Understanding Muscle Function and Exercise Participation, Exams of Nursing

Download Understanding Muscle Function and Exercise Participation and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 33 NASM CPT Final Exam Study Questions and Answers 1. According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70% of the 1RM a) 1-5 b) 12-20 c)6-12 d}1-10 : b) 12-20 2. What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment? a) Hip Flexors b) Transverse abdominus c) Gluteus maximus d) Multifidus : a) Hip Flexors 3. The Four P's of Marketing include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Price b) Plan c) Product d) Place 2 / 33 : b) Plan 4. A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's a) Internal balance and stabilization b) Maximum strength capabilities c) Maximum cardiac output d) Hypertrophy gains : a) Internal balance and stabilization 5. What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gathers blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir? a) Atria b) Atrioventricular node c) Ventricles d) Sinoatrial node : a) Atria 6. Which of the following is not a testing site for body fat according to the durnin womersley test? a) Bicep c) Thigh b) Tricep d) Suprailliac : c) Thigh 5 / 33 11. The principle of indicates that a synergist mus- cle will substitute for a prime mover exhibiting decreased neural drive. a) Autogenic Inhibition b) Reciprocal Inhibition c) Synergist Dominance d) Sarcopenia : c) Synergist Dominance 12. Staticstretchingisaformof: a) corrective flexibility b) dynamic flexibility c) active flexibility d) passive flexibility : a) corrective flexibility 13. Which stage of change has zero temptation to engage in the old behavior and exhibit 100% self-efficacy in all previously tempting situations a) Contemplation c) Maintenance b) Preparation d) Termination : d) Termination 14. What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demon- strates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment? 6 / 33 A) Gluteus medius c) Psoas B) Latissimus dorsi d) Soleus : A) Gluteus medius 15. PeopleinthisstageoftheStagesofChangeModeldonotexercisebutare- thinkingaboutbecomingmore active in the next 6 months. 7 / 33 a) Precontemplation b) Preparation c) Contemplation d) Action : c) Contemplation 16. Which of the follow is a lower body agility test? A) Shark Skill Test B) YMCA Step Test c) Bioelectrical Impedance d) Davies Test: A) Shark Skill Test 17. Ifaclientdemonstrateskneesthatcaveinduringtheoverheadsquatassess- mentwhatmuscle(s)areMOST likely tight (overactive)? A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius c) Vastus medialis oblique d) Adductor complex: d) Adductor complex 18. Connectivetissue,suchastendonsandligaments,donotrepaireasilybe- cause? a) They're too vascular b) They're sarcoplasmic c) They're avascular d) Avascular Necrosis: c) They're avascular 19. Theconceptof statesthatprolongedGolgitendonorganstimulation- 10 / 33 daccountsfor %of all diabetes. a) 5to10% c)40to45% b) 50to55% d)90to95%: d)90to95% 29. What muscles are possibly tight (shortened) if a client's feet turn out during the Overhead Squat Assessment? a) Anterior tibialis c) Posterior tibialis b) Lateral gastrocnemius d) Gluteus medius: b) Lateral gastrocnemius 30. A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an exam- ple of what? a) Synergistic dominance b) Altered reciprocal inhibition c) Autogenic inhibition d) Arthokinetic dysfunction: b) Altered reciprocal inhibition 31. Approximately how many amino acids does the body use? a) 8 11 / 33 b) 20 c)10 d)30: b) 20 32. The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called: a) ²-oxidation (beta) c) Krebs cycle b) Glycolysis d) Gluconeogenesis: d) Gluconeogenesis 33. According to research, hypertrophy is achieved by training with what percentage of 1RM a) 50-70% b) 85-100% c) 75-85% d) 30-45%: c) 75-85% 34. The ----------- is the primary pace maker of the heart a) Sinoatrial node b) Atriums c) Atrioventricular node d) Ventricles: a) Sinoatrial node 35. The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during func- tional activities is known as a) Quickness c) Power b) Speed d) Agility: a) Quickness 36. Which of the following is an example of a "total body power" exercise? a) Barbell Clean c) Single-leg Squat Touchdown 12 / 33 b) Bench Press d) Ball Dumbbell Cobra: a) Barbell Clean 37. What muscles are possibly weak (lengthened) if a client's feet flatten during the Overhead Squat Assessment? a) Bicep femoris c) Latissimus dorsi b) Soleus d) Anterior tibialis: d) Anterior tibialis 38. When performing the Overhead Squat Assessment, how many repetitions should the client complete? a) 2 b) 5 c)3 d)7: b) 5 39. Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than: a) 120/80 b) 130/85 c) 110/75 d) 140/90: d) 140/90 15 / 33 c) Lumbo-pubic-hip complex d) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex: d) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex 48. When using medicine balls for their explosive power capabilities, high-ve- locity movements will require a) A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual's body weight b) A smaller ball, generally less than 10 inches in diameter c) A larger ball, generally 20 inches in diameter d) A heavier ball, generally greater than 10% an individual's body weight: a) A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual's body weight 49. The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber? a) Type I b) Type II B c) Type II A d) None of the above: a) Type I 50. The storage form of carbohydrates is called: A) Amino acids B) Triglycerides c) Glycogen d) ATPase: c) Glycogen 51. Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise? a) Squats c) Lat Pull down Machine b) Machine Leg Extension d) Bench press: a) Squats 52. The reverse crunch is considered what type of core exercise? a) Core-stabilization b) Core-power 16 / 33 c) Core-strength d) All of the above: c) Core-strength 53. A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise? a) Core-strength b) Core-stabilization c) Core-power d) All of the above: b) Core-stabilization 54. Which of the following is NOT true regarding reactive training? a) Increases resting heart rate c) Increases firing frequency (rate coding) b) Increases rate of force production d) Increases motor unit recruitment: a) Increases resting heart rate 17 / 33 55. A rotation chest pass is considered what type of exercise? a) Core-strength c) Core-stabilization b) Core-power d) All of the above: b) Core-power 56. All of the following are true regarding reactive training, EXCEPT: a) it increases motor unit recruitment. b) it increases firing frequency (rate coding) c) it increases maximal strength d) it increases the rate of force production: c) it increases maximal strength 57. Whichplaneofmotionbisectsthebodyintoupperandlowerhalves,allowing- forrotationalmovement? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Frontal d) Coronal: b) Transverse 58. The three phases of plyometric training ,in order, are: a) eccentric, amortization, and concentric. b) eccentric, concentric, and amortization. c) concentric, eccentric, and amortization. d) concentric, amortization, and eccentric.: a) eccentric, amortization, and con- centric. 59. What is the target heart rate for a stage III cardiorespiratory training program? A) 65-75% of HRmax c) 76-85% of HRmax B) 86-95% of HRmax d) 96-100% of HRmax: B) 86-95% of HRmax 60. What is defined as the science concerned with the internal and external 20 / 33 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or A) 30 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. C) 95 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. D) 60 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.: B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week. 67. Which of the following compounds are considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion? a) Proteins c) Fats b) Water d) Carbohydrates: d) Carbohydrates 68. Consumption of which of the following is associated with a lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motil- ity, and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose? 21 / 33 a) Fiber c) Water b) Protein d) Lipids: a) Fiber 69. When performing the Squat Jump with Stabilization exercise, how long should a client hold the landing position? a) 1-2 seconds c) 3-5 seconds b) 5-7 seconds d) 8-10 seconds: c) 3-5 seconds 70. simply means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal. a) Program design c) Goniometric assessment b) Reactive training d) Exercise imagery: a) Program design 71. Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action set? a) Bench Press into a Push-Up c) Push-Up into a Squat b) Squat into a Jump d) Jump Squat into a Power Clean: c) Push-Up into a Squat 72. are the most fundamental components of designing a training program that determine the amount of stress placed on the body and what adaptations the body will incur. a) Power adaptations c) Acute variables b) Motor units d) Formed elements: c) Acute variables 73. A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores? a) 10 b) 50 c)30 d)90: b) 50 74. The states that the body will particularly adapt to the demands placed on it. a) principle of overload c) principle of specificity b) principle of individualism d) principle of progression: c) principle of specificity 22 / 33 75. Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) are the primary components of myofila- ments that make which of the following? a) Endomysium c) Sarcomere b) Fascicle d) Myofibril: d) Myofibril 76. Mabel is 75 years old. She exhibits upper cross syndrome and her arms fall forward during the overhead squat. What muscle is likely overactive? a) Gastrocnemius b) Pectorals c) Mid/Lower traps d) Adductor: b) Pectorals 77. What is the purpose of phase 1 of the OPT model? a) Increase total body strength b) Increase lactate threshold 25 / 33 c) 210 d) 230: b) 220 85. While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's shoulders elevating. Which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client's underactive muscles? a) Standing shoulder shrug b) Ball Cobra c) Seated shoulder press d) Ball Bridge: b) Ball Cobra 86. Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? a) Lower crossed syndrome b) Pronation distortion c) Upper crossed syndrome d) Lower extremity movement syndrome: b) Pronation distortion 87. A turn-key product is one that a) Requires keys to open b) Needs work to open c) Ready for immediate use d) Requires extensive training: c) Ready for immediate use 88. Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint? a) Neck b) Wrist c) Waist d) Knee: d) Knee 26 / 33 89. Which of the following indicates goal commitment? a) A client visits a licensed psychologist to deal with her affective influences. b) A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others. c) A client accepts feedback from her friends and family about her progress. d) A client refrains from setting a fixed timeframe to achieve his goals.: b) A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others. 90. Which of the following is a progression of the multiplanar jump with stabilization in the frontal plane? a) A transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing b) A sagittal plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing c) A frontal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing d) A coronal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing: a) A trans- verse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing 27 / 33 91. Which of the following is considered objective information? a) Body composition testing b) Inquiring about client's current injuries c) Asking the client if they wear shoe's with elevated heels d) Asking the client about past surgeries: a) Body composition testing 92. Ancillary revenue can be gained through a) Personal training services b) Nutritional services c) Membership sales d) Merchandise sales: d) Merchandise sales 93. Individuals who have shown a certain level of interest in personal training services are . a) Targets c) Acquisitions b) Leads d) Clients: a) Targets 94. Which of the following is a common mistake made while performing pris- oner squats? a) Keeping the neck in neutral alignment b) Allowing the feet to turn out c) Keeping the knees in line with the feet d) Allowing the knees to point outward: b) Allowing the feet to turn out 95. A client complains of pain in his shoulders while performing the triceps dips exercise. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort? a) Perform the exercise without a bench b) Decrease the range of motion 30 / 33 b) Metabolic equivalent (MET) c) Estimated oxygen consumption d) Estimated heart rate reserve (HRR): c) Estimated oxygen consumption 101. Which of the following glands is called the "master" gland of the en- docrine system because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands? a) Hypothalamus b) Thyroid glands c) Adrenal glands d) Pituitary gland: d) Pituitary gland 102. Facilities that are high-end and focus on a niche market segment are facilities. a) Large facility b) Medium sized 31 / 33 c) Boutique d) Small Group: c) Boutique 103. In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional? a) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis b) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension c) When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy d) When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension: d) When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension 104. (BLANK) trait does not change over time. a) Physical b) Emotional c) Dynamic d) Stable: d) Stable 105. When a client performs the Shark Skill performance test for lower body agility, which of the following would result in penalization of .1 seconds? a) Hands falling off the waist b) Returning to the center square c) Hands falling off the head d) Hoping to the desired square: a) Hands falling off the waist 106. How many ounces of water should your male clients be consuming per day? a) 91oz b) 115 oz c)98oz 32 / 33 d) 125 oz: d) 125 oz 107. The total amount of work performed within a specific period of time is known as: a) Training intensity b) Training volume c) Training duration d) Repetition tempo: b) Training volume 108. During phase 3 of the OPT model, a client is suggested to perform horizontal loading with rest periods? a) 1-3 minutes b) 0-60 seconds c) 3-5 minutes d) 2-4 minutes: b) 0-60 seconds