. B. Yes, if the goal is to gain weight. No, if the goal is weight maintenance or loss. C. Yes, because protein is the most important of the macronutrients. D. Yes, as long as it is not coming from saturated fat. A. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs. Which is most likely to impact longevity? A. Protein restriction will inhibit longevity. B. Calorie restriction may inhibit longevity. C. Protein restriction will enhance longevity. D. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity. D. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity. In general, what sources are complete proteins? A. All foods containing at least 10g of protein B. Plant-based products C. Animal-based products D. Foods labeled "high protein" C. Animal-based products What are enzymes? A. Protein-based structures which transport other compounds between cells B. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions C. Protein-based structures which transmit electrical signals throughout the nervous system D. Protein-based structures which primarily eliminate pathogens B. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions Does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans adjust RDAs according to a person's activity level? A. No, they are only based on protein sensitivity. B. Yes, the recommendations are adjusted based on activity level, weight, height, and goal. C. No, they are only based on body size. D. Yes, they are adjusted based on activity level alone. 26 | P a g e C. No, they are only based on body size. A new client insists on maintaining their vegan lifestyle. How should the Nutrition Coach advise their protein source selection? A. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes B. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume eggs and nonfat dairy. C. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a whey protein supplement. D. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a casein protein supplement. A. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes Protein is involved in forming which of the following? A. Triglycerides B. Bones C. Adipose tissue D. Electrolytes B. Bones What is dehydration synthesis? A. Muscle protein synthesis occurring during a dehydrated state B. When proteins help to regulate fluid balance by drawing water out of tissues into the blood stream C. Consuming protein without a beverage D. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together D. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together Can post-workout protein consumption increase muscle glycogen synthesis? A. Yes, it enhances glycogen synthesis on its own. B. No, it never enhances glycogen synthesis. C. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrates. D. No, eating fats with carbs helps recover glycogen the best after a workout. C. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrates. Which of the following is the best protocol for fat loss while maintaining muscle mass? A. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training B. A high-calorie, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training C. A calorie-restricted, low-protein (0.4-0.8 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training D. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & cardiovascular training A. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training 27 | P a g e In what form are proteins primarily absorbed? A. Single amino acids B. Dipeptides C. Tripeptides D. Intact proteins A. Single amino acids For an individual engaged in light aerobic exercise 2-3 days per week, what would be the most optimal protein prescription? A. 0.8 g/kg body weight B. 1.4 g/kg body weight C. 2.0 g/kg body weight D. 3.0 g/kg body weight B. 1.4 g/kg body weight What is an ideal daily protein distribution? A. The most protein is consumed at the beginning of the day. B. The most protein is consumed in the middle of the day. C. The most protein is consumed at the end of the day. D. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein. D. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein. Ketogenic amino acids may become which 2 molecules that can be used to produce ATP? A. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate B. Glucose and fructose C. Acetyl-CoA and glucose D. Acetyl-CoA and pyruvate A. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate Is post-workout protein consumption more important for novice or experienced weightlifters? A. Novice B. Experienced C. Both novice and experienced D. Post-workout protein is not important for anyone. B. Experienced Is it ever okay for a sedentary person to eat a high protein diet? A. Yes, but only a moderately high protein diet up to 1.6 g/kg body weight. 30 | P a g e Which sugar units are combined to form a glycogen molecule? A. Fructose B. Sucrose C. Maltose D. Glucose D. Glucose What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a high GI food? A. GI score under 55 B. GI score between 35 and 55 C. GI score over 69 D. GI score between 56 and 69 C. GI score over 69 What is the recommended amount of added sugar suggested by the American Heart Association for American adult women? A. A limit of 4 added teaspoons B. A limit of 6 added teaspoons C. A limit of 9 added teaspoons D. A limit of 11 added teaspoons B. A limit of 6 added teaspoons What is the second priority for ingested carbohydrates in the human body once immediate fuel needs have been met? A. Use as a fuel for endocrine glands. B. Elevate glucagon levels in the blood. C. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles. D. Enhance fat-burning ability. C. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles. What is the molecular structure for glucose? A. C6H12O6 B. H2O C. CO2 D. C12H22O11 A. C6H12O6 How much glycogen can the adult liver store? A. 15 grams per Kg 31 | P a g e B. 25 grams per Kg C. 50 grams per Kg D. 100 grams per Kg C. 50 grams per Kg The United States consumes more sugar than any other country in the world. From the options provided, what food category represents the largest source of sugar intake in the U.S. diet? A. Dairy B. Beverages C. Snacks and sweets D. Fruit B. Beverages Which two monosaccharides combine to make lactose? A. Glucose and galactose B. Glucose and maltose C. Glucose and fructose D. Glucose and glucose A. Glucose and galactose Which complex carbohydrate chain contains straight-chain structures? A. Amylopectin B. Insoluble fiber C. Soluble fiber D. Amylose D. Amylose What are the current estimated daily intakes of fiber for men and women in the U.S.? A. 8 grams for men; 5 grams for women B. 12 grams for men; 10 grams for women C. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women D. 25 grams for men; 19 grams for women C. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women According to the Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI), how many calories from added sugar are recommended for men on a daily basis? A. A limit of 100 calories B. A limit of 150 calories 32 | P a g e C. A limit of 200 calories D. A limit of 250 calories B. A limit of 150 calories What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for women in the U.S.? A. 15 grams of fiber daily B. 20 grams of fiber daily C. 28 grams of fiber daily D. 30 grams of fiber daily C. 28 grams of fiber daily What factor can raise a food's GI score? A. Ingesting food in a liquid state B. Cooking and reheating a complex carbohydrate C. The presence of fiber in the food D. The presence of fat in the food A. Ingesting food in a liquid state Which statement reflects a factual truth regarding high fructose corn syrup (HFCS)? A. HFCS has been positively connected to elevated levels of obesity versus cane sugar. B. HFCS has nearly double the amount of calories per serving compared to organic cane sugar. C. HFCS leads to a greater risk of obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes compared to cane sugar. D. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life. D. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life. Which sugar units are combined to form a glycogen molecule? A. Fructose B. Sucrose C. Glucose D. Maltose C. Glucose Which sweetener is not considered a mono- or disaccharide and is extracted from chicory root? A. Dextrose B. Inulin C. High-fructose corn syrup D. Lactose 35 | P a g e A. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non- carbohydrate sources like amino acids. Which two monosaccharides combine to make sucrose? A. Glucose and glucose B. Glucose and dextrose C. Glucose and galactose D. Glucose and fructose D. Glucose and fructose What are both chylomicrons and very-low-density lipoproteins responsible for transporting in the bloodstream? A. Ketone bodies B. Triglycerides C. Water-soluble vitamins D. Amino acids B. Triglycerides Where are fat-soluble vitamins stored in the body? A. Liver and adipose tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Small and large intestine D. Brain tissue A. Liver and adipose tissue What is the definition of hydrophilic? A. Likely to repel or not mix with water. B. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants. C. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat. D. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water. D. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water. Bile is an example of which of the following? A. An enzyme B. A micelle C. An emulsifier D. A phospholipid C. An emulsifier 36 | P a g e What is an example of saturated fat? A. Olive oil B. Palm oil C. Almonds D. Salmon B. Palm oil What is the role of lipoprotein lipase? A. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into triglycerides. B. It is the enzyme within a person's saliva that initially breaks down food. C. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol for the cell to use. D. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into chylomicrons. C. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol for the cell to use. A client asks a Nutrition Coach about taking omega-3 supplements. What is the BEST response to tell the client? A. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish. B. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise triglyceride levels. C. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise LDL cholesterol. D. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, omega-6 supplements are more beneficial for heart health. A. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish. Why is it easy for the average person to meet the adequate intake for omega-6 fatty acids? A. Food sources, such as apples, bananas, and pears, are readily available. B. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available. C. Food sources, such as flaxseed oil, chia seeds, and flaxseeds, are readily available. D. Food sources, such as salmon, herring, and crab, are readily available. B. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available. What is the age group that should avoid consuming reduced fat milks? A. Children under the age of 2 years B. Perimenopausal women with osteoporosis C. Any person who is considered underweight D. Seniors over the age of 65 A. Children under the age of 2 years 37 | P a g e What is eicosatetraenoic acid (EPA)? A. An omega-6 fatty acid found in nuts and seeds. B. A thin, soft, pliable layer that acts as a lining around a cell. C. An enzyme released by the stomach to aid in digestion of fat. D. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish. D. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish. What is an example of trans fat? A. Butter B. Coconut oil C. Vegetable shortening D. Lard C. Vegetable shortening What enzyme is responsible for breaking down the triglycerides in the mouth? A. Lipoprotein lipase B. Lingual lipase C. Gastric lipase D. Pancreatic lipase B. Lingual lipase What is the definition of hydrophobic? A. Likely to repel or not mix with water. B. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water. C. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants. D. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat. A. Likely to repel or not mix with water. Joe is on a 3500 kcals per day eating plan. Based on the AMDR guidelines, what is the BEST range of calories for fat intake for him? A. 350-650 kcals B. 700-1225 kcals C. 1250-1350 kcals D. 1400-1525 kcals B. 700-1225 kcals What is a good source of alpha-linoleic acids (ALA)? A. Salmon 40 | P a g e C. They are the main component of the cell's membrane and protect the inside of the cell. D. They are cells specialized in the storage of fat that makes up adipose tissue. C. They are the main component of the cell's membrane and protect the inside of the cell. What is a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids? A. Coconut oil B. Canola oil C. Flaxseed oil D. Soybean oil B. Canola oil What is defined as a combination of fat and protein that transports cholesterol and other lipids to and from various tissues through the blood? A. Lipoprotein B. Amino acid C. Enzyme D. Triglyceride A. Lipoprotein What is the function of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)? A. To deliver glycogen to the liverls B. To deliver cholesterol to the liver C. To deliver amino acids to the cells D. To deliver water-soluble vitamins to the cells B. To deliver cholesterol to the liver What is a valid health reason for recommending a variety of protein sources such as nuts and seeds? A. They are low in fat. B. They are high LDL cholesterol. C. They are high in essential fatty acids. D. They are low in unsaturated fats. C. They are high in essential fatty acids. What is true of Bulletproof® coffee? A. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories. B. It significantly reduces LDL cholesterol. C. It is proven harmful for people with epilepsy. D. It has a low saturated fat content level. 41 | P a g e A. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories. What is the definition of saturated fat? A. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have two or more double bonds between carbon atoms. B. Saturated fats are fatty acids that cannot be synthesized in the body, or not in adequate amounts. C. Saturated fat is fatty acid that is manufactured when hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oil. D. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms. D. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms. Triglycerides are transported to adipose (fat) cells and go through beta-oxidation. What are the byproducts of beta-oxidation? A. Glycerol and free fatty acids B. Acetyl-CoA and free fatty acids C. Ketone bodies and glucose D. Glucose and glycogen A. Glycerol and free fatty acids What is the leading contributor to preventable death? a. Heart disease b. Diabetes c. Obesity d. Breast cancer a. Heart disease The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following? a. The law of estimation of energy b. The law of probability of energy c. The law of conservation of energy d. The law of facilitation of energy c. The law of conservation of energy What percent of daily energy expenditure is accounted for by the process of consuming food? a. 0.05 b. 0.5 c. 0.1 d. 0.25 c. 0.1 42 | P a g e How much alcohol is recommended for pregnant females and individuals planning on driving? a. 2 standard drinks b. Zero alcohol c. 1 standard drink d. 3 standard drinks b. Zero alcohol What acute effect does drinking alcohol have on the heart? Select one: a. Decreases right ventricle contractility and increases heart rate b. Does not effect the heart c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate d. Increases left ventricle contractility and decreases heart rate c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate Why are females more susceptible to the effects of alcohol? Select one: a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters. b. Females eat less food, so ethanol is absorbed faster than in males. c. Females prefer to drink wine and spirits, which are high in alcohol content. d. Ethanol metabolism by the liver in females is less effective than males. a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters. Approximately how much ethanol is metabolized per hour? a. 14 grams b. 7 grams c. 10 grams d. 2 grams b. 7 grams Vitamin C deficiencies occur in what percentage of the population of the United States? Select one: a. 0.22 b. 0.03 c. 0.07 d. 0.1 c. 0.07 45 | P a g e a. High-fiber carbohydrates b. Solid foods low on the glycemic index c. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels) d. Water or electrolyte replacement drink d. Water or electrolyte replacement drink How can creatine help a client who wants to add size and strength? Select one: a. It can decrease the body's production of ATP. b. It can help increase aerobic capacity. c. It can increase the rate of lypolysis d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations. d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations. Higher protein intakes are associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Impaired kidney function b. Improved resistance training outcomes in trained individuals only c. Improved resistance training outcomes d. Elevated blood pressure c. Improved resistance training outcomes Which term refers to skin tingling, a reported side effect from beta alanine use? Select one: a. Paresthesia b. Anesthesia c. Thermogenesis d. Glycogenolysis a. Paresthesia Which of the following is the main way that the media influences eating behaviors? Select one: a. Companies are allowed to promise results without any evidence to back up claims. b. Advertisements often tell people what they should be consuming. c. The media has a priority of demonstrating a strong anti-fat bias. d. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as "normal" and these images can be misleading. d. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as "normal" and these images can be misleading. Which of the following is one of the symptoms a medical professional will look for with anorexia nervosa? Select one: a. A lack of self-control 46 | P a g e b. Frequent purging c. Restriction of calories d. Eating large amounts of food without guilt c. Restriction of calories Which of the following terms is defined as the ability to control impulses? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Willpower c. Personal effort d. Gratification b. Willpower Which of the following is one of the symptoms a medical professional will look for with bulimia nervosa? Select one: a. Having a sense of calm following a binge b. Avoiding mirrors c. A BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 d. Binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors d. Binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors Which of the following is the best approach to dealing with program setbacks? Select one: a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward. b. Identify key mistakes so the client knows what to change. c. Provide praise and encouragement regardless of behavior. d. Be stern and direct to keep the client focused. a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward. What best describes nonverbal communication? Select one: a. The emotional or perceived meaning of a word b. The process of understanding what another person is feeling and experiencing c. The act of mindfully hearing and comprehending the meaning of words d. The exchange of information through wordless cues d. The exchange of information through wordless cues Which of the following is one primary goal of using supportive words? Select one: a. Decrease emotional response b. Minimize ambiguity c. Create purpose d. Build efficacy 47 | P a g e d. Build efficacy Which of the following represents the importance of mirroring as a nonverbal communication technique? Select one: a. Allows coach to influence client perceptions b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences c. Allows coach to demonstrate authority d. Allows coach set example for goal behavior b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences How many Motivational Interviewing strategies are there? Select one: a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7 a. 5 What can help a client define the best version of themselves? Select one: a. Values b. Goals c. Change talk d. Attitudes a. Values A client improves their self-efficacy by successfully food prepping. Which of the following are they are using to improve their self-efficacy? Select one: a. Verbal persuasion b. Physiological states c. Vicarious experience d. Performance accomplishments d. Performance accomplishments With which of the following does motivational interviewing start? Select one: a. A 24-hour dietary recall b. Rolling with resistance c. Collaboration d. Giving the client advice c. Collaboration 50 | P a g e b. Two finger-sized portions c. One cupped palm-size portion d. Two cupped palm-size portions d. Two cupped palm-size portions If a food label in the EU and UK mentions a dietary ingredient in the product name or on the primary display panel, what must be included in the Ingredients List in addition to the name of the dietary ingredient? Select one: a. The source of the dietary ingredient b. The volume of the dietary ingredient in the product c. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product d. The ratio of the dietary ingredient to the total number of ingredients in the product c. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product What is one tool that consumers can create and use to navigate and streamline their grocery shopping? Select one: a. A recipe b. An activity tracker c. A food log d. A grocery list d. A grocery list Which of the following might be the best snack option for a client to select from a vending machine? Select one: a. A muffin b. A package of cookies c. cheese stick or Greek yogurt d. A candy bar c. cheese stick or Greek yogurt A client expresses that he is planning on meal prepping and is going to cook enough chicken to last him for the whole week ahead. What might a Nutrition Coach suggest for food safety reasons? Select one: a. Suggest that he only cook enough chicken for one day's worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning. b. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for one or two days in the refrigerator. c. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for three to four days in the refrigerator. d. Suggest that he only cook enough for five days worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning. c. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for three to four days in the refrigerator. 51 | P a g e Which of the following appetizers would be the healthiest option for a client to select? Select one: a. Spinach and artichoke dip b. Shrimp cocktail c. Mozzarella sticks d. Fried chicken tenders b. Shrimp cocktail What is the second important step that clients should consider in preparation for meal prep? Select one: a. Deciding what ingredients to buy for meal prep b. Buying and storing food for meal prep c. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep d. Deciding how much food to buy for the week ahead c. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep What is described as a feeding pattern in which an individual alternates between a day of fasting (up to about 500 kcal) and a day of "feeding" (typically ad libitum dieting)? Select one: a. Calorie shifting b. Cyclical fasting c. Alternate day fasting d. Calorie cycling c. Alternate day fasting What is a primary benefit of using a low-energy diet or a very low-energy diet? Select one: a. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diets. b. It will lead to greater maintenance of muscle mass compared to other diets. c. The hunger hormone ghrelin is suppressed the most on these diets. d. It will lead to increased bone mineral density and vitamin D absorption. a. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diets. Which food group is avoided on a paleo diet? Select one: a. Grains b. Nuts c. Citrus fruit d. Seeds Feedback a. Grains According to global estimates, what is the prevalence of gluten-related disorders? Select one: 52 | P a g e a. 1 b. 0.5 c. 0.05 d. 0.25 c. 0.05 Vegans will likely have lower muscle stores of what compound when compared to non-vegans? Select one: a. Glycogen b. Creatine c. Triglycerides d. Beta-alanine b. Creatine The link between nonnutritive sweeteners and obesity in observational research can be explained by which of the following? Select one: a. Publication bias b. Reverse causality c. Direct causality d. Statistical manipulation b. Reverse causality Celiac disease is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. Food sensitivity b. Gluten intolerance c. Allergic reaction d. Autoimmune condition d. Autoimmune condition Which of the following is produced in the lowest quantity during fructose metabolism? Select one: a. Fatty acids b. Glucose c. Lactate d. Glycogen Feedback a. Fatty acids Wheat allergy is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. Autoimmune condition b. Allergic reaction 55 | P a g e B. Increase exercise frequency to account for the excess energy provided by alcohol. C. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption. D. Reduce the intake of other macronutrients to accommodate energy from alcohol. C. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption. For males, high levels of ethanol consumption are closely associated with what? A. Excess belly fat B. Improved muscle mass C. High lean-body mass D. Low body mass index A. Excess belly fat According to the USAUDIT-C, harmful alcohol consumption is indicated by scoring above which of the following thresholds? A. 3 for males and 2 for females B. 4 for males and 3 for females C. 7 for males and 5 for females D. 8 for males and 6 for females C. 7 for males and 5 for females Based on research, which group of college athletes is more likely to regularly consume alcohol at hazardous levels? A. Intercollegiate athletes B. Intramural/club athletes C. Athletes from individual sports D. All athletes are equally likely to consume hazardous levels of alcohol. B. Intramural/club athletes Based on the U.S. style eating pattern, how much energy should come from discretionary sources? A. 5% B. 8% C. 14% D. 18% C. 14% An alcohol-related reduction in which hormone can lead to muscle loss? A. Estrogen B. Insulin 56 | P a g e C. Cortisol D. Testosterone D. Testosterone Alcoholics often suffer from structural and functional damage to their brain as a result of a deficiency in which vitamin? A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Vitamin C A. Thiamine Why is breath alcohol level used as a measure of intoxication? A. Because a small amount of ethanol stays in the mouth after being consumed B. Because the end products of alcohol metabolism are excreted in the breath and can be measured by a breathalyzer C. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath D. Because ethanol in the blood flowing to the mouth and head is excreted through the tissue inside the mouth C. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath What effect can regular consumption of high levels of alcohol have on an individual's health? A. Brings about positive health benefits B. Has no effect on health C. Improves the health of males more than females D. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases D. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases What are the likely effects of consuming alcohol prior to going to sleep? A. Decreased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion B. No change to sleep patterns or hormone secretion C. Increase in REM sleep and increase in growth hormone secretion D. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion D. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion What is ethanol's function in the body? A. It has no function; it is a toxin. B. It provides energy, like the other macronutrients. 57 | P a g e C. It provides important vitamins and minerals. D. It improves cognitive function and acts as a stimulant. A. It has no function; it is a toxin. What effect can reduced pyruvate from alcohol metabolism have if liver glycogen is low? A. Fatty acid accumulation B. Fatty liver disease C. Severe hypoglycemia D. Cancer of the liver C. Severe hypoglycemia Flushing of the skin after consuming alcohol is typically associated with which deficiency? A. Alcohol dehydrogenase deficiency B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency C. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency D. Acetyl-CoA synthetase deficiency B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency Ethanol is ultimately metabolized to produce ATP and what other substances? A. Acetyl-CoA and NADH B. Oxygen and water C. Carbon dioxide and water D. Pyruvate and hydrogen peroxide C. Carbon dioxide and water Which product of ethanol metabolism disrupts fatty acid oxidation in peripheral tissues? A. Acetate B. Acetyl-CoA C. NADH D. Acetaldehyde A. Acetate According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, how many standard drinks per day are recommended for females to ensure that alcohol consumption is moderate? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 60 | P a g e c. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence. Which item represents the likely outcome of a lapse in dietary adherence? Select one: a. Increase in energy expenditure b. Decrease in energy intake c. Decrease in energy expenditure d. Increase in energy intake d. Increase in energy intake What is an example of a direct risk of GMO consumption? Select one: a. Increased use of pesticides on GMO crops b. Reduced spoilage of produce c. Increased intake of vitamin A (beta-carotene) d. Expression of allergenic proteins d. Expression of allergenic proteins Non-celiac gluten sensitivity is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. Allergic reaction b. Food sensitivity c. Autoimmune condition d. Gluten intolerance b. Food sensitivity High-fructose corn syrup usually contains what percentage of fructose? Select one: a. 55-65% b. 65-75% c. 45-55% d. 75-85% a. 55-65% Switching from conventional to organic produce significantly reduces biomarkers of pesticide exposure in as little as how many days? Select one: a. 1-3 days b. 13-15 days c. 5-7 days d. 9-11 days c. 5-7 days 61 | P a g e What does MyPlate recommend to eat less of? Select one: a. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars b. Carbohydrates, gluten, and cholesterol c. Genetically modified organism (GMO) d. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids a. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars A ketogenic diet typically requires carbohydrate intake to be restricted to less than how many grams per day? Select one: a. < 50 g b. < 200 g c. < 5 g d. < 500 g a. < 50 g What is the recommended total daily fat intake on a low-fat diet (LFD)? Select one: a. >40% of total calories b. 10-15% of total calories c. <5% of total calories d. 20-35% of total calories d. 20-35% of total calories Which diet has the strongest and most extensive amount of peer-reviewed literature supporting its benefit for long-term health? Select one: a. Ketogenic diet b. Mediterranean diet c. Paleo diet d. 5:2 diet b. Mediterranean diet Which of these foods would be the best source of calcium for a vegan client? Select one: a. Leafy green vegetables b. Cow's milk c. Citrus fruit d. Wheat a. Leafy green vegetables When dining out, certain key words on a menu can indicate how a dish has been prepared. In general, which preparation methods tend to be the healthiest (i.e. prepared with minimal added fat)? 62 | P a g e Select one: a. Dishes that are oven-baked, pan-fried, stir-fried, and grilled b. Dishes that are grilled, braised, sautéed, or roasted c. Dishes that are steamed, simmered, sautéed, and baked d. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat) d. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat) When dining out, what is one useful strategy that consumers can employ prior to going to a restaurant in order to determine some healthy food choices? Select one: a. Avoid eating excessively ahead of time. b. Eat ahead of time. c. Look up the menu ahead of time. d. Call ahead to ask for the daily specials. c. Look up the menu ahead of time. What is a mistake that can add excess calories that consumers may make when ordering salad for a meal? Select one: a. They add too many vegetables and grains. b. They add too much protein. c. They request dressing on the side. d. They add too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit. d. They add too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit. B. J. Fogg's behavior model argues for the idea of "designing for behaviors that lead to an outcome" versus designing for an outcome itself. What does this mean? Select one: a. Make large-scale changes to achieve the outcome. b. Change all existing behaviors immediately to achieve the desired outcome. c. Over-haul old habits to obtain the desired outcome. d. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome. Feedback d. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome. Feedback Which of the following strategies might the Nutrition Coach recommend to a client who says that he finds himself snacking constantly at his desk at work? Select one: a. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen. b. Store snacks in his drawer versus on his immediate desk area. c. Plan his meals for the day ahead of time. d. Avoid bringing any snacks to work. 65 | P a g e c. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time d. Recording and evaluating one's own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence "I want to eat more vegetables," is an example of which kind of goal? Select one: a. Subjective goal b. Process goal c. Outcome goal d. Objective goal a. Subjective goal What is a decision balance sheet? Select one: a. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not b. Recording and evaluating one's own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar c. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence d. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time a. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not Jim wants to place in the top ten of a 5k race. What type of goal is this? Select one: a. Performance goal b. Subjective goal c. Outcome goal d. Objective goal c. Outcome goal In which stage of change might a NutritionCoach help clients develop feasible plans for action? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Preparation c. Contemplation d. Termination b. Preparation Which of the following is a client who eats healthy food because eating food is connected to their identity is experiencing? Select one: a. Intrinsic motivation b. Introjected regulation 66 | P a g e c. Integrated regulation d. External regulation c. Integrated regulation Which of the following is not a motivational interviewing strategy? Select one: a. Expressing accurate empathy b. Enhancing self-efficacy c. Identifying discrepancies d. Creating arguments d. Creating arguments A coach summarizes and restates what a client has just told them by saying, "This is the third time you have made a serious effort at losing weight in the last two years. The goal is personally important to you for health reasons, but you are also worried about staying committed to the goal over the long haul." Which of the following is the coach expressing? Select one: a. Listening skills b. Change talk c. Positive feedback d. Accurate empathy d. Accurate empathy In terms of providing feedback to a client throughout a program, which of the following is the best approach? Select one: a. Provide consistent praise and encouragement. b. Provide feedback to keep clients on track. c. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy. d. Provide consistent and thorough feedback to all clients. c. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy. Which of the following is best defined by the emotional or perceived meaning of a word? Select one: a. Explanation b. Understanding c. Connotation d. Denotation c. Connotation Which of the following best describes the use of questioning in communication? Select one: a. Probing questioning should be primarily used to gain the most information. b. Divergent questioning is the best tool to gain understanding of client preferences. 67 | P a g e c. Closed-ended questioning should be avoided. d. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information. d. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information. Which of the following represents ideal tone of voice as an effective nonverbal communication skill? Select one: a. Speaking softly when asking a difficult question b. Raising pitch at end of sentence c. Matching tone of client d. Maintaining level tone across statements d. Maintaining level tone across statements Based on the importance of "soft skills" in professional success, into which of the following would be the best continuing education course for a Nutritional Coach to enroll? Select one: a. Programming for vegetarian athletes b. Components of effective programming c. Keys to effective communication d. Influences on food choices c. Keys to effective communication Which of the following is studied in the field of psychology? Select one: a. The mind and behavior b. Biological systems c. Neurons and cells d. Physiological pathways a. The mind and behavior Having a BMI less than which of the following values indicates an extreme case of anorexia nervosa? Select one: a. 19.0 kg/m2 b. 17.0 kg/m2 c. 15.0 kg/m2 d. 18.0 kg/m2 c. 15.0 kg/m2 How might depression affect healthy eating? Select one: a. Depression is known to cause both undereating and overeating in different individuals. b. Depression is the sole cause of alcoholism. c. Depressed individuals typically crave salty foods. d. Depressed individuals generally do not value the benefits of healthy eating. 70 | P a g e Select one: a. 140-150% b. 110-120% c. 90-100% d. 120-130% b. 110-120% client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG range between 1.014 and 1.018. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding? Select one: a. The client is severely underconsuming fluids between training sessions. b. The client is severely overconsuming fluids during recovery. c. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs. d. The client needs to drink more sport drinks. c. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs. Exercise associated hyponatremia is primarily caused by which of the following? Select one: a. Excessive fluid intake b. Excess salt consumption c. Not consuming adequate electrolytes d. Not drinking enough sport beverages a. Excessive fluid intake What is the recommended serving amount of fruit per day based on USDA Guidelines? Select one: a. 1 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3 c. 4 In what process does selenium play a critical role? Select one: a. Carbohydrate metabolism b. Antioxidant system c. Fatty acid metabolism d. Production of neurotransmitters b. Antioxidant system What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for adult males ( > 18 years of age)? Select one: a. 600 μg/day b. 1000 μg/day 71 | P a g e c. 400 μg/day d. 900 μg/day d. 900 μg/day Deficiencies in vitamin E can lead to which of the following? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Deafness c. Blindness d. Slurred speech d. Slurred speech Which of the following is true about the link between type-2 diabetes and diet? Select one: a. The link between them is very weak. b. They have a very strong connection. c. It is proven and no longer studied d. It is not known. b. They have a very strong connection.