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NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE, Exams of Nursing

NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+

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2023/2024

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Download NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty? Select one: a. Pituitary gland b. Holocrine gland c. Adrenal gland d. Thyroid gland - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Balance c. Posture d. Functional efficiency - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which term refers to fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability as well as input to the nervous system? Select one: a. Dendrites b. Ligaments c. Effectors d. Tendons - CORRECT ANSWERS b NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass? Select one: a. Liquids b. Carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Lipids - CORRECT ANSWERS b What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Psoas major c. Gluteus minimus d. Gluteus maximus - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream? Select one: a. Respiratory system b. Integumentary system c. Endocrine system d. Immune system - CORRECT ANSWERS a NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. Autogenic inhibition b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction d. Synergistic dominance - CORRECT ANSWERS b Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Enteric nervous system - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body? Select one: a. Anterior b. Medial c. Superior d. Lateral - CORRECT ANSWERS a According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Select one: a. 100 min b. 150 min c. 200 min d. 250 mi - CORRECT ANSWERS b How many calories are in one gram of protein? Select one: a. 7 b. 9 c. 4 d. 2 - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein? Select one: a. Norepinephrine b. Insulin c. Cortisol d. Testosterone - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Select one: a. Gastrocnemius b. Semitendinosis c. Bicep femoris d. Anterior tibialis - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast? Select one: a. Ruffini endings b. Intercalated disc c. Muscle spindle d. Golgi tendon organ - CORRECT ANSWERS c A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. Shark skill test d. Overhead squat assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS a During an overhead squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client's underactive musculature? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Leg swings: side-to-side c. Proprioceptive plyometrics d. Tube walking: side-to-side - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body? Select one: a. Push-up assessment b. Pushing assessment c. Pulling assessment d. Bench press assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. Davies test b. Shark skill test c. Lower-extremity strength assessment: squat d. Overhead squat assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise? Select one: a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake b. Blood pressure and oxygen release c. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake d. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release - CORRECT ANSWERS a In which muscles is overactivity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon b. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon c. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon d. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon - CORRECT ANSWERS a When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Select one: a. External rotation of the feet b. Arms fall forward c. Knees move inward d. Low back arches - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete's maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature? Select one: a. Bench press 1RM test b. Push-up test c. Davies test d. Pushing assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician? Select one: a. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity c. Employ plyometric-stabilization training d. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo - CORRECT ANSWERS b NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. Strength Endurance Training - CORRECT ANSWERS d During the overhead squat assessment a clien'ts knees move inward. Which of the following strengthening exercises is MOST appropriate to correct this movement impairment? Select one: a. Tube walking b. Sumo deadlift c. Hip adductor machine d. Lunge jumps - CORRECT ANSWERS a During the Stabilization Phase of the OPT model, which tempo is recommended for resistance training exercises? Select one: a. 4/2/1 b. 1/1/1 c. 2/0/2 d. 1/0/1 - CORRECT ANSWERS a The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos? Select one: a. 4/2/1 NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. X/X/X c. 1/1/1 d. 2/0/2 - CORRECT ANSWERS d According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following is a goal of the Maximal Strength Phase of training? Select one: a. Increase peak force production b. Decrease the volume of training c. Decrease metabolic demand d. Increase the amount of fat loss - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following terms means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal? Select one: a. Quantitative analysis b. Program design c. Hypothesis d. Qualitative analysis - CORRECT ANSWERS b How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. 0-2 b. 2-4 c. 3-5 d. 1-3 - CORRECT ANSWERS d How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last? Select one: a. 3-5 minutes b. 5-10 minutes c. 10-15 minutes d. 0-3 minutes - CORRECT ANSWERS b During resistance training, a client is most likely to achieve strength endurance goals when performing which of the following? Select one: a. Fewer sets when performing lower repetitions at a moderate intensity b. More sets when performing higher repetitions at a high intensity c. More sets when performing lower repetitions at a high intensity d. Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. Single-leg squat touchdown - CORRECT ANSWERS d When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Circuit training b. Drop-set c. Split set d. Single-set - CORRECT ANSWERS d A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client? Select one: a. Follow the snake b. Modified box drill c. Red light, green light d. Stand-up to figure 8 - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following training variables should be low when intensity is high? Select one: a. Volume b. Tempo c. Frequency NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. Rest - CORRECT ANSWERS a In the Power Phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate? Select one: a. Barbell squat followed by step-up b. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump c. Step-up followed by tuck jump d. Step-up followed by barbell squat - CORRECT ANSWERS b Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which of the following rest periods? Select one: a. 1-2 minutes b. 0-90 seconds c. 3-5 minutes d. 0-60 seconds - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Ball crunch NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. Reverse crunch d. Floor prone cobra - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift b. Single-leg balance reach c. Seated stability ball military press d. Barbell squat - CORRECT ANSWERS d When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of? Select one: a. 20 reps b. 30 reps c. 10 reps d. 60 reps - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body? Select one: a. Core training NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. The floor cobra b. The squat curl c. The reverse crunch d. The inverted row - CORRECT ANSWERS c What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? Select one: a. Barbell bench press b. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench c. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead? Select one: a. Step-up to balance b. Lunge to balance c. Single-leg lift and chop d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift - CORRECT ANSWERS a A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Stabilization d. Corrective - CORRECT ANSWERS c Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Standing triceps extension b. Standing cable chest press c. Standing cable crunch d. Standing cable row - CORRECT ANSWERS b A seated cable row is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? Select one: a. Corrective b. Power c. Strength d. Stabilization - CORRECT ANSWERS c In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Select one: a. Phase 2: Strength Endurance b. Phase 5: Power c. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance d. Phase 4: Maximal Strength - CORRECT ANSWERS b In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed? Select one: a. When overactive muscles have been identified b. When underactive muscles have been identified c. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified d. When high blood pressure has been identified - CORRECT ANSWERS a For which exercise is a single-leg position a progression? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass b. Kneeling cable rotation c. Floor crunch d. Back extension - CORRECT ANSWERS a While performing a single-leg squat touchdown, which of the following ways can the proprioceptive challenge be increased? NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. Lateral thigh d. Axillary region - CORRECT ANSWERS b A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following? Select one: a. Balance-power b. Leg-stabilization c. Balance-stabilization d. Leg-power - CORRECT ANSWERS a Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise? Select one: a. Balance-power b. Reactive-strength c. Plyometric-power d. Balance-strength - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is an example of a stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Two-arm push press NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. Single-leg cable rows d. Barbell clean - CORRECT ANSWERS c When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press? Select one: a. Move to a bench b. Increase the weight c. Single-arm d. Alternating arm - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following defines SMART goals? Select one: a. Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Relevant, Timely b. Specific, Meaningful, Accountable, Realistic, Time Bound c. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely d. Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Relevant, Time Bound - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation? Select one: a. Positive self-talk NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. Psyching up c. Self-monitoring d. Exercise imagery - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Are you feeling okay?" b. "Are you ready to get started today?" c. "Does this exercise hurt?" d. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds? - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is the first stage in the stages of change model? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Precontemplation c. Preparation d. Action - CORRECT ANSWERS b A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Contemplation NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. Have the client keep a daily exercise log for six months. - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question? Select one: a. "What are your top three fitness goals?" b. "Did you play sports in high school?" c. "If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?" d. "Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?" - CORRECT ANSWERS a Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated? Select one: a. Training with family, friends, and coworkers. b. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises. c. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout. d. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility. - CORRECT ANSWERS c An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Action d. Preparation - CORRECT ANSWERS c Once a personal trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step? Select one: a. Figuring out the closing percentage b. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day c. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week d. Figuring out how many potential clients they need - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is a potential advantage to working in a commercial fitness facility? Select one: a. No employer supervision b. In-house employee training c. Can work from home d. Works only when required - CORRECT ANSWERS b NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ An individual is training at the gym on his own. He asks a fellow gym member to spot him during the bench press exercise. Of which type of support is this an example? Select one: a. Emotional b. Informational c. Instrumental d. Companionship - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is true of an independent contractor? Select one: a. An independent contractor works regularly for an employer. b. An independent contractor is one who works as, and when, required. c. An independent contractor receives benefits such as health insurance, bank loans, and other retirement packages. d. An independent contractor can be either a business or a corporation that provides goods or services without terms and conditions. - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional? Select one: a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs. NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. inversion. - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Davies test c. Rockport walk test d. Overhead squat assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following statements indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal? Select one: a. "I want to lose weight and trim down." b. "I want to build muscle and bulk up." NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. "I want the ability to climb the stairs without getting winded." d. "I want to run a 5k in 45 days." - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together. b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration. c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream. d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream. - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet? Select one: a. Increase in waste excretion b. Loss of body fat c. Increase in metabolism d. Loss of water - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following information is considered objective? Select one: a. Occupation b. Lifestyle behavior NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ c. Recreational activity d. Movement assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Posterior deltoid c. Pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula? Select one: a. Calf b. Mid-axillary line c. Subscapular d. Thigh - CORRECT ANSWERS c "From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?" This statement is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Nondirective question b. Close-ended question NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base? Select one: a. 9 to 11 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 to 16 d. 17 to 19 - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue? Select one: a. Fasciculus b. Endomysium c. Perimysium d. Epimysium - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client? Select one: a. Ball Crunch b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw c. Reverse Crunch d. Prone Iso-ab - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press - CORRECT ANSWERS c Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise? Select one: a. RER b. EPOC c. HRR d. RPE - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Extension d. External rotation - CORRECT ANSWERS b NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client? Select one: a. Providing the client with the right information. b. Requiring the client to pay attention. c. Convincing the client to do something. d. Seeking a client's perspective. - CORRECT ANSWERS d It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following? Select one: a. Massage a client. b. Apply ultrasound to a client. c. Design a nutrition plan for a client. d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client. - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Rotator cuff c. Pectoralis major NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. Weekly session needs b. Desired annual income c. Number of clients needed d. Closing percentage - CORRECT ANSWERS b During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down? Select one: a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestines d. Esophagus - CORRECT ANSWERS b When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's heart rate? Select one: a. 85 b. 104 c. 117 d. 170 - CORRECT ANSWERS d Davis's law states which of the following? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency. b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress. c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist. d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns. - CORRECT ANSWERS b A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders? Select one: a. Metabolic syndrome b. Restrictive lung disease c. Peripheral edema condition d. Coronary heart disease - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following is an example of an appropriate spotting technique? Select one: a. Spot at the client's elbows when performing a barbell exercise. b. The spotter should grab the handles on a machine-based exercise. c. When spotting a barbell squat, the spotter should stand in front of the client. d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise. - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Rhomboids c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Upper trapezius - CORRECT ANSWERS b The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is: Select one: a. power. b. speed. c. quickness. d. agility. - CORRECT ANSWERS c During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Bicep femoris b. Piriformis NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. 2 to 4 c. 4 to 6 d. 6 to 10 - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg squat touchdown b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance and reach d. Single-leg hop with stabilization - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity? Select one: a. EPOC b. ATP-PC c. Oxidative d. Glycolysis - CORRECT ANSWERS b In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity? Select one: a. High NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. Low c. Maximal d. Moderate - CORRECT ANSWERS b After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training? Select one: a. 86% to 95% of HR max b. 76% to 85% of HR max c. 65% to 75% of HR max d. 55% to 60% of HR max - CORRECT ANSWERS b In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client's program? Select one: a. Powerful movements b. Joint stabilization c. Increasing hypertrophy d. Increasing load - CORRECT ANSWERS d A high-protein diet consisting of more than 30% of total caloric intake from protein is most likely associated with: Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ a. increased pulse rate. b. overworked kidneys. c. high cholesterol. d. low energy levels. - CORRECT ANSWERS b When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as: Select one: a. reflections. b. affirmations. c. compliments. d. judgments. - CORRECT ANSWERS a A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity? Select one: a. Mechanical b. Balance c. Metabolic d. Neuromuscular - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Psoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gluteus maximus - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is a category of subjective information? Select one: a. Body composition b. Cardiorespiratory assessment c. Medical background d. Performance assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS c The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because: Select one: a. it increases muscle spindle activity. b. it results in reciprocal inhibition. c. it allows muscle fibers to contract. d. it allows lengthening of the muscle. - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program? Select one: a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set. b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise. c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts. d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days. - CORRECT ANSWERS d What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 56% to 65% b. 66% to 75% c. 76% to 85% d. 86% to 95% - CORRECT ANSWERS c The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of: Select one: a. Periodization. b. Efficiency. c. Overload. NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ d. Specificity. - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting? Select one: a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes. b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time. c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client's ability will build more confidence when accomplished. d. Goals should be consistent with a client's own ideals and ambitions. - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up to balance b. Single-leg squat c. Single-leg dead lift d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up - CORRECT ANSWERS d A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression? Select one: NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen? Select one: a. Baked potato b. Oatmeal cookie c. Avocado d. Spinach - CORRECT ANSWERS a Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainer b. Medical physician c. Nutritionist d. Performance Enhancement Specialist - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following muscles is part of the core local stabilization system? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectineus - CORRECT ANSWERS a NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of: Select one: a. autogenic inhibition. b. reciprocal inhibition. c. altered reciprocal inhibition. d. synergistic dominance. - CORRECT ANSWERS b Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training? Select one: a. Increased lean body mass b. Enhanced control of posture c. Improved peak force d. Improved prime mover strength - CORRECT ANSWERS b A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system? Select one: a. Multiple set system b. Pyramid system c. Superset system d. Circuit training system - CORRECT ANSWERS d NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as: Select one: a. objective information. b. subjective information. c. movement assessment. d. fitness assessment. - CORRECT ANSWERS b Dehydration affects the body by increasing: Select one: a. blood volume. b. performance. c. heart rate. d. sweat rate. - CORRECT ANSWERS c Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended? Select one: a. Abductor static stretch b. Adductor static stretch c. Piriformis foam roller d. Psoas foam roller - CORRECT ANSWERS b NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. 16 to 24 ounces c. 24 to 32 ounces d. 32 to 48 ounces - CORRECT ANSWERS b When a client practices self-myofascial release, which of the following physiological changes is the goal? Select one: a. An increase in joint receptor activity results in an inhibition of muscles around a joint. b. A decrease in neurotransmitter activity results in the contraction of a muscle. c. A decrease in muscle spindle activity results in the contraction of a muscle. d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle. - CORRECT ANSWERS d Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme? Select one: a. Attainable b. Realistic c. Specific d. Timely - CORRECT ANSWERS a NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression? Select one: a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor. b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball. c. Perform a back extension. d. Perform a stability ball crunch. - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors? Select one: a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises. b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5. c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations. d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week. - CORRECT ANSWERS a Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain? Select one: a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain. NASM PRACTICE EXAM 205QUESTIONS & ANSWERS ALL ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 RATED A+ b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain. c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates. d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods. - CORRECT ANSWERS b All of the following make up the five kinetic chain checkpoints EXCEPT the Select one: a. foot-ankle complex. b. lumbo-pelvic hip complex. c. shoulder complex. d. hand-wrist complex. - CORRECT ANSWERS d For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate? Select one: a. Age predicted maximum heart rate b. Karvonen formula c. Heart rate response d. Heart rate reserve - CORRECT ANSWERS c To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented? Select one: a. Periodization
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