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Exercise Science and Personal Training Assessments and Techniques, Exams of Health sciences

A series of multiple-choice questions related to exercise science and personal training assessments and techniques. The questions cover various topics such as anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, and assessment procedures. The document can be useful for students studying exercise science, kinesiology, or physical therapy, as well as for personal trainers and other fitness professionals.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 03/22/2024

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Download Exercise Science and Personal Training Assessments and Techniques and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! NASM Final Exam CPT Exam Prep Questions with Verified Answers. How many calories are in one gram of protein? a. 2 b. 4 c. 9 d. 7 - ANS 4 Adduction is a movement back toward the midline of the body in which of the following planes? a. Median plane b. Frontal plane c. Transverse plane d. Sagittal plane - ANS Frontal plane What is neuromuscular efficiency? a. The cumulative input to the peripheral nervous system from internal organs b. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion c. A muscle's ability to contract for an extended period of time d. Ability of the body's stabilizing muscles to provide force for movement - ANS Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion What term refers to a bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases? Select one: a. Eversion b. Flexion c. Evulsion D. Abduction - ANS Flexion Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood? a. Medial b. Systolic c. Distal d. Diastolic - ANS Diastolic In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur? Page 1 of 22 A. Anterior-posterior b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse - ANS Sagittal Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction? a. Radial pulse b. Stroke volume c. Heart rate d. Cardiac output - ANS Stroke volume How does metabolism behave during EPOC? a. Increases b. Fluctuates c. Remains elevated d. Remains unaffected - ANS Remains elevated What is occurring when a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury? a. Resistance development b. Exhaustion c. Alarm reaction d. Overworking - ANS Exhaustion What links together to form protein? a. Amino acids b. Nucleotides c. Fatty acids d. Glycerol’s - ANS Amino acids Which term refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements? a. Amortization b. Homeostasis c. Periodization D. Proprioception - ANS Proprioception For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function? Page 2 of 22 a. Single-leg squat assessment b. Upper extremity strength assessment c. Lower extremity strength assessment d. Overhead squat assessment - ANS Upper extremity strength assessment Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations? a. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view b. Overheard squat assessment, anterior view c. Shark skill test, anterior view d. Pushing assessment, lateral view - ANS Pushing assessment, lateral view The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following? a. An overactive abductor complex and anterior tibias b. An overactive pectorals major and trees major c. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius d. An overactive transverse abdominals and gluteus Maximus - ANS An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive? a. Elevator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsa c. Mid and lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius - ANS Mid and lower trapezius Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client? a. Divide the client's resting heart rate by 220. b. Subtract the client's age from 220 c. Add the client's resting heart rate from 220. d. Divide 220 by the client's age. - ANS Subtract the client's age from 220. Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following? a. The top number in the blood pressure reading b. The larger of the two numbers c. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood - ANS Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood Page 5 of 22 Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following? a. Coronary heart disease b. Peripheral edema condition c. Restrictive lung disease d. Metabolic syndrome - ANS Metabolic syndrome Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension? A. Use Valhalla maneuvers b. Implement a drop-set loading system c. Modify training to include heavy workloads d. Avoid prone positions - ANS Avoid prone positions Which of the following is a site for testing in the Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test? a. Waist b. Neck c. Calf d. Iliac crest - ANS Iliac crest In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened? a. Rhomboids b. Scalene c. Deep cervical flexors d. Trees minor - ANS Scalene During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight? a. Hamstrings b. Quadriceps c. Abdominals D. Gluteal - ANS Quadriceps In which muscles is over activity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels? A. Popliteal, graceless, and patellar tendon b. Extensor digit rum longs, peroneus tortious, and posterior tibia tendon c. Anterior tibias, extensor halluces longs, and personal brave’s tendon Page 6 of 22 d. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon - ANS Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control? a. Davies test b. Single-leg squat c. Shark skill test d. Single-leg star test - ANS Shark skill test When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of over activity in the lateral gastrocnemius? a. External rotation of the feet b. Low back arches c. Knees move inward d. Arms fall forward - ANS External rotation of the feet When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive? a. Supraspinatus b. Trees minor c. Trees major d. Rhomboids - ANS Trees major What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test? a. Weight b. Heart rate c. Height d. Body fat - ANS Weight Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? a. Pronation distortion syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Lower extremity movement syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome - ANS Pronation distortion syndrome Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client? A. McGill Pain Questionnaire Page 7 of 22 a. 20 b. 15 c. 5 d. 10 - ANS 5 Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 4 D. Phase 2 - ANS Phase 5 The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client's awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating which of the following? a. Autogenic inhibition b. Controlled instability c. Synergistic dominance d. Functional flexibility - ANS Controlled instability Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I? a. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes. b. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes. c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes. d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes. - ANS Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes. A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg caption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems? a. Vertical loading b. Pyramid c. Peripheral heart action D. Split-routine - ANS Vertical loading Which of the following describes a monocycle? a. Annual training plan b. Daily training plan c. Monthly training plan d. Weekly training plan - ANS Monthly training plan Page 10 of 22 A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, and seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent? a. Pyramid b. Peripheral heart action c. Vertical loading D. Drop-set - ANS Vertical loading For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed? a. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients b. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels C. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base d. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities - ANS to help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training? a. 4 b. 9 c. 8 d. 10 - ANS 4 Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis? a. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling. b. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. c. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups. d. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities. - ANS Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress? a. Autogenic inhibition b. Synergistic response c. General adaptation syndrome d. Homeostasis - ANS General Adaptation syndrome Page 11 of 22 Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model? a. Single-leg balance reach b. Barbell squat c. Seated stability ball military press d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift - ANS Barbell squat Which of the following refers to a program design approach that uses various phases of the OPT model throughout the week? a. Tabulation Incorrect b. Undulating periodization c. Linear periodization d. Linear summation - ANS Which of the following are core-stabilization exercises designed to improve? a. Anaerobic capacity of movement system muscles b. Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability c. Rate of force production of the core musculature d. Maximal strength of the rectus abdominals and external oblique’s - ANS Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training? a. Reducing heart rate through interval training b. Reducing the speed, incline, or level c. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise d. Increasing capacity needed for Power-Level exercise - ANS Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal? A. 2 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 7 minutes - ANS 30 seconds Which of the following is a flat-bottomed cast iron ball with a handle? a. Barbell b. Kettle bell c. Sand bell d. Dumbbell - ANS Kettle bell Page 12 of 22 a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Wolff's law c. Autogenic inhibition d. Davis's law - ANS Reciprocal inhibition Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles? a. Graceless b. Tensor fascia late c. Pectin us D. Psoas - ANS Psoas A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? a. Stabilization B. Corrective c. Power D. Strength - ANS Strength What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise? a. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press b. Squat, curl to press exercise c. One-arm ball squat, curl to press d. Step-up to curl to press - ANS Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press Which of the following is a strategy used in Maximal Strength training? a. High repetitions b. Low volume c. Longer rest periods d. Low loads - ANS Longer rest periods If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided? a. Versa climber b. Rowing machine c. Elliptical trainer D. Treadmill - ANS Treadmill What is a multilane step-up to balance an example of? Page 15 of 22 a. Balance-stabilization exercise Incorrect b. Balance-modification exercise c. Leg-stabilization exercise d. Balance-power exercise - ANS A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first? a. Dynamic stretching b. Static stretching c. Active-isolated stretching d. Self-myofascial release - ANS Self-myofascial release What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? A. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench d. Barbell bench press - ANS Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge? a. The feet should be hip-width apart and turned out b. The feet should be wider than hip-width apart and straight ahead c. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead d. The feet should be together and pointed straight ahead - ANS the feet should be hip- width apart and straight ahead Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine? a. Spot at the client's axilla. b. Never spot underneath the weight stack. c. Spot at the client's elbows. d. Spot at the client's hands. - ANS Never spot underneath the weight stack. If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided? a. Foam roll calves b. Machine chest press c. Incline prone is-abs d. Seated ball adductor stretch - ANS Foam roll calves Page 16 of 22 Which of the following cues is appropriate to give a client who will be performing a floor bridge exercise? a. "Squeeze your gluts." b. "Lay prone on the floor and retract your shoulder blades." c. "Raise hips up as high as possible to activate erector spine." d. "Press your lower back onto the floor." - ANS “Squeeze your gluts." What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press? a. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press B. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press - ANS Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning? a. Self-analysis b. Reflection c. Self-review d. Self-monitoring - ANS Self-monitoring What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence? a. Modeling b. Performance accomplishments c. Verbal persuasion d. Imagery - ANS Performance accomplishments What should a fitness professional avoid while communicating with a client? a. Giving feedback immediately upon noting errors b. Reflecting the meaning of what was just heard c. Using negative communication d. Asking open-ended questions - ANS Using negative communication A personal trainer is working with a client who reports not having enough time to exercise. Which of the following is the most effective technique to help the client prioritize his time, improving exercise adherence? a. Have the client create a list of positive thoughts, such as, "I can do it." b. Have the client keep a daily exercise log for six months. c. Have the client keep a journal that keeps track of daily activities for three days. Page 17 of 22 A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model? a. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise. b. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good. c. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin. d. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. - ANS Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. Which of the following certifications is a Certified Personal Trainer (CPT) required to have in order to respond to emergency situations? a. Certified paramedic certification b. A certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) C. the Certified Professional in Healthcare Quality (CPHQ) certification D. the Athletic Director certification - ANS A certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) What is the concept that integrates practice and experience for a relatively permanent change in motor control processes? a. Motor learning b. Sensorimotor integration c. Feedback learning d. Motor remodeling - ANS Motor learning Which of the following is an appropriate behavior for a health and fitness professional? a. Prescribe different diets for different clients. b. Diagnose medical or health conditions of clients. c. Provide treatment for clients' health conditions. D. Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed. - ANS Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed. Which of the four P's of the marketing mix involves communication strategies such as advertising, sales, and social media? a. Planning b. Placement c. Promotion D. Price - ANS Promotion Page 20 of 22 A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of? A. Instrumental b. Informational c. Emotional d. Companionship - ANS Informational Sandra does not obtain 2.0 CEUs during her 2-year recertification cycle. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence in this case? a. She is likely to lose her fitness professional certification. b. She is likely to be shunned by the fitness industry. c. She is likely to become physically unfit to be a personal trainer. d. She is likely to enroll for specialized training in physical therapy. - ANS She is likely to lose her fitness professional certification. Which of the following exemplifies professional service and client care according to the Code of Professional Conduct? a. Providing rehabilitation services to a client after a knee surgery Incorrect b. Instructing a client to take weight-loss nutritional supplements c. Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist d. Designing meal plans for a client who has diabetes - ANS What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals? a. They have a schedule set by a gym. b. They may be able to control their own schedule. c. They are exempt from purchasing liability insurance. d. They receive employment benefits. - ANS They may be able to control their own schedule. A 70-year-old client goes to see a personal trainer after a recent heart attack. The trainer has not received written clearance from the client's doctor prior to the first training session but has completed sessions with a different trainer. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take? a. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. b. Obtain permission from the personal training manager to continue training. c. Monitor the client's blood pressure before every workout session. d. Have the client sign an additional liability waiver. - ANS Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. Which of the following is true of an independent contractor? Page 21 of 22 a. An independent contractor receives benefits such as health insurance, bank loans, and other retirement packages. b. An independent contractor can be either a business or a corporation that provides goods or services without terms and conditions. c. An independent contractor works regularly for an employer. d. An independent contractor is one who works as, and when, required - ANS An independent contractor is one who works as, and when, required. For how long should a certified personal trainer maintain accurate contract and appointment records? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 4 years D. 3 years - ANS 4 years Which of the following is true of personal trainers? a. Certified personal trainers ideally diagnose areas of pain or disease. b. Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification. c. They do not refer clients to other health care professionals or practitioners. d. Certified personal trainers are qualified to apply or wrap ice or heat packs for clients. - ANS Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification. Page 22 of 22
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