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NASM-PES EXAM #2 2024 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS, Exams of Nursing

Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status? Select one: a. Athletes who eat a diet rich in whole foods b. Athletes who take a vitamin D supplement c. Caucasian athletes with frequent sun exposure d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure - ANSWER ☑☑d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Core-strength exercises b. Core-power exercises c. Core-stabilization exercises d. Core-functional exercises - ANSWER ☑☑a. Core-strength exercises Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and volleyball? Select one: a. A-skips b. Cycling B-skips c. Marches d. Push-up sprint - ANSWER ☑☑d. Push-up sprint How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set?

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2023/2024

Available from 06/22/2024

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Download NASM-PES EXAM #2 2024 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NASM-PES EXAM #2 2024 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status? Select one: a. Athletes who eat a diet rich in whole foods b. Athletes who take a vitamin D supplement c. Caucasian athletes with frequent sun exposure d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure - ANSWER ☑☑d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Core-strength exercises b. Core-power exercises c. Core-stabilization exercises d. Core-functional exercises - ANSWER ☑☑a. Core-strength exercises Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and volleyball? Select one: a. A-skips b. Cycling B-skips c. Marches d. Push-up sprint - ANSWER ☑☑d. Push-up sprint How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set? Select one: a. 12 to 15 b. 4 to 6 c. 3 to 5 d. 8 to 10 - ANSWER ☑☑d. 8 to 10 When conducting a strength assessment, how long should an athlete rest between sets? Select one: a. 2 minutes b. 30 seconds c. 60 seconds d. 10 seconds - ANSWER ☑☑a. 2 minutes An electromechanical delay in which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction is known as which of the following? Select one: a. Eccentric phase b. Concentric phase c. Amortization phase d. Isometric phase - ANSWER ☑☑c. Amortization phase What is the preferred location for assessing resting heart rate? Select one: a. Radial pulse b. Aorta pulse c. Carotid pulse d. Femoral pulse - ANSWER ☑☑a. Radial pulse Which formula is used as a simple method to estimate an athlete's maximum heart rate? What is the term used for the technique that recruits local core stabilizers by pulling the navel in toward the spine? Select one: a. Bracing b. Drawing-in maneuver c. Hollowing d. Core stabilization - ANSWER ☑☑b. Drawing-in maneuver What are muscles that work in direct opposition to the prime mover called? Select one: a. Antagonist b. Stabilizers c. Synergist d. Agonist - ANSWER ☑☑a. Antagonist Which kind of muscle contraction does balance-stabilization training primarily focus on? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Isokinetic - ANSWER ☑☑a. Isometric Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. 10-yard sprint b. Single-leg horizontal jump c. Shark skill test d. 7 x 30-m sprint test - ANSWER ☑☑c. Shark skill test Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome? Select one: a. Breakdown avoidance b. Resistance development c. Shock and rebound d. Protection alarm - ANSWER ☑☑b. Resistance development What is the loss of muscle fiber size called? Select one: a. Tissue dehydration b. Osteopenia c. Atrophy d. Sarcopenia - ANSWER ☑☑c. Atrophy What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete's training program? Select one: a. Exercises that train metabolic endurance b. Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination c. Exercises that train maximal power d. Exercises that train for hypertrophy - ANSWER ☑☑b. Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance? Select one: a. Smoking, poor nutrtion, sedentary lifestyle b. Pattern overload, aging, postural stress c. Prime mover strength, one-side dominanance, lack of core strength d. Pattern overload, resistance training, stretching - ANSWER ☑☑b. Pattern overload, aging, postural stress What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit? Select one: a. Increased vasodilation b. Blood flow resistance c. Enhanced insulin production d. Decreased stroke risk - ANSWER ☑☑b. Blood flow resistance Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system? Select one: a. Baseball b. Sprinting c. Soccer d. Football - ANSWER ☑☑c. Soccer What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization exercises? Select one: a. 4 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 3 weeks - ANSWER ☑☑a. 4 weeks Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are at risk for which condition? Select one: a. Hypothyroidism b. Hypohydration Select one: a. 168 b. 150 c. 122 d. 140 - ANSWER ☑☑b. 150 An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury? Select one: a. Medial tibial stress b. Patellar tendinopathy c. Plantar fasciitis d. Ankle sprain - ANSWER ☑☑b. Patellar tendinopathy What law describes how soft tissue models along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Newton's law b. Hawthorn's law c. Davis's law d. Wolff's law - ANSWER ☑☑c. Davis's law Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth? Select one: a. Cysteine b. Leucine c. Valine d. Isoleucine - ANSWER ☑☑b. Leucine Which of the following are Olympic competition lifts? Select one: a. Deadlift and power clean b. Power clean and snatch c. Clean and jerk and the snatch d. Deadlift and front squat - ANSWER ☑☑c. Clean and jerk and the snatch What refers to the relationship of a muscle's ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities? Select one: a. Torque b. Length-tension relationship c. Force-velocity curve d. Arthrokinematics - ANSWER ☑☑c. Force-velocity curve A point guard who assesses the other team's defense, calls a new play based on what he sees, and then imagines and executes his drive to the basket with a successful layup displays which of the following? Select one: a. Emotion-focused coping b. Shifting attentional focus c. Selective attention d. Rational thinking - ANSWER ☑☑b. Shifting attentional focus If an athlete squats prior to performing a sagittal jump, which concept is employed? Select one: a. Ballistic movement b. Speed movement c. Agility movement d. Strength movement - ANSWER ☑☑a. Ballistic movement Which of the following is the ultimate goal of plyometric training? Select one: a. To increase the speed of muscular exertion b. To sensitize the Golgi tendon organ c. To improve neuromuscular coordination d. To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum - ANSWER ☑☑d. To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A? Select one: a. Increased tolerance to fatigue b. Reduced tolerance to infection c. Increased hematocrit volume d. Reduced bone mineral density - ANSWER ☑☑d. Reduced bone mineral density The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium - ANSWER ☑☑b. Left ventricle A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements rewards based on which of the following criteria? Select one: a. Social comparisons b. Skill mastery c. Cooperative completion d. Personal improvement - ANSWER ☑☑a. Social comparisons Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout? Passive warming, using modalities such as heated pants or warming jackets, are most beneficial for which of the following situations? Select one: a. When a player leaves a game due to injury b. Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets c. When there is about 5 minutes between warm-up and the start of competition d. Immediately following a maximal effort such as sprinting or weight lifting Feedback - ANSWER ☑☑b. Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets Which of the following statements describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance? Select one: a. Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts b. Consume carbohydrates only before and after strength workouts c. Fast for several hours before and after exercise d. Follow a high protein, high fat diet - ANSWER ☑☑a. Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin? Select one: a. Respiratory quotient b. Stroke volume c. Pulmonary ventilation d. Cardiac output - ANSWER ☑☑c. Pulmonary ventilation Which stride length is optimal for maximal linear speed? Select one: a. 2.6-2.8 times athlete's leg length b. 1.3-1.5 times athlete's leg length c. 2.3-2.5 times athlete's leg length d. 1.6-1.8 times athlete's leg length - ANSWER ☑☑c. 2.3-2.5 times athlete's leg length Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature? Select one: a. Clean and jerk b. Snatch deadlift c. Power clean d. Back squat - ANSWER ☑☑b. Snatch deadlift Which progression is recommended for drills focusing on agility/MDS? Select one: a. Reactive, static, dynamic b. Static, dynamic, reactive c. Static, reactive, dynamic d. Reactive, dynamic, static - ANSWER ☑☑b. Static, dynamic, reactive n which phases of the OPT model is it appropriate to use Olympic competition lifts? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 2 and 3 c. Phases 5 and 6 d. Phases 3 and 4 - ANSWER ☑☑c. Phases 5 and 6 What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete? Select one: a. 30 beats per minute b. 70 beats per minute c. 100 beats per minute d. 90 beats per minute - ANSWER ☑☑b. 70 beats per minute What is the typical body fat range for female tennis players? Select one: a. 6-10% b. 15-21% c. 10-15% d. 21-25% - ANSWER ☑☑d. 21-25% Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training? Select one: a. Metabolic training b. Integrated training c. Stabilization training d. Plyometric training - ANSWER ☑☑b. Integrated training Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects? Select one: a. Orange b. Grape c. Cherry d. Apple - ANSWER ☑☑c. Cherry What three components make up the integrated flexibility continuum? Select one: When administering the squat assessment, what is the appropriate increase in external resistance? Select one: a. 10-20% of initial load b. 25-50% of initial load c. 5-10% of initial load d. 90-100 pounds - ANSWER ☑☑c. 10-20% of initial load When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance training should occur? Select one: a. 50-70% b. 85-100% c. 75-85% d. 30-45% - ANSWER ☑☑c. 75-85% To develop higher levels of stability, the best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise? Select one: a. Fast tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment b. Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment c. Slow tempo in an stable, but uncontrolled, environment d. Fast tempo in an stable, but uncontrolled, environment - ANSWER ☑☑b. Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment What is the maximum amount of rest to put in between sets for an athlete performing a single-leg balance reach? Select one: a. 120 sec b. 60 sec c. 90 sec d. 30 sec - ANSWER ☑☑c. 90 sec When an athlete is thinking about who is in the stands during the competition, this is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Situational awareness b. Irrelevant cue c. Relevant cue d. Extrinsic motivation - ANSWER ☑☑b. Irrelevant cue Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations? Select one: a. Hypertrophy b. Maximal strength c. Muscular endurance d. Power - ANSWER ☑☑c. Muscular endurance What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover? Select one: a. Arthrokinetic dysfunction b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Davis's law - ANSWER ☑☑c. Synergistic dominance Which exercise is an example of a stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Chest press on a stability ball b. Machine row c. Crunch on a stability ball d. Bench press - ANSWER ☑☑a. Chest press on a stability ball Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromising their immune system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely going to help them recover and keep these systems strong? Select one: a. Serotonin b. Glutamine c. Dopamine d. Aspartate - ANSWER ☑☑b. Glutamine Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used? Select one: a. Muscle glycogen + fatty acids b. ATP + CP c. Muscle glycogen + lactic acid d. ATP in muscle - ANSWER ☑☑a. Muscle glycogen + fatty acids What muscle(s) are likely to demonstrate decreased neural control following an ankle sprain? Select one: a. Gluteus minimus, biceps femoris b. Transverse abdominus, external oblique c. Rectus femoris, psoas major d. Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus - ANSWER ☑☑d. Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus What is a primary adaptation of plyometric training? Select one: a. Increased motor unit recruitment a. Extrinsic motivation b. Competitive analysis c. Problem-focused coping d. Rational thinking - ANSWER ☑☑d. Rational thinking Which of the following selections describes a progression in an athlete's plyometric training? Select one: a. Done with supportive shoes b. Single-leg c. Grass field d. Pause for 3 seconds - ANSWER ☑☑b. Single-leg Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain? Select one: a. Lateral ankle sprain b. All types of ankle sprain c. Medial ankle sprain d. Syndesmotic ankle sprain - ANSWER ☑☑d. Syndesmotic ankle sprain Which phase of the OPT model utilizes balance-stabilization exercises? Select one: a. 3 b. 1 c. 5 d. 6 - ANSWER ☑☑b. 1 Which of the following best describes the concept of selective attention? Select one: a. Ability to focus on relevant cues b. Ability to lock attention on one thing c. Ability to choose what to pay attention to d. Ability to ignore others in the gym - ANSWER ☑☑a. Ability to focus on relevant cues Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves? Select one: a. Longitudinal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Frontal - ANSWER ☑☑b. Transverse For which phase of training is single-leg balance reach: frontal plane most appropriate? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 6 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 1 - ANSWER ☑☑d. Phase 1 What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Structural efficiency b. Relative flexibility c. Functional strength d. Dynamic posture - ANSWER ☑☑c. Functional strength
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