Core Stabilization and Exercise Techniques, Exams of Health sciences

Download Core Stabilization and Exercise Techniques and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! NASM Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024 Latest Update Which of the following is true of reciprocal inhibition? a. It is a naturally occurring phenomenon that allows movement to take place. b. It is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist. c. It alters force-couple relationships and produces synergistic dominance. d. It leads to the development of faulty movement patterns and arthrokinetic dysfunction. - ✓✓✓a. It is a naturally occurring phenomenon that allows movement to take place. *check answer. not (b) In which of the following cases should a fitness professional correct a client who performs the machine chest press? a. When the client moves his or her head forward b. When the client performs it while seated c. When the client draws in the belly button d. When the client extends his or her arms and elbows - ✓✓✓a. When the client moves his or her head forward The drawing-in maneuver is a maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the _____ in toward the spine. 1 a. shoulder b. chest c. navel d. pelvis - ✓✓✓c. navel Identify an example of a core-stabilization exercise. a. Rotation chest pass b. Cable rotation c. Ball crunch d. Floor prone cobra - ✓✓✓d. Floor prone cobra What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press b. Barbell bench press c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press - ✓✓✓d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press *check for answer. Not (a) Identify an example of an eccentric motion. a. Jumping upward b. Landing from a jump 2 c. Unlike problem-focused coping, emotion-focused coping deals with the relationship between the body and the mind. d. Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping diverts from negative feelings associated with stress. - ✓✓✓a. Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping is used when the problem is responsive to change. *check answer. Not (c) When performing a _____, the cable should be positioned to offer resistance in a vertical motion against elbow flexion. a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press - ✓✓✓b. biceps curl In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened? a. Gastrocnemius b. Soleus c. Internal oblique d. Erector spinae - ✓✓✓c. Internal oblique 5 According to the stages of change model, _____ corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months. a. contemplation b. maintenance c. preparation d. action - ✓✓✓b. maintenance *not (d) ____ is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set. a. Circuit training b. Vertical loading c. Split routine d. Pyramid system - ✓✓✓d. Pyramid system An individual has a gym membership and visits sporadically, but not frequently enough to maintain a well-rounded exercise program. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this client? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance - ✓✓✓a. Contemplation 6 b. Preparation Correct c. Action d. Maintenance Corrective stretching is usually a combination of self-myofascial release and _____. a. static stretching b. active-isolated stretching c. dynamic stretching d. intensive stretching - ✓✓✓a. static stretching Which of the following is one of the steps involved in the multiplanar hop with stabilization exercise? a. Hop forward, landing on the opposite foot, and stabilize and hold for 3 to 5 seconds. b. Hop holding the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the legs. c. Hop off a box and land on the ground on both the legs, while keeping toes pointing straight ahead. d. Hop up to land on top of a box or a platform and stabilize for 6 seconds. - ✓✓✓a. Hop forward, landing on the opposite foot, and stabilize and hold for 3 to 5 seconds. Which of the following statements is true of foam rolling? Select one: 7 b. Bronchi c. Blood d. Lungs - ✓✓✓c. Blood The exercises used in Phases 2 to 4 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model are termed _____. Select one: a. power level exercises b. strength level exercises c. endurance exercises d. stabilization exercises - ✓✓✓b. strength level exercises Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body? Select one: a. Push-up assessment b. Pushing assessment c. Pulling assessment d. Bench press assessment - ✓✓✓a. Push-up assessment The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations? Select one: a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest b. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh c. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique 10 d. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring - ✓✓✓a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest ____ is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds. Select one: a. Active-isolated stretching b. Inverted hurdler's stretch c. Static stretching d. Arching quadriceps - ✓✓✓c. Static stretching Identify the generally accepted measure of cardiorespiratory fitness. Select one: a. Stroke volume b. Maximal oxygen consumption c. Maximal lung capacity d. End-diastolic volume - ✓✓✓b. Maximal oxygen consumption Identify a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise. Select one: a. Make sure to keep the abdominals drawn-in throughout the entire movement. b. Do not swing the legs when performing the exercise. c. Make sure to keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise. d. Do not keep the pelvis in a neutral position. - ✓✓✓b. Do not swing the legs when performing the exercise. 11 Which of the following types of exercises should a personal trainer recommend to clients who are in phase 3 or 4 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Balance-power exercise b. Balance-strength exercise c. Balance-stabilization exercise d. Balance-modification exercise - ✓✓✓b. Balance-strength exercise Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise? Select one: a. Ball crunch b. Back extensions c. Two-leg floor bridge d. Rotation chest pass - ✓✓✓c. Two-leg floor bridge The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following? Select one: a. VO2 reserve b. Estimated oxygen consumption c. Metabolic equivalent (MET) d. Estimated heart rate reserve (HRR) - ✓✓✓b. Estimated oxygen consumption An individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29 will be considered _____. Select one: a. underweight 12 d. Reactive training - ✓✓✓d. Reactive training Stabilization endurance training in the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focuses on: Select one: a. decreasing the rate of force production. b. decreasing the frequency of motor unit recruitment. c. increasing the load-bearing capacity of muscles. d. increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature. - ✓✓✓d. increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature. In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional? Select one: a. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension c. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy d. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension - ✓✓✓d. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension Which of the following describes the acronym SMART Select one: a. Specific, meaningful, attainable, realistic, time-oriented b. Specific, measurable, accountable, realistic, time-oriented c. Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, time-oriented d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time-oriented - ✓✓✓d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time-oriented 15 Which of the following is the most mobile of the joints in the body and includes the shoulder and hip? Select one: a. Hinge joint b. Saddle joint c. Ball-and-socket joint d. Nonsynovial joint - ✓✓✓c. Ball-and-socket joint Recertification requires that the professional get 2.0 CEUs every__________. Select one: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years - ✓✓✓b. 2 years Which of the following is a characteristic of the termination stage? Select one: a. Lack of temptation to return to old habits b. Partial regression to maintenance stage c. Severe modifications in lifestyle d. Awareness of the advantages of behavioral change - ✓✓✓a. Lack of temptation to return to old habits Which of the following statements is true of active-isolated stretching? Select one: 16 a. It reduces trigger points. b. It combines low force with longer duration. c. It enhances flexibility with optimal neuromuscular control. d. It should be avoided in those who have rheumatoid arthritis. - ✓✓✓a. It reduces trigger points. *Not (c) Identify the relationship between sets, repetitions, and intensity in the context of training programs. Select one: a. An individual performs more sets when performing lower repetitions at a lower intensity. b. An individual performs fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a lower intensity. c. An individual performs more sets when performing higher repetitions at a higher intensity. d. An individual performs fewer sets when performing lower repetitions at a higher intensity. - ✓✓✓b. An individual performs fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a lower intensity. When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing? Select one: a. Feet and knees b. Limbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees c. Limbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex 17 a. low loads b. supersets c. minimal rest periods d. long rest periods - ✓✓✓b. supersets *Not (d) While performing self-myofascial release on the thoracic spine, the foam should be rolled on the: Select one: a. neck. b. lower back. c. upper back. d. chest. - ✓✓✓c. upper back. While performing the two-leg floor bridge exercise, it is important to make sure that the _____ muscles are fully contracted. Select one: a. forearm b. femur c. gluteal d. hamstring - ✓✓✓c. gluteal A female client's waist measures 32 inches, and her hips measure 40 inches. In this scenario, her waist-to-hip ratio can be calculated as: Select one: a. 0.20. b. 0.40. 20 c. 0.60. d. 0.80. - ✓✓✓d. 0.80. When an individual performs power exercises, it is important to make sure that he or she: Select one: a. has good balance, body control, and spatial awareness. b. lands on the heel. c. lands on the ball of the foot. d. lands behind the toes. - ✓✓✓a. has good balance, body control, and spatial awareness. Mark is a fitness coach who is training Steve, his client, to lose weight. After a few weeks of training, Mark begins to notice that Steve seems unmotivated and is perpetually in an anxious mood even after repeated attempts by Mark to verbally motivate him. Steve begins to binge eat and is not able to adhere to his exercise regimen. As a result, he begins to gain weight. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario? Select one: a. Enroll Steve in a group-oriented program b. Refer Steve to a licensed psychologist c. Use positive reinforcement on Steve d. Use negative reinforcement on Steve - ✓✓✓b. Refer Steve to a licensed psychologist Exercises are performed as fast and as explosively as possible in _____. Select one: 21 a. reactive-stabilization training b. reactive-power training c. reactive- acceleration training d. reactive-modification training - ✓✓✓b. reactive-power training A turn-key product is one that ________ Select one: a. Requires keys to open b. Ready for immediate use c. Needs work to open d. Requires extensive training - ✓✓✓b. Ready for immediate use Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? Select one: a. Pronation distortion b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Lower extremity movement syndrome - ✓✓✓a. Pronation distortion What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase? Select one: a. Volume b. Load c. Speed d. Proprioception - ✓✓✓d. Proprioception 22 c. standing cable row d. standing cable chest press - ✓✓✓d. standing cable chest press *Not (c) In the context of behavior modification approaches, which of the following is a written statement that outlines the responsibilities of participants, their expected behaviors, and contingencies for changes in their behaviors? Select one: a. A contract b. A prompt c. A record d. A journal - ✓✓✓a. A contract Which of the following is a possible injury of lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Plantar fasciitis b. Hamstring complex strain c. Patellar tendonitis d. Posterior knee pain - ✓✓✓b. Hamstring complex strain The preparatory step for a Sagittal plane step-up, balance, curl to one-arm overhead press exercise involves: Select one: a. standing on a box or a platform with feet shoulders-width apart and pointed straight ahead. b. standing on a box or a platform with feet in a staggered stance and pointed sideways. 25 c. holding a dumbbell in one hand at the side of the body. d. standing in front of a box or a platform with feet in a staggered stance, pointed straight ahead, with one foot on top of the box. - ✓✓✓d. standing in front of a box or a platform with feet in a staggered stance, pointed straight ahead, with one foot on top of the box. *Not (a) The local core stabilizers are muscles that attach directly to the _____. Select one: a. foot b. neck c. vertebrae d. forearm - ✓✓✓c. vertebrae A progression for the _____ exercise may be to perform the exercise standing. Select one: a. kneeling medicine ball chest pass b. cable rotation c. ball crunch d. back extension - ✓✓✓a. kneeling medicine ball chest pass Facilities that are high-end and focus on a niche market segment are ________ facilities. Select one: a. Large facility b. Boutique 26 c. Medium sized d. Small Group - ✓✓✓b. Boutique _____ is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through reciprocal inhibition. Select one: a. Active stretching b. Static stretching c. Elastic stretching d. Ballistic stretching - ✓✓✓b. Static stretching In the context of training programs, repetition tempo refers to: Select one: a. the number of training sessions that are repeated during a given period. b. the time taken to recuperate between sets or repetitions. c. the repeated timeframe from the start of a workout to the finish of a workout. d. the speed with which each repetition is performed. - ✓✓✓d. the speed with which each repetition is performed. The first exercise during Strength Endurance Training involves a traditional strength exercise such as a bench press that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit _____. Select one: a. antagonist muscle strength b. fixator strength c. prime mover strength 27 c. epithelial tissue d. a muscle knot - ✓✓✓b. a muscle spindle Which of the following will most likely be part of an ideal circuit training routine for a client in Phase 5: Power? Select one: a. Warm-up exercise for a minimum period of 20 minutes b. Stage III cardiorespiratory training for period of 5 to 10 minutes c. Active-isolated stretching for 5 to 10 minutes d. Circuit weight training for a maximum period of 5 minutes - ✓✓✓b. Stage III cardiorespiratory training for period of 5 to 10 minutes Which of the following is a myth associated with the cable push down exercise? Select one: a. Different aspects of the triceps are engaged by changing hand positions. b. It has no benefit to clients who do not participate in sports. c. This exercise causes spinal problems. d. This method will produce movement dysfunction. - ✓✓✓a. Different aspects of the triceps are engaged by changing hand positions. *Not (b) Individuals who have shown a certain level of interest in personal training services are ________. Select one: a. Targets b. Acquisitions 30 c. Leads d. Clients - ✓✓✓c. Leads The muscles of the movement system are primarily responsible for: Select one: a. stability between the pelvis and spine. b. transferring loads between the upper extremity and the lower extremity. c. eccentric control of the core during functional movements. d. concentric force production and eccentric deceleration during dynamic activities. - ✓✓✓b. transferring loads between the upper extremity and the lower extremity. Check answer. *Not (d) The synergistic action of muscle groups to produce movement around a joint is known as a _____. Select one: a. moment of force b. subacromial impingement c. length-tension relationship d. force-couple - ✓✓✓d. force-couple Ancillary revenue can be gained through ____________. Select one: a. Personal training services b. Nutritional services c. Membership sales d. Merchandise sales - ✓✓✓d. Merchandise sales 31 Which of the following defines SMART? Select one: a. Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Relevant, Time Bound b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely c. Specific, Meaningful, Accountable, Realistic, Time Bound d. Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Relevant, Timely - ✓✓✓b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely A health and fitness professional should: Select one: a. diagnoses medical or health conditions of clients. b. be willing to refer clients to a more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed. c. provide treatment for clients' health conditions. d. prescribes different diets for different clients. - ✓✓✓b. be willing to refer clients to a more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed. Which of the following is a multipoint exercise that involves the use of two or three joints? Select one: a. Biceps curls b. Triceps pushdowns c. Calf raises d. Lunges - ✓✓✓d. Lunges 32