Benefits of Total-Body Stabilization, Chest & Shoulder, and Core Exercises in OPT Model, Exams of Nursing

Download Benefits of Total-Body Stabilization, Chest & Shoulder, and Core Exercises in OPT Model and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 and hip joint Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process. (Ans- Cumulative injury cycle Name four core-strength exercises. (Ans- Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia. (Ans- Self-myofascial release Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics. (Ans- They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury? (Ans- Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue Name four core-stabilization exercises. (Ans- Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone NASM CPT Exam Study Guide Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC). (Ans- Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, 2 Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress. (Ans- Davis's law Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum. (Ans- Bracing It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order. (Ans- 1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo-pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency. What are the proper backside mechanics during sprinting? (Ans- Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis What are the proper frontside mechanics during sprinting? (Ans- Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture. (Ans- Agility The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate for force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during 5 static stretching Give examples of total-body power exercises (Ans- Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held? (Ans- 30 seconds Name two different leg-stabilization exercises. (Ans- Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program? (Ans- Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities Name two strength level exercises for the legs. (Ans- Leg Press and Barbell Squat Name two power level exercises for the legs. (Ans- Squat Jump and Tuck Jump Give 3 examples of shoulder power exercises. (Ans- Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press 6 Give examples of total-body strength exercises. (Ans- Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization? (Ans- Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable (Ans- Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Give four examples of core-strength exercises. (Ans- Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations Body position progressions used for balance training. (Ans- 1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable Three types of core systems. (Ans- Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity? (Ans- Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, 7 Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements. (Ans- Proprioception What are the acute variables for static stretching? (Ans- 1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching? (Ans- Reciprocal inhibition When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching? (Ans- After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5 How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last? (Ans- 5-10 minutes What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for? (Ans- Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. (Ans- Walking or jogging at 65-75% of maximal heart rate Example of a Zone 2 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. (Ans- Group exercise classes or spinning at 76-85% of maximal heart rate 10 Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training. (Ans- Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations? (Ans- Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors What is the drawing-in Maneuver? (Ans- A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine. Benefits of a cool-down include the following: (Ans- Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises. (Ans- Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; 11 Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pulldown; Straight-arm Pull-down, Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training. (Ans- Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating . (Ans- controlled instability Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include. (Ans- Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. (Ans- Plyometric training Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production. (Ans- Integrated performance paradigm The ability of the neuromuscular 12 system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load. (Ans- Strength What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises? (Ans- Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints? (Ans- Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position What is dynamic balance? (Ans- Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise? (Ans- Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum? (Ans- Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time. (Ans- Rate of force production The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements. (Ans- A slight forward lean with neutral spine What happens during the eccentric 15 training exercise selection for Phase 2 of the OPT model? (Ans- Perform 1 strength exercise superset with 1 stabilization exercise List the acute variables for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training of the OPT model. (Ans- Perform 8-12 reps, 2-4 sets; 2/0/2 tempo for strength exercises, 4/2/1 tempo for stabilization exercises; 70- 80% intensity; 0-60 seconds rest The recommended number of sets for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? (Ans- 3-5 What repetition tempo is used for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? (Ans- 2/0/2 What is the recommended exercise selection and intensity for Phase 3 of the OPT model? (Ans- 2-4 strength level exercises per body part, 75-85% intensity What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model? (Ans- 1-5 reps, 4-6 sets What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in the Maximal Strength phase of the OPT model? (Ans- 1-3 strength exercises per body part What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model? (Ans- 85-100% intensity, 3-5 minutes rest 16 What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model? (Ans- 1-5 reps for the strength exercise and 8-10 reps for the power exercise, 3-5 sets What is the recommended repetition tempo for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model? (Ans- X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled) What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model? (Ans- 1 strength exercise superset with 1 power exercise Which phase(s) of the OPT model are most important for a client who has a goal of body fat reduction? (Ans- Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance and Phase 2 Strength Endurance Name the training system that involves performing one set of each exercise. (Ans- Single-set system In what Phase of the OPT Model would you perform Plyometric exercises as fast as possible? (Ans- Phase 5 Power A resistance training system popular since the 1940s that consists of performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise. (Ans- Multiple-set system A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set. (Ans- Pyramid system A system of strength training that uses 17 a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another. (Ans- Superset system A resistance training system that consists of a series of exercises the client performs one after the other with minimal rest between each exercise. (Ans- Circuit training system The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit. (Ans- Peripheral heart action system The resistance training system that involves breaking the body up into parts to be trained on separate days. (Ans- Split-routine system A resistance training system that alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity (Ans- Vertical loading The resistance training system where the client performs all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part. (Ans- Horizontal loading The resistance training tempo used in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. (Ans- 4/2/1 Name the four primary areas of focus in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training (Ans- Increasing stability, increasing muscular endurance, increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature, improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination 20 in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training. (Ans- 0-2 Name the nine acute variables of training. (Ans- Repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, training volume, rest interval, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection The type of specificity that refers to the energy demand placed on the body (Ans- Metabolic specificity The type of specificity that refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection (Ans- Neuromuscular specificity What are some benefits of kettlebell training? (Ans- Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance; increased mental focus and physical stamina; increased oxygen uptake; increased total-body conditioning; recruitment of the posterior chain; increased core stability and muscular endurance; increased strength and power; improved grip strength; increased metabolic demands and caloric expenditure What is the amount of time activeisolated stretches should be held? (Ans- 1-2 Seconds What are the three adaptations/levels of the Optimum Performance Training model? (Ans- Stabilization, Strength, Power Which cardiorespiratory training stage uses 65-85% intensity? (Ans- Stage II What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 3 21 of the OPT model? (Ans- 6-12 What is the recommended repetition range for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance of the OPT model? (Ans- 8-12 What are the recommended repetition tempos for resistance training exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model? (Ans- 2/0/2 strength exercises and 4/2/1 stabilization exercises Percentage of intensity for resistance training in the second Phase of the OPT model. (Ans- 70-80% What is the repetition range for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model? (Ans- 1-5 What are three goals of Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model? (Ans- Enhance neuromuscular efficiency, enhance prime mover strength, increase rate of force production What are three goals of Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? (Ans- Increase motor unit recruitment, increase frequency of motor unit recruitment, improve peak force Name the seven performance benefits achieved when following the OPT model. (Ans- Strength, power, endurance, flexibility, speed, agility, and balance In a core training program, what is the number of core exercises recommended in Phase 2 of the OPT model? (Ans- 0-4 22 What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 2 of the OPT model? (Ans- Increasing proprioceptive demand, volume, intensity or by decreasing rest periods. What is the primary goal in balance training? (Ans- To challenge the limits of stability Name six special considerations for clients with hypertension. (Ans- Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers, don't let clients over grip equipment, modify tempo to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle action, perform exercises in standing or seated position, allow client to stand up slowly, progress client slowly Name sample core exercises to use with a client that has hypertension. (Ans- Standing Torso Cable Iso-rotation and Standing Cobra What are three things that clients should have established prior to incorporating dynamic stretching into their exercise program? (Ans- Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities Heart rate zones used in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training. (Ans- Zone 1: 65-75%, Zone 2: 76-85%, Zone 3: 86-95% What are two methods of progression in the Maximal Strength Training level of the OPT model? (Ans- Increase volume and load What are two methods of progression 25 What is the intensity level for power exercises performed in Phase 5 of the OPT model? (Ans- 30-45% of 1RM or up to 10% of body weight What are some special considerations for a client with osteoporosis? (Ans- Progression should be slow and well monitored; exercises should be progressed to free sitting or standing; focus exercises on hips, thighs, back and arms; avoid spinal loading; make sure client is breathing normally What are the most appropriate phases of the OPT model to use with an obese client? (Ans- Phases 1 and 2 Name special consideration for training a client with arthritis. (Ans- Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions, stay in pain-free ranges of motion, only use SMR if tolerated by the client, there may be a need to start out with just 5 minutes of exercise and progressively increase. Name special considerations when training a youth client. (Ans- Progression should be based on postural control and make exercising fun Name three low-volume high-intensity training adaptations. (Ans- Increased rate of force production, increased motor-unit recruitment, increased motor-unit synchronization What adaptations occur from high volume training? (Ans- Increased muscle cross-sectional area, improved blood lipid serum profile, and increased metabolic rate 26 What is the adaptation yielded from 3- 5 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 75-85% intensity? (Ans- Hypertrophy Muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with what percent of 1 RM? (Ans- 50-70% What are the acute variables for active-isolated stretching? (Ans- 1-2 sets, hold 1-2 seconds, 5-10 repetitions What are the acute variables for dynamic stretching? (Ans- 1 set, 10 repetitions, 3-10 exercises Number of repetitions per exercise that should be performed for dynamic stretching. (Ans- 10 repetitions Which phases should be included in an annual plan for a client with the goal of basic body fat reduction? (Ans- Phases 1 and 2 When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate? (Ans- Upon waking in the morning Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency. (Ans- YMCA 3-Minute Step Test and Rockport Walk Test What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage? (Ans- Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin-fold measurements What do you call measurable data regarding a client's physical state, such as body composition, movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory ability? (Ans- Objective information 27 What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease? (Ans- 35.0-39.99 What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion (Ans- Gastrocnemius and soleus Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation. (Ans- Gluteus maximus What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background (Ans- Subjective information During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out?" (Ans- Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head) During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward? (Ans- Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean? (Ans- Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure (Ans- Beta-blockers What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation? (Ans- Wearing dress shoes (high heels) 30 behind the body. (Ans- Frontal plane movements Name the energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body (Ans- Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test? (Ans- Zone one What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test? (Ans- Zone two What information can be provided to the health and fitness professional by knowing the client's occupation? (Ans- Common movement patterns What relevant information can you learn about a client based on their occupation and movement capacity? (Ans- Extended periods of sitting, repetitive movements, dress shoes, mental stress Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain? (Ans- Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius What muscle action develops when a muscle exerts more force than is placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle? (Ans- Concentric This chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs (Ans- Left atrium Give the straight percentage method equation for calculating a client's target heart rate. (Ans- (220-client's age) x desired intensity Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration. (Ans- Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, 31 sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client? (Ans- Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same time each day) and average the results to ensure accuracy Name the functional unit of the muscle that lies in the space between two Z lines. It produces muscular contraction and is formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin. (Ans- Sarcomere The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces. (Ans- Biomechanics The heart rate training zone between 65 to 75% that builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery. (Ans- Zone 1 The heart rate training zone between 76 to 85% that increases both aerobic and anaerobic endurance. (Ans- Zone 2 The heart rate training zone between 86 to 95% that builds high-end work capacity. (Ans- Zone 3 Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts. (Ans- Systolic blood pressure Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood. (Ans- Diastolic blood pressure The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat. (Ans- Bioelectrical impedance 32 What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment? (Ans- Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease? (Ans- A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females Muscles that assist the prime movers. (Ans- Synergists Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is . (Ans- 25 or greater Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues. (Ans- Mechanoreceptors What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test? (Ans- Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment? (Ans- Height of a chair Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change. (Ans- Golgi tendon organs Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change (Ans- Muscle Spindles On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat? (Ans- Very overweight clients The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length. (Ans- Length-tension relationship 35 dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this. (Ans- Muscle imbalance The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. (Ans- Neuromuscular efficiency A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle. (Ans- Epimysium What are the three support mechanisms of blood? (Ans- Transportation, regulation and protection The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people? (Ans- Individuals lacking shoulder stability What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation? (Ans- Latissimus dorsi Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome. (Ans- Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain Name the altered joint mechanics associated with lower crossed syndrome (Ans- Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension Which muscles would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome? (Ans- Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, and infraspinatus What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion 36 syndrome? (Ans- Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. (Ans- Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique Average stroke volume of an adult (Ans- 70 mL Name two abdominal muscles used for trunk rotation. (Ans- Internal and external obliques Name five performance assessment tests. (Ans- Davies Test, Shark Skill Test, Push-up Test, Upper Extremity Strength Assessment, Lower Extremity Strength Assessment What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment? (Ans- Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended What regressions could you make for clients who are unable to perform a Single-leg Squat assessment? (Ans- Use outside support for squatting assistance or perform a Single-leg Balance without squat A force that produces rotation (Ans- Torque Movement of the bones around the joints. (Ans- Rotary motion Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome. (Ans- Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff 37 impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. (Ans- Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view. (Ans- Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) (Ans- Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process. (Ans- Cumulative injury cycle Name four core-strength exercises. (Ans- Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia. (Ans- Self-myofascial release Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics. (Ans- They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury? (Ans- Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint 40 Power Step-up Name three plyometric-power exercises. (Ans- Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. (Ans- Plyometric training Body position progressions in balance training. (Ans- Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, twolegs unstable, single-leg Give examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum? (Ans- SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching Give examples of total-body power exercises (Ans- Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held? (Ans- 30 seconds Name two different leg-stabilization exercises. (Ans- Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance What are three things that a client should have established prior to 41 incorporating a dynamic stretching program? (Ans- Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities Name two strength level exercises for the legs. (Ans- Leg Press and Barbell Squat Name two power level exercises for the legs. (Ans- Squat Jump and Tuck Jump Give three examples of shoulderpower exercises. (Ans- Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press Give examples of total-body strength exercises. (Ans- Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization? (Ans- Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Give four examples of corestabilization exercises. (Ans- Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Give four examples of core-strength exercises. (Ans- Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations Body position progressions used for balance training. (Ans- 1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable 42 Three types of core systems. (Ans- Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing selfmyofascial release? (Ans- 30 seconds What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity? (Ans- Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements. (Ans- Proprioception What are the acute variables for static stretching? (Ans- 1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching? (Ans- Reciprocal inhibition When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching? (Ans- After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5 How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last? (Ans- 5-10 minutes What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for? (Ans- Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. (Ans- Walking or jogging at 65-75% of maximal heart rate 45 The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome (Ans- Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training. (Ans- Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations? (Ans- Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors What is the drawing-in Maneuver? (Ans- A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine. Benefits of a cool-down include the following: (Ans- Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises. (Ans- Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press 46 Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. (Ans- Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pulldown; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training. (Ans- Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating . (Ans- controlled instability Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include. (Ans- Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. (Ans- Plyometric training 47 Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production. (Ans- Integrated performance paradigm The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load. (Ans- Strength What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises? (Ans- Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints? (Ans- Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position What is dynamic balance? (Ans- Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise? (Ans- Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum? (Ans- Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time (Ans- Rate of force production 50 Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals? (Ans- Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. (Ans- Instrumental support Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern. (Ans- Emotional support Type of questions that can be answered with one word. (Ans- Directive questions Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients. (Ans- Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise (Ans- Informational support This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise. (Ans- Companionship support What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer? (Ans- 2.0 51 The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART. (Ans- Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals? (Ans- 1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment? The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. (Ans- Estimated Average Requirement The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. (Ans- Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined. (Ans- Adequate Intake The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases. (Ans- Tolerable Upper Intake Level What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that 52 is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer? (Ans- Fiber What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions? (Ans- Carbohydrates Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods. (Ans- Carbohydrates The daily recommended intake of fiber. (Ans- 38 g for men; 25 g for women What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes? (Ans- 1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb) The number of amino acids the body uses (Ans- 20 Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer. (Ans- Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins A, D, E, and K. (Ans- Fats What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male? (Ans- 3 liters What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake? (Ans- 20-35% Name the eight essential amino acids. (Ans- Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine Name the process in which amino acids are used in energy production. It occurs when 55 acid is missing or present in the smallest amount? (Ans- Limiting factor What are the 10 nonessential amino acids? (Ans- Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine What are the two semi-essential amino acids? (Ans- Arginine and histidine What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet? (Ans- More than 35% Name three monosaccharides. (Ans- Glucose, fructose, and galactose Name three disaccharides. (Ans- Sucrose, lactose, and maltose What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water? (Ans- 60% What are five things the body needs fats for? (Ans- Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume? (Ans- 20 to 25% of total caloric intake Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration. (Ans- Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration. (Ans- Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen Name two functions that are retained as a 56 result of dehydration. (Ans- Water and sodium The fluid loss of even percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels. (Ans- 2 In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake? (Ans- At least one week What is the duration of the post-workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion? (Ans- 90 minutes Name seven typical disordered eating patterns. (Ans- Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements. (Ans- Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes. (Ans- Dietary reference intake What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D? (Ans- Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium? (Ans- Kidney stones 57 What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron? (Ans- Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation How often does a NASM CPT need to renew their credentials? (Ans- Every 2 years What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal? (Ans- 20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs What is the traditional reason for use of a dietary supplement? (Ans- To provide the body with nutrients that might not be adequately supplied by a diet Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE? (Ans- 20% The professional who is legally qualified to practice in the field of nutrition. (Ans- Registered Dietician (RD) Four scenarios where supplemental protein may be helpful. (Ans- Quick amino acid consumption before or after weight training; to replace whole-food protein for weight loss; when whole food is not available; for bodybuilders, wrestlers, or weight conscious athletes preparing for competition How many calories are in one gram of a carbohydrate? (Ans- 4 calories Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates. (Ans- 45-65% What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery? (Ans- 1.5 g/kg 60 Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer (Ans- Nondirective or open-ended The primary purpose of a business. (Ans- To create and keep a loyal customer base or following The premise on which all buying decisions are based (Ans- Emotion Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression? (Ans- 20 seconds What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication? (Ans- 1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means What are some common barriers to exercising? (Ans- Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising. (Ans- Lack of time The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances (Ans- Nutrition What are the four Ps of marketing? (Ans- Product, price, place, promotion How many calories are in a gram of fat? (Ans- 9 Making a good first impression includes the following: (Ans- Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body 61 language Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence. (Ans- SELF MANAGEMENT, GOAL SETTING, SELF- MONITORING, POSITIVE SELF-TALK, PSYCHING UP, IMAGERY` Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat. (Ans- Nonessential amino acids Name the five stages of change. (Ans- 1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals? (Ans- Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. (Ans- Instrumental support Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern. (Ans- Emotional support Type of questions that can be answered with one word. (Ans- Directive questions Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients. (Ans- Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction 62 This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise. (Ans- Informational support This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise. (Ans- Companionship support What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer? (Ans- 2.0 The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART. (Ans- Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals? (Ans- 1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment? The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. (Ans- Estimated Average Requirement The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. (Ans- Recommended Dietary Allowance 65 depression and anxiety How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat? (Ans- 3500 What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves. (Ans- A, D, B6 Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates. (Ans- Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%. (Ans- Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%. (Ans- Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content. (Ans- RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet What are the risks of following an overly restrictive (very low calorie) diet? (Ans- Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation What is the amount of energy 66 expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE). (Ans- Resting metabolic rate (RMR) What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6- 10% of total energy expenditure (TEE). (Ans- Thermic effect of food (TEF) Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service. (Ans- Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat. (Ans- Excess protein intake A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios. (Ans- Complete protein A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids. (Ans- Incomplete protein What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount? (Ans- Limiting factor What are the 10 nonessential amino acids? (Ans- Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine 67 What are the two semi-essential amino acids? (Ans- Arginine and histidine What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet? (Ans- More than 35% Name three monosaccharides. (Ans- Glucose, fructose, and galactose Name three disaccharides. (Ans- Sucrose, lactose, and maltose What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water? (Ans- 60% What are five things the body needs fats for? (Ans- Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume? (Ans- 20 to 25% of total caloric intake Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration. (Ans- Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration. (Ans- Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration. (Ans- Water and sodium The fluid loss of even percent will adversely affect circulatory 70 What is the ultimate nutritional limiting factor for exercise performance? (Ans- Carbohydrate availability Give four reasons why the body needs carbohydrates. (Ans- They are the preferred form of energy, they constantly need to be replaced, parts of the central nervous system relies exclusively on carbohydrates, they efficiently burn and use fat and protein Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body. (Ans- Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation Name four body function processes that are improved with adequate water consumption. (Ans- Endocrine gland function, liver function, metabolic function, body temperature regulation Name four nutritional guidelines for lean body mass gain. (Ans- Consume 4 to 6 meals per day, spread protein intake throughout day, take advantage of the post-workout window of opportunity to have protein and carbohydrates, don't neglect the importance of carbohydrate and fat intake What are nine nutritional guidelines for weight loss? (Ans- Spread protein, carbohydrate, and fat consumption throughout the day; choose whole grains and vegetables over refined grains and simple sugars; eat 4 to 6 meals per day; avoid empty calories; drink plenty of water; weigh and measure foods for one week to get a better understanding of caloric 71 intake; make small decreases in calories and increase activity; consume less that 10% of calories from saturated fat; limit alcohol consumption Name four precautionary statements on dietary supplements. (Ans- Investigate the use of multivitamins for your specific needs, specific compounds can allow the body to function at full capacity, individual results may vary, general population should not use supplements for medicinal purposes Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV. (Ans- Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories. (Ans- Kilocalorie or Calorie with a capital C Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum total of what three energy components? (Ans- Resting metabolic rate (RMR), Thermic effect of food (TEF), and Energy expended during physical activity Give factors that affect protein requirements (Ans- An individual's daily exercise and physical activity levels, daily caloric consumption, body-composition goals, sports-performance goals How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise? (Ans- 6-12 ounces What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain? (Ans- 4-6 72 People in this stage of change do exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month. (Ans- Preparation. Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer (Ans- Nondirective or open-ended The primary purpose of a business. (Ans- To create and keep a loyal customer base or following The premise on which all buying decisions are based. (Ans- Emotion Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression? (Ans- 20 seconds What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication? (Ans- 1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means What are some common barriers to exercising? (Ans- Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising. (Ans- Lack of time. The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances. (Ans- Nutrition. When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate? (Ans- Upon waking in the morning Name two common tests for assessing 75 and levator scapulae During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out? (Ans- Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's arms fall forward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? (Ans- Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's knees move inward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? (Ans- Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean? (Ans- Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches? (Ans- Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate? (Ans- Middle/ lower trapezius During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward? (Ans- Deep cervical flexors 76 After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch? (Ans- Overactive muscles After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen? (Ans- Underactive muscles Name the assessment that measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control. (Ans- Shark Skill Test Name 2 conditions in which Beta-blockers might be prescribed. (Ans- High blood pressure and arrhythmias What muscle action develops tension while lengthening and prevents resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner? (Ans- Eccentric Name the imaginary bisector that divides the body into right and left halves. (Ans- Sagittal plane This movement primarily occurs from side to side, as if there were a wall in front of and behind the body. (Ans- Frontal plane movements Name the energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body. (Ans- Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test? (Ans- Zone one What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3- 77 Minute Step Test? (Ans- Zone two What information can be provided to the health and fitness professional by knowing the client's occupation? (Ans- Common movement patterns What relevant information can you learn about a client based on their occupation and movement capacity? (Ans- Extended periods of sitting, repetitive movements, dress shoes, mental stress Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain? (Ans- Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius What muscle action develops when a muscle exerts more force than is placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle? (Ans- Concentric This chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs. (Ans- Left atrium Give the straight percentage method equation for calculating a client's target heart rate. (Ans- (220-client's age) x desired intensity Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration. (Ans- Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client? (Ans- Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same 80 The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length. (Ans- Length-tension relationship What is the functional unit of the nervous system? (Ans- Neuron The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover. (Ans- Synergistic dominance The process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles. (Ans- Autogenic inhibition Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view. (Ans- Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view. (Ans- Feet turn out and knees move inward Name some of the benefits of circumference measurements. (Ans- Can be used on obese clients, good for comparisons and progressions, good for assessing fat patterns and distribution, inexpensive, easy to record Name the systems of the human movement system (kinetic chain). (Ans- Nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, 81 and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise. (Ans- Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response. (Ans- Motor control What are some primary causes of muscle imbalance? (Ans- Postural stress, emotional duress, repetitive movement, cumulative trauma, poor training technique Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance. (Ans- Knowledge of results The energy pathway used in moderate to high intensity activities that can only be sustained for 30 to 50 seconds. (Ans- Glycolysis Repeated practice of motor control processes, which leads to a change in the ability to produce skilled movements. (Ans- Motor learning What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome? (Ans- Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain Name movement compensations observed during a Pushing assessment. (Ans- Low back arches, shoulder elevates, head migrates forward 82 When assessing a client during a Single-leg Squat, from which vantage point should you view the client? (Ans- Anterior Which muscle synergies (muscle groups) are primarily used in a Shoulder Press? (Ans- Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius The name of the receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint. (Ans- Joint receptors Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this. (Ans- Muscle imbalance The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. (Ans- Neuromuscular efficiency A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle. (Ans- Epimysium What are the three support mechanisms of blood? (Ans- Transportation, regulation and protection The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people? (Ans- Individuals lacking shoulder stability What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation? (Ans- Latissimus dorsi