NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers, Exams of Medicine

Download NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity! NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers What is considered the least effective infection control method? - correct answer PPE Explain organism transmission - correct answer 1. pathogenic organism: has enough virulence and in adequate dose to cause a disease (bacteria) 2. reservoir or source: allows the pathogen to survive and multiply (respiratory secretions) 3. mode of transmission: from the source to the host 4. portal of entry: through which the pathogen enters the host (through membranes; eyes, nose) 5. End result = susceptible host! What is the most important behavior in the prevention of disease transmission? - correct answer handwashing What does PPE reduce exposures too? - correct answer - direct contact - risk of indirect transmission - risk of exposure to spatter (greater than 50 micrometers and falls to ground within 2 feet) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers - risk of exposure to aerosols (liquid/solid suspended in air ranging in 1-100 micrometers in size) Sequence for PPE - correct answer gown, mask, goggles, gloves What is considered a critical instrument? - correct answer something used to penetrate soft tissue/bone (needs heat to be sterilized) - periodontal probes - explorer - scaling instruments - surgical instruments What is considered a semi-critical instrument? - correct answer something that will come in contact with mucous membranes and non-intact skin (should be sterilized using heat or disposable alternative) - mouth mirrors - handpieces - impression trays - radiograph film holders - oral photography retractors. NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers Steam autoclave/ Gravity displacement/ Pre-vaccum time and temp? what spore test is used? - correct answer - 15-30 minutes at 250 - Geobacillus stearothermophilus Unsaturated Chemical Vapor temp and time? what spore test is used? - correct answer - 20 minutes at 270° F - Geobacillus stearothermophilus Dry Heat/ Static air temp and static air temp and time? what spore test is used? - correct answer - 60-120 minutes at 320° F - Bacillus atrophaeus Forced Air (Convection) temp and time? what spore test is used? - correct answer - 12 min @375° - Bacillus atrophaeus BMI underweight % - correct answer less than 18.5% NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers BMI normal % - correct answer 18.5-24.9% BMI overweight % - correct answer 25-29.9% BMI obese % - correct answer greater than 30% Normal body temperature - correct answer 96-99.5% Normal pulse - correct answer 60-100 bpm tachycardia - correct answer high pulse rate: over 100 bradycardia - correct answer low pulse rate: less than 60 Blood pressure guidelines - correct answer Normal: less than 120/80 Elevated: 120-129 / less than 80 NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers Stage 1: 130-139 / 80-89 Stage 2: 140+ / 90 + Hypertensive crisis: 180+ / 140+ Those that require antibiotic premedication include: - correct answer - Prosthetic heart valve - Previous Endocarditis - Congenital heart disease only in the following categories: -----unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, -----completely repaired congenital heart disease with prosthetic material or device, -----Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of the prosthetic patch or prosthetic device. ------cardiac transplantation recipients with cardiac valvular disease Prophylactic antibiotic regimens dose and time - correct answer 1 single dose, 1 hour prior to the appointment Drug class schedule: Class I - correct answer Abuse potential: highest NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers For half-life first order of kinetics, how much of the drug is removed from the body per unit of time? - correct answer constant PERCENTAGE (50%) of the drug is removed For half-life zero order kinetics, how much of the drug is removed from the body per unit of time? - correct answer constant AMOUNT of drug is removed from body per unit time (aspirin / alcohol) what patients may have a decreased ability to metabolize drugs which leads to increased levels of drugs in the blood, which increases levels of TOXICITY - correct answer pts with liver disease or alcoholism What is the most common excretion route for drugs to be excreted unchanged or as a metabolite? what are other routes? - correct answer Kidney (renal) Other routes: lungs, saliva, breast milk and gingival crevicular fluid What types of drugs are NOT excreted through urine? - correct answer lipid-soluble drugs because they must be metabolized by the liver to then be turned into a water soluble form to then be excreted by urine NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers What terminates drug effects? - correct answer excretion/elimination what is the MAJOR route for fluoride excretion? - correct answer urine Drugs with ____________ require a larger oral dose as high percentage will be deactivated (when more is deactivated, you have to dose it HIGHER) - correct answer high first-pass effect adverse reactions have what type of action on a drug? - correct answer undesirable side effect (aka adverse rxn) is what? - correct answer UNwanted and DOSE RELATED (on nontarget organs) What are the 4 types of allergic rxns? - correct answer type I: immediate hypersensitivity - mediated by IgE "e for Emergency aka epi" (anaphylaxis) type II: Cytotoxic rxn- mediated by IgG + IgM "Go kill My cells" (hemolysis of RBCs, auto immune diseases) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers type III: Immune complex rxn - mediated by IgG + IgM "Go kill My cells" ( systemic lupus erthymatous, fever) type IV: cell-mediated rxn aka delayed hypersensitivity - mediated by T cells + macrophages (onset 2-3 days, contact dermatitis, fungal) What part of a prescription has the full name, address, telephone number, DEA/NPI number? - correct answer Prescriber's Info What part of a prescription has dated order includes name, address, and age of patient; with symbol Rx that separates superscription from inscription? - correct answer Superscription what part of a prescription has name of drug, strength and quantity? - correct answer Inscription What part of the prescription includes directions to pharmacist in short sentence? - correct answer Subscription NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers what antichlorinergic drug is used pre-operatively to decrease salivary flow for dental procedures/long procedures? - correct answer atropine what anticholinergic drug is used for COPD to relax the smooth muscle in respiratory system? - correct answer ipratropium what anticholinergic drug is used for motion sickeness prevention? - correct answer scopolamine what anticholinergic drug is used for tx of diarrhea? - correct answer loperamide (Imodium) What is the mechanism of action of an non-opioid analgesic (non-narcotic)? - correct answer to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis what do prostaglandins do/cause? - correct answer - synthesize pain receptors - lower pain threshold - cause inflammation and fever, edema NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers What drug can cause reye syndrome in children (contraindicated for children) - correct answer aspirin (non-opioid analgesic) what drugs are contraindicated with the use of aspirin due to drug interactions and increased bleeding? - correct answer warfarin (Coumadin) & ibuprofen/naproxen what drug can cause a white, wrinkled appearance on the mucobuccal tissue where the patient might hold this drug in their mouth? what is the name of this condition? - correct answer aspirin, aspirin burn what two non-opioid analgesics are known to cause GI irritation and is contraindicated with peptic ulcers? - correct answer Aspirin and ibuprofin/naproxen what effects can ibuprofen decrease of other drugs? (IMPORTANT FOR CASE STUDIES) - correct answer - ACE inhibitors - Beta blockers - Loop diretics - Corticosteroids - Cyclosporine NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers - Lithium taking an NSAID with what can cause increase levels of that medication? - correct answer phenytoin (Dilatin) aka seizure med What NSAID should not be given to a patient with liver disease? (CASE STUDY question) - this is contraindicated in current/past alcoholics - correct answer acetaminophen (Tylenol) What NSAID is the drug of choice for patients on anticoagulants (warfarin) or with PEPTIC ULCERS? - correct answer acetaminophen (Tylenol) what type of drug is naloxone (Narcan) and what does it do to receptors in the body? - correct answer It is a parental opioid antagonist; it locks itself on to the receptor and kicks the opioid off BC Narcan is used to reverse respiratory depression from OD What is the most common opioid used in dentistry? - correct answer Codine Tylenol #3 NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers Is penicillin bactericidal or bacteriostatic? - correct answer bactericidal what penicillin is preferred over the other and why? penicillin VK or penicillin G? - correct answer VK because pen G is inactivated by gastric acids is penicillin effective against penicillinase (enzyme) producing bacteria? - correct answer NO thats why we would use Augmentin what is VERY similar to penicillin but is more expensive? - correct answer Cephalosporins what two macrolides can be used for pre med if there is a penicillin allergy? - correct answer azithromycin & clarithromycin what antibiotic is used for tx of NUP/NUG and aggressive perio? and why? - correct answer tetracyclines because they excrete into gingival crevicular fluid where they have an anti- collagenase effect (anti-breaking down collagen) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers what antibiotic can you NOT have milk and can have photosensitivity? - correct answer tetracyclines Where is tetracylines excreted in pregnant woman? - correct answer breast milk (remember: tetracylines can cross placenta barriers so that is why it is contraindicated during pregnancy) What can clindamycin lead to? - correct answer pseudomembranous colitis (C-diff ---> Clostridium difficle) which is severe persistent diarrhea Clindamycin aka "mean clean" what happens if alcohol is injected when a patient is taking Nitroimidazoles? - correct answer it will make them VERY sick (similar to disulfiriam) What should you advise your patient who is on Nitroimidazole to avoid that could be apart of the OH regimen? - correct answer Listerine (high alcohol content) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers What can you not have when on metronidazole (Flagyl)? - correct answer alcohol because it is a Nitroimidazole If a patient is on rifampin or isoniazid ONLY.... why are they taking this? - correct answer as a preventative agent (for TB???) Pre med regimen: if your patient is allergic to penicillin, what would you recommend? - correct answer - cephalexin (Keflex) 2000 mg (2g) *** - azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg - doxycycline 100 mg (dont recommend this one to pregnant women) What topical antifungal is the drug of choice to treat candidiasis (Thrush)? - correct answer nystatin Why are mouth rinses and lozenges cariogenic (these are prescribed as an antifungal tx)? - correct answer because of their high sugar content what antifungal is an oral drug that is used to treat systemic infections? - correct answer fluconazole (Diflucan) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers - bupivicane (longest) what does pKa affect with LA? - correct answer the onset the lower the pKa of a solution = ? - correct answer better absorption the stronger the protein binding capacity in anesthetic = ? - correct answer longer duration the more lipid soluble the drug = ? - correct answer the more potent when there is less vasodilating properties (which means a vasoconstrictor was added) = ? - correct answer more potent and longer duration (Note: vasoconstrictors make meds last longer) Why are vasoconstrictors added to LA? - correct answer - decrease bleeding - decrease systemic absorption (lower risk of toxicity) - increased duration of action NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers what is the max recommended dose of epi for a patient that is considered healthy? - correct answer 0.2mg of epi per dental appt (ASA I or II) what is the max recommended dose of epi for a patient who needs a "cardiac dose"? - correct answer 0.04mg of epi per dental appt (ASA III or IV: for pregnancy, diabetes, hypertension, etc) What are the anesthetics available WITHOUT a vasoconstrictor? - correct answer - lidocaine (has epi in the US, the plain one is not) - mepivacaine - prilocaine (NOTE: that articiane and bupivacaine will ALWAYS has a vasocontrictor) What is cartilage volume in mL for dental calculations? - correct answer 1.8mL What type of base does LA have.. weak or strong? this will cause it to work poorly where the is what? why? - NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers correct answer weak; infection ( this is due to the environment being very acidic - an increase in dose would be needed) What is the BEST way to reduce systemic toxicity with LA? - correct answer ASPIRATE and inject slowling!!!! do benzodiazepines have an analgesic effect? - correct answer NO - they do not have a pain relieving effect, it lowers anxiety do barbiturates have an analgesic effect? - correct answer NO what is the most commonly INHALED anesthetic? and does it have a high or low solubility in the blood? - correct answer nitrous oxide; LOW What color is a nitrous oxide tank in the US? What color are oxygen tanks? - correct answer Blue; Green NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers what is the most common thiazide diuretic? what does it cause/treat? - correct answer HCTZ & causes xerostomia and treats HBP IMPORTANT FOR CASE STUDY: what are the adverse reactions for ACE inhibitors? - correct answer - orthostatic hypotension - DRY, HACKING COUGH - altered taste - oral lesions - allergic like swelling of face, lips and tongue What are two common examples of angiotension receptor blockers ARBs? - correct answer (-sartan "think of ARB is Screaming (Sartan) when hes mad") - losartan (Cozaar) - valsartan (Diovan) does calcium channel blockers effectiveness get reduced by NSAIDs? - correct answer NO ( is only one of the few that does not; only BP med that does not ) NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers What are some adverse rxns of CCB? - correct answer - orthostatic hypotension - xerostomia - GINGIVAL ENLARGEMENT What are COMMON examples of CCBs? - correct answer ("Always Very Nice Day" -pine) - amlodipine (Norvasc) - verapamil (Isoptin, Calan) - nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat) ** high probability of ging. enlargement - dilitazem (Cardizem, Dilacor) what type of -selective is metoprolol (Lopressor)? - correct answer cardio-selective (more specific for B1) What type of -selective is propranolol (Inderal)? - correct answer non-selective, non-specific (affects B1 and B2) What should NOT be given to patients taking non- selective B blockers such as propranolol because it greatly increases a vasopressor response causing WHAT? - correct answer EPI; HYPERTENSION NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers TIP: orthostatic hypotension does or does not cause BP to quickly rise? - correct answer does NOT, the BP drops!!!! ** What antianginal drug is the drug of choice for ACUTE angina? (chest pain) - correct answer Nitroglycerin There will be a dangerously low BP when a patient has taken a PDE5 inhibitor (ex. viagra) in the last 24 hours of taking in conjunction of what drug? - correct answer Nitroglycerin what meds can cause increased bleeding due to the effects on vitamin K? - correct answer MOST SERIOUS = warfarin +aspirin & also antibiotics when taken with warfarin what is used to prevent blood clots after a recent heart attack/stroke? - correct answer clopidogrel (Plavix) : anticoagulant NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers why can hypergylcemia result in in patients with type 2 - correct answer because it can result from the cells becoming insulin resistant what drug is used for the tx of bullous pemphigoid? (blistering of the tissue with sloffing) - correct answer antineoplastic = Methotrexate What is the LA of choice for pregnant women? - correct answer Lidocaine what analgesics are contraindicated in pregnant women? what anti-infective agents? - correct answer aspirin & NSAIDS; tetracyclines and metronidazole what is the immunosuppressant used for organ transplant patients? - correct answer cyclosporine indication of use for epinephrine? - correct answer anaphylactic shock/ severe allergic rxns NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers indication of use for diphenhydramine? - correct answer (aka Benadryl) mild to mod. allergic rxns indication of use for hydrocortisone - correct answer adrenal crisis indication of use for albuterol (Ventolin) - correct answer asthma attack indication of use for nitroglycerin - correct answer angina (chest pain) indication of use for oral carbohydrate (glucose) - correct answer HYPOglycemia (insulin shock) indication of use for diazepam (Valium) - correct answer management of seizures (status epilepticus) indication of use for ammonia inhalants - correct answer syncope indication of use for naloxone (Narcan) - correct answer opioid overdose NBDHE Board Alerts! Test Questions And Answers indication of use for oxygen - correct answer most emergencies (NOT with hyperventilation or COPD) indication of use for dextrose 50% - correct answer Iv solution for HYPOglycemic patients that CANT swallow