NBDHE Board Review Study Guide, Exams of Dentistry

Download NBDHE Board Review Study Guide and more Exams Dentistry in PDF only on Docsity! NBDHE Board Review Study Guide Meth mouth is characterized by: - 1. rampant caries 2. burned mucosa 3. xerostomia 4. periodontal disease 5. severe attrition Which part of the brain controls body temperature? - hypothalamus The thalamus is involved in - sensory reception and regulation of motor functions The cerebrum is - the largest portion of the brain and controls all voluntary actions of the body The cerebellum is - located at the base of the brain and is involved in the coordination of voluntary motor movement, balance, and muscle tone. Which anti-hypertensive drug works by reducing the water volume in the blood vessels? - Hydrochlorothiazide Lisinopril (Zestril) - ACE inhibitor, blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II Diazepam (Valium) - Benzodiazepine, reduces anxiety by facilitating the action of the neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin, naproxin (Aleve) - NSAID, inhibits enzyme cyclooxygenase, COX-1/COX-2 3 A's: Analgesic, Anti-inflammatory, Anti-pyretic Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) - thiazide diuretic, inhibits the resorption of sodium from the distal tubule Nifidipine (Procardia) - Antihypertensive, Calcium Channel Blocker: Inhibits the movement of calcium during the contraction of cardiac and vascular smooth muscles Lovastatin (Mevacor) - Anti-Hyperlipidemic: HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitor Inhibits 3-hydroxy-3-methyl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, an enzyme used for biosynthesis of cholesterol. Lowers LDL and triglyceride concentrations and increases HDL. Epinephrine - stimulates both alpha and beta receptors and can raise blood pressure and cause bronchodilation and vasoconstriction Candesartan (Atacand) - Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB), Antihypertensive Codeine - opioid analgesic that works by binding to and stimulating mu-, kappa-, and delta- receptors in the CNS and spinal cord. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid) - vasodilator that works by producing vascular smooth muscle relaxation throughout the body. It is used to treat symptoms of angina. A side effect of tetracycline is - photo-sensitivity, may cause exaggerated sunburn in patients exposed to sunligjt A side effect of aspirin is - - tinnitus, ringing in ears - epigastric, GI issues - increased bleeding A side effect of metronidazole hydrochloride (HCl) (Flagyl) - disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, Hangover like symptoms (nausea, vomiting, flushing, dizziness, throbbing headache, chest and abdominal discomfort) A side effect of Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) - elevated blood pressure and heart rate because it produces vasoconstriction A side effect of Propranolol (Inderal) - bronchoconstriction, Remember: -olol is contraindicated in patients with asthma as it blocks beta-2 receptors. A side effect of Acetaminophen (Tylenol) - hepatotoxicity, liver damage A side effect of Benzotropin (Cogentin) - severe xerostomia A patient with a peptic ulcer could have which medication? A. Aspirin B. Acetaminophen C. Ibuprofen D. Pilocarpine - Acetaminophen: does not cause GI upset or bleeding, considered safe. Aspirin / Ibuprofen cause significant GI upset and gastric bleeding. Pilocarpine increases secretions, exacerbating peptic ulcer symptoms Beriberi is caused by - Deficiency in Vitamin B1, THIAMINE Vitamin C, ascorbic acid, deficiency causes - Scurvy and Pernicious anemia Pellagra is caused by - Vitamin B3, NIACIN Folic acid deficiency causes - Megaloblastic anemia and neural tube formation issues common side effects of NSAIDS (Aspirin / Ibuprofen) - - blood thinning - GI irritation Nystatin (Mycostatin) - Antifungal, candidiasis, denture stomatitis Considerations: - may cause diarrhea, nausea, vomiting - can be used to soak dentures Acyclovir (Zovirax) - treatment of viral infections: - herpes simplex 1 (HSV1) - herpes simplex 2 (HSV2) - mononucleosis (Epstein-barr virus) - shingles (varicell-zoster) Isoniazid (INH) - treatment of tuberculosis Minocycline - -tetracycline antimicrobial/antibiotic - locally-delivered to treat periodontal diseases Prilosec (omeprazole) - Proton Pump Inhibitor, GERD, Ulcers Anti-GERD and anti-ulcer agents can cause - halitosis, xerostomia, altered taste DEA - drug enforcement agency, enforces laws and sets the abuse potential of drugs in the USA Synthroid (levothyroxine) - Hypothyroidism Propylthiouracil (PTU), methimazole (Tapazole) - Hyperthyroidism Repaglinide (Prandin), metformin (Fortamet) - Diabetes AMOXICILLIN Premedication dosage for patient with no hypersensitivity to penicillin - ADULT: 2 g/kg PEDIATRIC: 50mg/kg taken 60 minutes PRIOR to procedure CLINDAMYCIN Premedication dosage for patient with no hypersensitivity to penicillin - ADULT: 600 mg/kg PEDIATRIC: 20 mg/kg taken 60 minutes PRIOR to procedure Which conditions DO REQUIRE prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental care procedures? - - immunocompromised - transplant recipient - artificial heart valves - history of IE, infective endocarditis - history of inflammatory arthropathies (lupus, RA) Which conditions DO NOT require prophylactic antibiotics before dental care procedures? - - mitral valve prolapse - Rheumatic heart disease - Bicuspid valve disease - calcified aortic stenosis - congenital heart conditions "Buffalo hump" and "moon face" are side effects of which agent? - Fluticasone, corticosteroids that decrease inflammation Schedule I drugs: - These drugs have the HIGHEST ABUSE POTENTIAL and have NO accepted medical use. Examples of Schedule I drugs include: - heroin, hallucinogens, opium derivatives Schedule II drugs: - These drugs may NOT be refilled. These drugs have a high abuse potential, SOME medical use. Examples of Schedule II drugs: - cocaine, oxycodone, amphetamines, morphine Schedule III drugs: - Less potential for abuse, moderate dependance, some medical use. These drugs may be refilled 5 times in a six month period (Tylenol #3) Schedule IV drugs: - less potential for abuse, limited dependance, medical use (diazepam, Valium) Schedule V drugs: - lease potential for abuse, limited dependance, medical use (codeine cough syrup) PPD test (Mantoux skin test) swelling is read how long after the antigen is injected? - 48-72 hours what drug causes Mydriasis, dilated pupils? - Periodontal destruction even after approriate professional and self-care is called: - refractory disease the destruction of the periodontium caused by inadequate professional or self-care - recurrent disease term for a condition that is present in 30% or more sites in the oral cavity - generalized disease term for a condition present in LESS thank 30% of sites - localized term used when the condition is seen on the gingival margin, papilla, and attached gingiva at the same time. - diffuse disease Localized aggressive periodontitis in permanent dentition is characterized by destruction on: - incisors and first molars the early stages of gingivitis can exhibit: - bleeding on probing What are the three features of dehiscence? - - gingival recession - alveolar bone loss - root exposure What is fenestration? - "window" of bone loss on the facial or lingual aspect of the tooth what are the components of the periodontium? - - gingiva - alveolar bone - periodontal ligaments - cementum in periodontitis, which part of the alveolar bone is first affected when destruction occurs? - alveolar crest what forms the base of the sulcus? - junctional epithelium the function of periodontal ligaments include all of the following: - - ATTACH the tooth to the bony socket - SUPPORTIVE, resist forces applied - SENSORY, sense pressure and pain - NUTRITIVE, carry nutrients to cementum, bone, gingiva - FORMATIVE, build cementum and bone - RESORPTIVE, remodel bone periodontal ligaments attach: - cementum to bone patients with diabetes are more commonly affected by the following oral conditions: - - slow wound healing - periodontal disease - xerostomia - oral candidiasis - parotid gland enlargement - diminished taste sensation - burning mouth the free gingival groove seperates, - the free gingiva from the attached gingiva a col is a depression between - the facial gingiva and the lingual gingiva the mucogingival junction is the apical boundary where - - the attached gingiva (pink and tough) meets the alveolar mucosa (red, smooth and shiny) - the keratinized mucosa (attached gingiva) meets the non-keratinized mucosa (alveolar mucosa) charter method - directs the bristles towards the occlusal surface rather than the gingiva which type of tooth brushing technique is adequate after a periodontal surgery? - charter method, it is indicated when the gingiva should not be touched (as in periodontal surgery), or to better clean orthodontics (brackets) stillman method - angle bristles 45 degrees toward the apex with 1/2 of bristles placed on tooth, the other half on the gingiva bass method - directs the bristles at a 45-degree angle, but they are placed INTO THE POCKET fones method - large circular motion on the entire facial surfaces of the teeth, indicated for those who lack manual dexterity the thin radiopaque outline of the bone along the root is, - lamina dura the type of bony defect that has the best prognosis is: - one where more bone (osseous surfaces) is present, which is the THREE-WALL defect what type of bony defect has the best prognosis? - three-wall defect because more osseous surface is present THINK: 3 WALLS "defect"=LEFT one-wall defect - bordered by one osseous surface and three tooth surfaces THINK: 1 WALL "defect"=LEFT what type of bony defect has the worst prognosis? - one-wall defect THINK: 1 WALL "defect"=LEFT two-wall defect - bordered by two osseous surfaces and two tooth surfaces THINK: 2 WALLS "defect"=LEFT three-wall defect - three osseous surfaces (bony walls) remain and one tooth surface THINK: 3 WALLS "defect"=LEFT Type I embrasure - Embrasure is filled completely by interdental papilla. Dental floss is effective. Type 2 embrasure - slight to moderate recession of the interdental gingiva Type 3 embrasure - extensive recession or complete loss of papilla which bacteria is known to be related to chronic periodontitis? - P. gingivalis T. forsythia T. denticola code 3 during the PSR (Periodontal screening and recording utilizing the "WHO" probe) means: - - color coded reference band is PARTIALLY visible in deepest pocket in the sextant - indicating a pocket is DEEPER than 3.5 mm code 4 during the PSR (Periodontal screening and recording utilizing the "WHO" probe) means: - - color coded reference band is NOT visible in deepest pocket in the sextant - indicating a pocket is DEEPER than 5.5 mm when performing a PSR (periodontal screening and recording) the clinician detected a pocket that was between the 3.5 mm and 5.5 mm mark. what code would that indicate? - code 3, indicating a pocket is DEEPER than 3.5 mm in a patient with a healthy periodontium, the alveolar crest is: - 1 mm - 2mm apical to (below) the CEJ which bacteria have double cell walls, do not stain purple with crystal violet, and play an important role in the destruction of the periodontium? - gram-negative bacteria THINK: "N" in negative = NO purple which bacteria have a thick single cell wall and retain a purple color when stained with crystal violet? - gram-positive bacteria THINK: "P" in positive = PURPLE Alveologingival fibers - (attached gingiva) from the alveolar crest to the gingiva, attaches the gingiva to the bone to provide support circular gingival fibers - encircles around the tooth like a ring (coronal to the alveolar crest), not attached to the cementum or bone dentogingival fibers - from cementum to the gingiva, attaches the gingiva to the tooth Periostogingival fibers - from the periosteum of the alveolar bone to the gingiva, attaches the gingiva to the bone Intergingival fibers - extends in a mesiodistal direction, links adjacent teeth into a dental arch unit intercircular fibers - encircle several teeth; link adjacent teeth into a dental arch unit Transgingival fibers - from the cementum near the CEJ and runs horizontally, links adjacent teeth to a dental arch unit Transseptal fibers - from cementum of one tooth over the crest of alveolar bone to the cementum of the adjacent tooth, connects adjacent teeth to one another cells that make bone - osteoblast; B for build Cells that resorb bone - osteoclasts refractory - stubbornly resistant, in dental hygiene: disease progresses despite self-care and professional care periodontitis - disease of the gingiva accompanied with destruction of the supporting structures including the gingiva, periodontal ligament, alveolar bone and cementum) gingivitis - Inflammation of the gingiva, not involving the supporting structures, is reversible 1 to 2 mm of clinical attachment loss is classified as - mild 3-4 mm of clinical attachment loss is classified as - moderate 5+ mm of clinical attachment loss is classified as - severe allograft - bone taken from another human (cadavers) autograft - skin graft from a person's own body xenograft or heterograft - a graft from another species alloplast - synthetic bone (hydroxyapatite material) which measurement is the equivalent unit of Rad in Systeme International (SI)? - Gray HINT: match the "A" in Gray and the "A" in Rad which 2 systems represent the ABSORBED dose of radiation? - Rad (standard unit) and Gray (SI unit) which 2 systems represent the AMOUNT OF RADIATION EXPOSED IN AIR? - Roentgen (standard unit) and Coulomb (SI unit) during an x-ray, mA x seconds = _____? - mAs Example: 10mA x 10seconds = 100 5mA x 20seconds = 100 radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma - "PUNCHED OUT LESION" radiographic appearance of fibrous dysplasia - "GROUND GLASS" radiographic appearance of Paget's disease - "COTTON WOOL" radiographic appearance of ameloblastoma - "SOAP BUBBLE" which of the following errors results in a film darker than desired? - LONGER development time and HIGHER developer temperatures NOTE: developing film is like baking, if you leave the cake too long in the oven and the oven is too hot, the cake might burn (turn too dark) light leak causes - film fog electromagnetic radiation is a type of radiation (energy) that moves through space in a - wave-like motion - It is best for detecting abnormalities. - Occurs with machines functioning at HIGH kVp inverse square law - step 1: write how much shorter or longer the distance is (2 times farther = write 2) step 2: square the number (2 times farther or shorter = 2 square = 4) step 3: invert the number ONLY if the source is farther. if it is SHORTER, do NOT invert. which energy has the highest penetration - gamma waves Paralleling technique - long axis of tooth and film are parallel to each other, primary beam is at a 90 degree angle to those 2 structures x-ray production in a tube happens in the following sequence: - 1. electron cloud forms at the cathode 2. electron hits the tungsten target 3. photons are produced at the anode 4. photons leave the x-ray tube the mental foramen is generally found - apical to the mandibular second premolar the number of xray photons generated can be increased by increasing the - mA(regulates the number of photons generated) Rad and Gray are also used to measure - radiation absorbed dose rem - traditional unit of equivalent dose and effective dose mandibular foramen of mandible - Located on the medial surface of each ramus; passageway for the nerve involved in tooth sensation. (Dentists inject anesthetic into this foramen before working on the lower teeth) periodontal ligaments attach - cementum to bone lamina dura - Radiopaque (white) thin compact bone that lines the alveolar socket and appears as a continuous white line around the tooth FOLLOWING THE PDL SPACE. Periodontal Ligament (PDL) - Radiolucent (dark) Ligament surrounding the teeth that supports and attaches them to alveoli bony surface with disease, the PDL becomes - wider Width of the attached gingiva: - Attached gingiva - probing depth = ? Probing depth (PD) - the distance from the gingival margin (GM) to the location of the periodontal probe tip at the base of the sulcus when the means of two different studies or groups are being compared, what test is indicated? - T-test an inferential statistical test for comparing the means of three or more groups - ANOVA, (analysis of variance) which test measures the difference between the observed and expected values - chi-square test measures results that occurred by chance during an experiment - p-value total number of cases of disease in a given population at a specific time - prevalence