Exercise Science: Stabilization Training, Exams of Nursing

Download Exercise Science: Stabilization Training and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e NASM CTP EXAMS 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following? Select one: a. Balance-strength b. Balance-plyometric c. Balance-power d. Balance-stabilization A How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training? Select one: a. 2-4 b. 3-5 c. 0-2 d. 1-3 D Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Seated cable row b. Standing cable row c. Seated lat pull down d. Medicine ball pull over throw A Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis? Select one: a. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain 2 | P a g e and stiffness of the lower extremities. b. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups. c. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling. d. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. D Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise? Select one: a. Proprioceptive plyometrics b. Box jump-up with stabilization c. Repeat box jumps d. Repeat butt kicks A In the Strength Endurance Phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Bench press followed by a soccer throw b. Push-up followed by a seated cable row c. Push-up followed by bench press d. Bench press followed by a ball push-up D What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates? Select one: a. 1-3 g/kg body weight b. 3-5 g/kg body weight c. 6-10 g/kg body weight d. 11-13 g/kg body weight C Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement? Select one: a. 1-3 mg/kg b. 3-6 mg/kg c. 1-3 mg/lb d. 3-6 mg/lb B While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Biceps femoris b. Latissimus dorsi 5 | P a g e c. 25% d. 100% A Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise? Select one: a. Avoid a large stride length to protect the low back. b. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise. c. Keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise. d. Avoid rounding the lower back when performing the exercise. B Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press? Select one: a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set. b. Spot at the elbows. c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance. d. Place hands at both ends of the barbell. A In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump? Select one: a. Abduction b. Flexion c. Extension d. Adduction B When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position? Select one: a. 90° internally rotated humerus b. Anteriorly rotated pelvis c. Posteriorly rotated pelvis d. 90° horizontally abducted humerus C Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles? Select one: a. Gracilis b. Psoas 6 | P a g e c. Tensor fascia latae d. Pectineus B What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of? Select one: a. Balance-stabilization exercise b. Balance-modification exercise c. Balance-power exercise d. Balance-strength exercise C Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month? Select one: a. The action stage b. The precontemplation stage c. The preparation stage d. The maintenance stage C An individual has a gym membership and visits sporadically, but not frequently enough to maintain a well-rounded exercise program. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Maintenance C In the context of the stages of change, which of the following describes stage 1? Select one: a. People in this stage have no intention of changing. b. People in this stage are active. c. People in this stage do not exercise but are thinking about becoming more active. d. People in this stage do exercise occasionally. A Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Posterior deltoid 7 | P a g e c. Pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor A When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press C A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system? Select one: a. Multiple set system b. Pyramid system c. Superset system d. Circuit training system D Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Psoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gluteus maximus D Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization b. Single-leg throw and catch c. Single-leg internal and external rotation d. Single-leg squat touchdown A If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive? Select one: a. Rhomboids b. Sternocleidomastoid 10 | P a g e b. external rotation of the feet. c. excessive forward lean. d. low back arches. B Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome? Select one: a. Psoas minor b. Rectus femoris c. Erector Spinae d. Transverse abdominis D How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost? Select one: a. 6 to 12 ounces b. 16 to 24 ounces c. 24 to 32 ounces d. 32 to 48 ounces B If a client's knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive? Select one: a. Adductor longus b. Vastus medialis oblique c. Gluteus maximus d. Piriformis A Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg squat touchdown b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance and reach d. Single-leg hop with stabilization A A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi 11 | P a g e c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Mid and lower trapezius D Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese? Select one: a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate C When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement? Select one: a. 1 to 2 seconds b. 3 to 5 seconds c. 6 to 7 seconds d. 8 to 10 seconds B During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Bicep femoris b. Piriformis c. Transverse abdominus d. Latissimus dorsi D What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Psoas major c. Gluteus maximus d. Gluteus minimus C Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what? Select one: a. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems b. Affect posture and muscle balance c. Result in lower endurance for stabilization d. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae 12 | P a g e A During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Internal oblique c. Hamstring complex d. Hip flexor complex D A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Lower trapezius c. Levator scapulae d. Sternocleidomastoid B Which method is most appropriate for Strength Endurance training? Select one: a. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks b. Using high levels of volume with minimal rest periods for about 4 weeks c. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body for about 4 weeks d. Focusing on high force and velocity for about 4 weeks A On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system? Select one: a. Pyramid system b. Superset system c. Vertical loading system d. Split-routine system D Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation? Select one: a. The Kreb's cycle b. Glycogenesis c. Gluconeogenesis d. The Cori cycle C 15 | P a g e b. Active flexibility c. Relative flexibility d. Corrective flexibility A High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following? Select one: a. Motor unit recruitment b. Rate of force production c. Metabolic rate d. Motor unit synchronization C Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises? Select one: a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground. b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air. c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air. d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground. A Which method is most appropriate for Strength Endurance training? Select one: a. Focusing on high force and velocity for about 4 weeks b. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body for about 4 weeks c. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks d. Using high levels of volume with minimal rest periods for about 4 weeks C When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body? Select one: a. The short head of the biceps femoris b. The entire inner thigh region c. The groin region inside the upper thigh d. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis C Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Seated calf raises b. Calf raises 16 | P a g e c. Leg raises d. Chest press C Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Ball crunch b. Floor prone cobra c. Rotation chest pass d. Cable rotation B Which type of influence comes from supportive leadership? Select one: a. Parental b. Exercise leader c. Exercise group d. Family B Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a trainer's skills at encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring? Select one: a. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones. b. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence. c. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise. d. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence. B Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional? Select one: a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs. b. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given time. c. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public. d. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise. C What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals? Select one: a. Companionship support b. Emotional support 17 | P a g e c. Informational support d. Instrumental support D Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward? Select one: a. Light chest press b. Floor prone cobra c. Lat pull-downs d. Reverse flys C If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided? Select one: a. Elliptical trainer b. Treadmill c. Rowing machine d. Versa climber B What cognitive-behavior approach invovles throughts influencing behavior? Select one: a. Intrinsic b. Social support c. Extrinsic d. Association and dissociation D Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Gait assessment c. Pro shuttle test d. L.E.F.T. test C Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC). Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is 20 | P a g e Explosive movements with medicine balls Name five balance-stabilization exercises. Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch Name five balance-strength exercises. Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance Name three balance-power exercises. Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises? SQUAT JUMP WITH STABILIZATION, BOX JUMP-UP WITH STABILIZATION, BOX JUMP-DOWN WITH STABILIZATION, MULTIPLANAR JUMP WITH STABILIZATION. Name four plyometric-strength exercises. Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up Name three plyometric-power exercises. Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. Plyometric training 21 | P a g e Body position progressions in balance training. TWO-LEG STABLE, SINGLE-LEG STABLE, TWO-LEG UNSTABLE, SINGLE-LEG Give examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum? SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching Give examples of total-body power exercises Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held? 30 seconds Name two different leg-stabilization exercises. Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program? Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities 22 | P a g e Name two strength level exercises for the legs. Leg Press and Barbell Squat Name two power level exercises for the legs. Squat Jump and Tuck Jump Give 3 examples of shoulder power exercises. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press Give examples of total-body strength exercises. Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization? Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Give four examples of core-strength exercises. Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations Body position progressions used for balance training. 1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable 25 | P a g e What are the benefits of a warm-up? Increased heart rate and respiratory rate, increased tissue temperature, and increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise. The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist. Altered reciprocal inhibition The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it. SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for? Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands What kinetic chain deviations must a certified personal trainer watch for in the cardiorespiratory portion of the workout for clients who possess rounded shoulders? On steppers and treadmills watch for the grasping of the handles; on stationary bikes, treadmills and elliptical trainers watch for rounding of the shoulders. Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance. Knowledge of results Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise. Knowledge of performance 26 | P a g e The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body. Mechanical specificity The state where there is an elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise. Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome. Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training. Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations? Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors What is the drawing-in Maneuver? A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine. Benefits of a cool-down include the following: Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises. 27 | P a g e Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model. Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pulldown; Straight-arm Pull-down, Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training. Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating______________. controlled instability 30 | P a g e Give eight reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training Correct muscle imbalances, increase joint range of motion, decrease excess tension of muscles, relieve joint stress, improve extensibility of musculotendinous junction, maintain normal functional length of muscles, improve neuromuscular efficiency, improve function Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body. Pattern overload What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum? Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition. Active flexibility During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome do stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain and emotional fatigue occur? Exhaustion phase The stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion Self-myofascial release The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. 0-60 seconds 31 | P a g e What are three things recent research has demonstrated regarding circuit training? It is just as beneficial as traditional cardiorespiratory training, it produced greater levels of EPOC and strength, and it produced near identical caloric expenditure when compared with walking at a fast pace. The recommended reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. 12-20 reps, 1-3 sets The recommended intensity level for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance phase of the OPT model. 50-70% The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. 0-90 seconds What is the recommended resistance training exercise selection for Phase 2 of the OPT model? Perform 1 strength exercise superset List the acute variables for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training of the OPT model. Perform 8-12 reps, 2-4 sets; 2/0/2 tempo for strength exercises, 4/2/1 tempo for stabilization exercises; 70- 80% intensity; 0-60 seconds rest The recommended number of sets for resistance training in Phase 3 32 | P a g e Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? 3-5 What repetition tempo is used for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? 2/0/2 What is the recommended exercise selection and intensity for Phase 3 of the OPT model? 2-4 strength level exercises per body part, 75-85% intensity What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model? 1-5 reps, 4-6 sets What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in the Maximal Strength phase of the OPT model? 1-3 strength exercises per body part What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model? 85-100% intensity, 3-5 minutes rest What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model? 1-5 reps for the strength exercise and 8-10 reps for the power exercise, 3-5 sets What is the recommended repetition tempo for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model? 35 | P a g e Increasing stability, increasing muscular endurance, increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature, improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension. Muscular hypertrophy Name four upper body progressions in the Progression Continuum. Two-arms, alternating-arms, singlearm, single-arm with trunk rotation The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest amount of time. Power What is the recommended rest period between pairs in Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model (in reference to resistance training). 1-2 minutes What is the recommended rest period between circuits for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model? 3-5 minutes Name benefits of suspension bodyweight training Increased muscle activation, low compressive loads to the spine, increased performance, potential increase in caloric expenditure, improvements in cardiovascular fitness Name six benefits of vibration training Improved circulation and cardiovascular function, alleviation of muscle soreness, weight reduction and 36 | P a g e increased metabolism, increased bone density, increased flexibility and range of motion, improved overall well-being Approximately, what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds? 85 to 90% What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training? Cellular adaptations Name three physiological considerations when training youth. 1. Submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement): children are less efficient and tend to exercise at a higher percentage of their peak oxygen uptake as compared to adults. 2. Glycolytic enzyme production is insufficient to sustain bouts of highintensity exercise. 3. Limited ability to sweat in response to hot, humid environments (decreased tolerance to temperature extremes). What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training? Neurologic adaptations What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 5 of the OPT model? I Increasing the speed of the movement or the load used What Phases of the OPT model should be used for improving general sports performance? Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance, Phase 2 Strength Endurance, and Phase 5 Power 37 | P a g e What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum? SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching Straight percentage equation for determining max heart rate. 220 - age Number of recommended plyometric (reactive) exercises for clients training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training. 0-2 Name the nine acute variables of training. Repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, training volume, rest interval, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection The type of specificity that refers to the energy demand placed on the body Metabolic specificity The type of specificity that refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection Neuromuscular specificity What are some benefits of kettlebell training? Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance; increased mental focus and physical stamina; increased oxygen uptake; increased total-body conditioning; recruitment of the posterior chain; increased core stability and muscular endurance; increased strength and power; improved grip 40 | P a g e Name sample core exercises to use with a client that has hypertension. Standing Torso Cable Iso-rotation and Standing Cobra What are three things that clients should have established prior to incorporating dynamic stretching into their exercise program? Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities Heart rate zones used in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training. Zone 1: 65-75%, Zone 2: 76-85%, Zone 3: 86-95% What are two methods of progression in the Maximal Strength Training level of the OPT model? Increase volume and load What are two methods of progression in the Power level of the OPT model? Increase speed and load What exercise positions should be avoided after 12 weeks of pregnancy? Supine and prone position exercises What two flexibility techniques are recommended as a proper warm-up before athletic activity? SMR (self-myofascial release) and dynamic stretching What are three regressions for performing a Prone Iso-abs exercise? Perform in standard push-up position, perform in push-up position with knees on floor, perform with hands on bench and feet on floor 41 | P a g e What are two progressions for a Ball Dumbbell Row? Alternating-arm and single-arm Give one regression for a Ball Dumbbell Row. Kneeling over ball Name two progressions for Step-up to Balance. Step-in frontal plane and step-in transverse plane Give three progressions for Ball Squat, Curl to Press exercise. Alternating-arm, one-arm, single-leg What is the correct tempo for plyometric-stabilization exercises Hold landing for 3-5 seconds What is the recommended tempo for core exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model? Medium What is the recommended tempo for plyometric exercises in Phase 2 of the OPT model? Repeating What is the recommended tempo for resistance training exercises in Phase 4 of the OPT model? X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled) Physiological and functional changes associated with aging include reductions in the following: Maximum attainable heart rate, cardiac output, muscle mass, balance, coordination, connective tissue elasticity, and bone mineral density 42 | P a g e Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein Diabetes What are four special considerations for training clients with diabetes? Make sure client has appropriate footwear, have client keep a snack with them, use SMR with care and under supervision of a physician, avoid excessive plyometric training and higher intensity training What blood pressure reading defines hypertension? Greater than or equal to 140/90 Condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones, resulting in porosity and fragility. Osteoporosis What is the correct repetition tempo for core-power exercises? X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled) What are the recommended repetitions for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model? 1-5 reps strength and 8-10 reps power What is the intensity level for power exercises performed in Phase 5 of the OPT model? 30-45% of 1RM or up to 10% of body weight What are some special considerations for a client with osteoporosis? 45 | P a g e What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease? 35.0-39.99 What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion Gastrocnemius and soleus Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation. Gluteus maximus What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background Subjective information During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out?" Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head) During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward? Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean? Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure Beta-blockers 46 | P a g e What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation? Wearing dress shoes (high heels) Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment. Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches? Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward? Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate and/or the head moves forward? Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out? Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's arms fall forward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff 47 | P a g e What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's knees move inward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean? Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches? Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate? Middle/ lower trapezius During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward? Deep cervical flexors After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch? Overactive muscles After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen? Underactive muscles Name the assessment that measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control. Shark Skill Test 50 | P a g e The heart rate training zone between 65 to 75% that builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery. Zone 1 The heart rate training zone between 76 to 85% that increases both aerobic and anaerobic endurance. Zone 2 The heart rate training zone between 86 to 95% that builds high-end work capacity. Zone 3 Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts. Systolic blood pressure Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood. Diastolic blood pressure The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat. Bioelectrical impedance What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment? Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease? A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females Muscles that assist the prime movers. Synergists 51 | P a g e Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is____. 25 or greater Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues. Mechanoreceptors What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test? Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment? Height of a chair Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change. Golgi tendon organs Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change Muscle Spindles On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat? Very overweight clients The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length. Length-tension relationship What is the functional unit of the nervous system? Neuron 52 | P a g e The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover. Synergistic dominance The process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles Autogenic inhibition Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view. Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view. Feet turn out and knees move inward Name some of the benefits of circumference measurements. Can be used on obese clients, good for comparisons and progressions, good for assessing fat patterns and distribution, inexpensive, easy to record Name the systems of the human movement system (kinetic chain). Nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise. Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory 55 | P a g e Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension Which muscles would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome? Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, and infraspinatus What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion syndrome? Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique Average stroke volume of an adult 70 mL Name two abdominal muscles used for trunk rotation. Internal and external obliques Name five performance assessment tests. Davies Test, Shark Skill Test, Push-up Test, Upper Extremity Strength Assessment, Lower Extremity Strength Assessment What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment? Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended 56 | P a g e What regressions could you make for clients who are unable to perform a Single-leg Squat assessment? Use outside support for squatting assistance or perform a Single-leg Balance without squat A force that produces rotation Torque Movement of the bones around the joints. Rotary motion Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome. Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view. Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process. Cumulative injury cycle Name four core-strength exercises. 57 | P a g e Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia. Self-myofascial release Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics. They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury? Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue Name four core-stabilization exercises. Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Davis's law Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum. Bracing It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order 1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbopelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency 60 | P a g e Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, twolegs unstable, single-leg Give examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum? SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching Give examples of total-body power exercises Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held? 30 seconds Name two different leg-stabilization exercises. Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program? Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities Name two strength level exercises for the legs. 61 | P a g e Leg Press and Barbell Squat Name two power level exercises for the legs. Squat Jump and Tuck Jump Give three examples of shoulderpower exercises. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press Give examples of total-body strength exercises. Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization? Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Give four examples of corestabilization exercises. Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Give four examples of core-strength exercises. Ball Crunches, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunches, Cable Rotations Body position progressions used for balance training. 1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable Three types of core systems. 62 | P a g e Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing selfmyofascial release? 30 seconds What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity? Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements. Proprioception What are the acute variables for static stretching? 1-2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching? Reciprocal inhibition When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching? After self-myofascial release when training in Phase 5 How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last? 5-10 minutes What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for? 65 | P a g e Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise. Knowledge of performance The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body. Mechanical specificity The state where there is an elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise. Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training. Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations? Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors What is the drawing-in Maneuver? A maneuver that is used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine. Benefits of a cool-down include the following: Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in 66 | P a g e lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises. Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press Give examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model. Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pulldown; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training. Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press 67 | P a g e The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating______________. controlled instability Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include. Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. Plyometric training Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production. Integrated performance paradigm The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load. Strength What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises? Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position 70 | P a g e What are the four Ps of marketing? Product, price, place, promotion How many calories are in a gram of fat? 9 Making a good first impression includes the following: Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body language Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence. Self-management, goal setting, selfmonitoring, positive self-talk, psyching up, imagery Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat. Nonessential amino acids Name the five stages of change 1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals? Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. Instrumental support 71 | P a g e Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern. Emotional support Type of questions that can be answered with one word. Directive questions Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients. Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise Informational support This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise. Companionship support What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer? 2.0 The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals? 1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to 72 | P a g e accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment? The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. Estimated Average Requirement The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined. Adequate Intake The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases. Tolerable Upper Intake Level What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer? Fiber What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions? Carbohydrates Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods. Carbohydrates 75 | P a g e What are the risks of following an overly restrictive (very low calorie) diet? Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE). Resting metabolic rate (RMR) What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6-10% of total energy expenditure (TEE). Thermic effect of food (TEF) Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service. Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat. Excess protein intake A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios. Complete protein A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids. Incomplete protein 76 | P a g e What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount? Limiting factor What are the 10 nonessential amino acids? Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine What are the two semi-essential amino acids? Arginine and histidine What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet? More than 35% Name three monosaccharides. Glucose, fructose, and galactose Name three disaccharides. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water? 60% What are five things the body needs fats for? Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume? 20 to 25% of total caloric intake Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration. Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin 77 | P a g e Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration. Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration. Water and sodium The fluid loss of even _____ percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels. 2 In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake? At least one week What is the duration of the post-workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion? 90 minutes Name seven typical disordered eating patterns. Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements. Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes. 80 | P a g e Consume 4 to 6 meals per day, spread protein intake throughout day, take advantage of the post-workout window of opportunity to have protein and carbohydrates, don't neglect the importance of carbohydrate and fat intake What are nine nutritional guidelines for weight loss? Spread protein, carbohydrate, and fat consumption throughout the day; choose whole grains and vegetables over refined grains and simple sugars; eat 4 to 6 meals per day; avoid empty calories; drink plenty of water; weigh and measure foods for one week to get a better understanding of caloric intake; make small decreases in calories and increase activity; consume less that 10% of calories from saturated fat; limit alcohol consumption Name four precautionary statements on dietary supplements. Investigate the use of multivitamins for your specific needs, specific compounds can allow the body to function at full capacity, individual results may vary, general population should not use supplements for medicinal purposes Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV. Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories. Kilocalorie or Calorie with a capital C Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum total of what three energy components? Resting metabolic rate (RMR), Thermic effect of food (TEF), and Energy expended during physical activity Give factors that affect protein requirements 81 | P a g e An individual's daily exercise and physical activity levels, daily caloric consumption, body-composition goals, sports-performance goals How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise? 6-12 ounces What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain? 4-6 People in this stage of change do exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month. Preparation Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer Nondirective or open-ended The primary purpose of a business. To create and keep a loyal customer base or following The premise on which all buying decisions are based Emotion Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression? 20 seconds What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication? 1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means What are some common barriers to exercising? 82 | P a g e Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising. Lack of time The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances Nutrition What are the four Ps of marketing? Product, price, place, promotion How many calories are in a gram of fat? 9 Making a good first impression includes the following: Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body language Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence. SELF MANAGEMENT, GOAL SETTING, SELF-MONITORING, POSITIVE SELF-TALK, PSYCHING UP, IMAGERY` Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat. Nonessential amino acids Name the five stages of change. 1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals? 85 | P a g e individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases. Tolerable Upper Intake Level What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer? Fiber What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions? Carbohydrates Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods. Carbohydrates The daily recommended intake of fiber. 38 g for men; 25 g for women What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes? 1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb) The number of amino acids the body uses. 20 Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer. Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids 86 | P a g e Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins A, D, E, and K. Fats What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male? 3 liters What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake? 20-35% Name the eight essential amino acids. Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine Name the process in which amino acids are used in energy production. It occurs when the body is in a negative energy balance. Gluconeogenesis A substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake. Dietary supplement The process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation Exercise imagery What are four psychological benefits of exercise? Promotes positive mood, reduces stress, improves sleep, reduces depression and anxiety How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat? 87 | P a g e 3500 What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves. A, D, B6 Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates. Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%. Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%. Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content. RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet What are the risks of following an overly restrictive (very low calorie) diet? Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically 90 | P a g e Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration. Water and sodium The fluid loss of even _____ percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels. 2 In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake? At least one week Name seven typical disordered eating patterns. Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements. Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes. Dietary reference intake 91 | P a g e What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D? Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium? Kidney stones What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron? Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation How often does a NASM CPT need to renew their credentials? Every 2 years What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal? 20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs What is the traditional reason for use of a dietary supplement? To provide the body with nutrients that might not be adequately supplied by a diet Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE? 20% The professional who is legally qualified to practice in the field of nutrition. Registered Dietician (RD) Four scenarios where supplemental protein may be helpful. 92 | P a g e Quick amino acid consumption before or after weight training; to replace whole-food protein for weight loss; when whole food is not available; for bodybuilders, wrestlers, or weight conscious athletes preparing for competition How many calories are in one gram of a carbohydrate? 4 calories Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates. 45-65% What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery? 1.5 g/kg What is the ultimate nutritional limiting factor for exercise performance? Carbohydrate availability Give four reasons why the body needs carbohydrates. They are the preferred form of energy, they constantly need to be replaced, parts of the central nervous system relies exclusively on carbohydrates, they efficiently burn and use fat and protein Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body. Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation 95 | P a g e To create and keep a loyal customer base or following The premise on which all buying decisions are based. Emotion Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression? 20 seconds What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication? 1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means What are some common barriers to exercising? Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising. Lack of time. The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances. Nutrition. When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate? Upon waking in the morning Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency. YMCA 3-Minute Step Test and Rockport Walk Test What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage? 96 | P a g e Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin-fold measurements What do you call measurable data regarding a client's physical state, such as body composition, movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory ability? Objective information What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease? 35.0-39.99 What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion Gastrocnemius and soleus Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation. Gluteus maximus What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background Subjective information During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out?" Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head) During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward? Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis 97 | P a g e During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean? Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure Beta-blockers What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation? Wearing dress shoes (high heels) Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment. Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches? Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward? Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when