NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers, Exams of Medicine

Download NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity! NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers The x-ray was discovered by a. Heinrich Geissler b. Wilhelm Roentgen c. Johann Hittorf d. William Crookes - correct answer Wilhelm Roentgen Which discovery was the precursor to the discovery of x-rays? A. Beta particles B. Alpha particles C. Cathode rays D. Radioactive materials - correct answer Cathode rays Which term describes two or more atoms that are joined by a chemical bond? a. ion b. ion pair c. molecule d. proton - correct answer Molecule Which is not a type of particulate radiation? A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. Protons D. Nucleons - correct answer Nucleons Which is the location where x-rays are produced? A. Positive cathode B. Positive anode C. Negative cathode D. Negative anode - correct answer Positive anode Which describes scatter radiation? A. Radiation that exits the tubehead B. Radiation that is more penetrating than primary radiation C. Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter D. none of the above - correct answer Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter In dental imaging, the quality of the x ray beam is controlled by? a. kilovoltage b. miliamperage c. exposure time d. source-to-receptor distance - correct answer Kilovoltage NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. Mature bone cells D. Epithelial cells E. None of the above - correct answer Mature bone cells Which position indicating device is most effective in reducing patient exposure? A. Conical B. Rectangular C. Circular D. all are equally effective in reducing patient exposure - correct answer Rectangular Which statement describes the function of a filter in a dental x-ray tube head? A. It reduces the size and shape of the beam B. It removes low energy x rays C. It removes the dose of radiation to the thyroid gland D. It decreases the mean energy of the beam - correct answer It removes low energy x rays The dental radiographer can regulate the x ray beam (kVp, mA, time) through the use of the a. control panel NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. extension arm c. console d. position-indicating device (PID) - correct answer Control panel One advantage of a film with an emulsion coating on both sides (double-emulsion film) is that a. the film requires less radiation exposure to make an image b. the image produced is less distorted c. the film has less sensitivity to radiation d. processing solutions are absorbed more easily - correct answer The film requires less radiation exposure to make an image The intensifying screen that emits green light and must be used with green sensitive film is termed a. calcium tungstate b. rare earth c. phosphor d. rare tungstate - correct answer Rare earth A dental image that demonstrates many shades of gray is said to have a. high contrast b. low contrast c. high density NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers d. low density - correct answer Low contrast The hydroquinone in the developer brings out the _____ tones, whereas the Elon in the developer bring out the _____ tones on a dental radiograph. a. black; white b. white; black c. gray; gray d. white; gray e. black; gray - correct answer Black; gray A universal safelight filter such as the GBX-2 by the Carestream Health is recommended for a. intraoral films only b. extraoral screen films only c. extraoral nonscreen films only d. intraoral and extraoral films - correct answer Intraoral and extraoral films Which describes the relationship between the receptor and the long axis of the tooth in the paralleling technique? A. The receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other B. The receptor and the tooth are at right angles to each other NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers d. action, unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, habit - correct answer Unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action and habit Fairness and equality represent which ethical principle/core value? a. justice b. fidelity c. veracity d. beneficence - correct answer Justice All are considered essential elements of informed consent except which? A. Referral B. Diagnosis C. Treatment D. Consequences - correct answer Referral Informed consent is considered an implied contract because it is a written agreement. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers D. First is false, second is true - correct answer -First is false, second is true -Written informed consent is considered an explicit vs. implied contract or agreement State regulations that include infection control requirements are designed to protect who? a. the patient b. the practitioner c. both the patient and the practitioner d. neither the patient or the practitioner - correct answer The patient Not meeting the standard of care would violate which ethical principle/core value? a. autonomy b. societal trust c. confidentiality d. non-maleficence - correct answer Societal Trust Regulatory entities who impact the practice of DH include all but which of the following: A. State licensing boards B. Local laws and codes NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. Professional associations D. State public health and safety codes E. Occupational Safety and Health Administration - correct answer Professional associations Active listening involves which of the following? A. Silence B. Open ended questions C. Closed ended questions D. None of the above - correct answer Silence Examples of negligence include all but which of the following: A. Not meeting the standard of care B. Incorrect medical or dental history taking C. Placing sealants on a minor without consent D. Failure to diagnose, refer or treat perio disease E. All of the above are considered forms of negligence - correct answer Placing sealants on a minor without consent All of the following are involved in enforcing infection control in dentistry except: A. CDC B. OSHA NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers E. None of the above - correct answer Empathy as well as comfort, acceptance and responsiveness The Code of Ethics for the profession of dental hygiene have been established by which of the following entities? A. ADA B. State regulatory/licensing boards C. Commission on Dental Accreditation D. ADHA E. Various textbooks and researchers within the profession - correct answer ADHA Which of the following best describes the Standard of Care? A. Well defined by courts B. Defined by profession C. Represents the ethical principle of beneficence D. Part of the code of ethics for DH - correct answer Defined by profession A patient presenting with an HIV positive status is refused treatment by a dental practice. This is a violation of... a. autonomy b. beneficence NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - correct answer Justice A practice that accepts the insurance portion of a co-pay plan as "payment in full" without notifying the insurance company is in violation of which ethical principles? a. beneficence b. non-maleficence c. fidelity d. justice e. veracity - correct answer Veracity Confidentiality relates to the confidentiality of the patient information and relationship and demonstrates the profession's values of which ethical principle? a. autonomy b. beneficence c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - correct answer Autonomy NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A patient makes an appt. for their 6 month recall and an exam is performed as well as a prophylaxis. This represents what type of contract? A. Express B. Explicit C. Implied D. Implicit E. C&D - correct answer -C&D- implied and implicit are the same -action based Which of the following are considered 'law' and enforceable for violations of? A. Guidelines B. Regulations C. Policy D. All of the above E. None of the above - correct answer Regulations You just treated a patient who is HIV+. How should you handle the instruments and cassette after use? A. follow routine instrument processing steps B. sterilize the instruments with a chemical sterilant first, rinse them, place them back in the cassette, and then follow routine instrument processing steps. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers D. Inadequate exposure to Fluoride - correct answer Manual dexterity problems Which of the following professional Fluoride agents is known for both its efficacy in caries prevention and control of dentinal hypersensitivity because of its high concentration of Fl? A. Acidulated phosphate fluoride gel B. Stannous fluoride C. Sodium fluoride varnish D. Neutral sodium fluoride foam - correct answer Sodium fluoride varnish Which toothbrushing method should be recommended for a client with plaque biofilm control problems around the cervical areas of the teeth? a. Stillman's method b. Charter method c. Bass Method d. Leonard method - correct answer Bass Method Access to subgingival calculus deposits on the proximal surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth is difficult because of papillary enlargement of the gingival tissue. Which of the following statements provides the BEST advice for thorough subgingival calculus removal? NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers a. Use a curet with a small, thin working end, and approach the deposit from both facial and lingual aspects b. try to remove the deposit with an explorer using an assessment stroke c. use a calculus removal stroke subgingivally with an anterior sickle scaler d. use the ultrasonic with a universal insert applying heavy lateral pressure - correct answer Use a curet with a small, thin working end, and approach the deposit from both F&L aspects A clinician decides to use a hand instrument to remove a tenacious, moderate calculus deposit on the facial of #31. The calculus deposit is located supra on the crown. Which of the following instruments would you choose? A. Universal curet with short lower shank length B. Standard Gracey 13/14 C. Rigid gracy curet D. Posterior sickle - correct answer Posterior sickle A right handed clinician is working on the buccal of #2. The clinician is using a Gracey 13/14 curet and retracting the client's cheek with a mirror. The clinician's neck is bent excessively as she works. What correction should they make for more ergonomic positioning? a. Ask the client to turn her head slightly away from the clinician NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. Turn the mirror head so that the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface c. ask the client to turn toward the clinician and lower her chin down toward her chest (chin-down position) d. raise the clients chair up to bring the working area level with the clinicians eye level - correct answer Turn the mirror head so the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface Inactive ingredients help maintain the toothpaste's consistency to make it more palatable to the consumer. Active ingredients contribute to the therapeutic properties of dentifrice. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - correct answer Both are true What is the 1st clinical sign of demineralization? a. a dark spot in the pits and fissures b. white spot lesion c. when sealant is not retained d. biofilm on the tooth surface - correct answer A white spot lesion Piezo tips have a ____ movement whereas magnetostrictive inserts have a _____ movement. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers The preconditioning stage of biofilm attachment is considered a. Materia alba b. Acquired pellicle c. Glycocalyx d. None of the above - correct answer Acquired pellicle Which of the following is not a primary bacterium associated with biofilm formation A. S mutans B. S sanguinis C. Actinomyces viscosus D. S viscosus - correct answer Strep viscosus You can palpate mobility of your patient's maxillary centrals when he taps his teeth together. This is called a. Crepitus b. Fenestration c. Dehiscence d. Fremitus - correct answer Fremitus Which of the following is the best single estimate of the perio support around a tooth? NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A. Probing depths B. Clinical attachment level C. Bleeding on probing D. Radiographic assessment - correct answer CAL Which antibody is the most abundant type of antibody in the body? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgD d. IgE - correct answer IgG Which type of hepatitis is a dental hygienist LEAST likely to get? a. Hep A b. Hep B c. Hep C d. Hep E - correct answer Hep E In plaque biofilm, what makes up the bulk of the deposit? A. Bacteria B. Cytokines C. Acquired pellicle D. Exopolysaccharides - correct answer Exopolysaccharides NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Which is the first antibody to be produced after birth? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE - correct answer IgM Which antibody is involved in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? a. IgE b. IgD c. IgA d. IgG - correct answer IgE Which blood type can be given to all individuals? a. Type-O positive b. Type-O negative c. Type AB-positive d. Type AB-negative - correct answer Type O negative Microscopically, staph present as a. paired microbes b. grape-like clusters NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Which microscopic technique must be employed to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis? a. acid-fast staining b. dark field microscopy c. cassein-associated imaging d. scanning electron microscopy - correct answer Acid fast staining At what stage of bacterial growth are organisms MOST susceptible to antimicrobial action? a. lag phase b. death phase c. logarithmic phase d. stationary phase - correct answer Logarithmic phase Which bacteria is an early colonizer that is associated with the tongue? a. Streptococcus mitis b. Streptococcus sobrinus c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus sanguinis - correct answer Streptococcus salivarius Which characteristics are associated with porphyromonas gingivalis? NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers a. gram-negative bacillus, aciduric, stains blue b. grampositive rod, aerobe, produces collagenase c. gram-negative rod, obligate anaerobe, surface fimbrae d. gram-negative cocci, aerotolerant anaerobe, stains red - correct answer Gram negative rod, obligate anaerobe and surface fimbrae All of the following are RNA viruses except one. Which is the exception? A. HIV B. Mumps C. Hep A D. Epstein Barr - correct answer Epstein Barr Which of the following viruses has been linked to a heightened risk of oropharyngeal cancer? a. Coxsackie virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. human papilloma virus - correct answer Human papilloma virus A positive Mantoux skin test is an example of a. allergic dermatitis b. tuberculosis diagnosis NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers c. antibody mediatied reaction d. call-mediated hypersensitivity reaction - correct answer Cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction All of the following are characteristics of autoimmune disorders except one. Which condition is the exception? A. Early onset B. Multifactorial C. Antibody mediated D. More common in females - correct answer Early onset Which immune cell is MOST active in cellular immunity? A. T cell B. B cell C. Plasma cell D. Macrophage - correct answer T cell Allergies to pollen is an example of a. IgA stimulation b. Mast cell inactivity c. Humoral immunity d Primarily dependent on T cells - correct answer Humoral immunity NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. Macrophages D. Lymphocytes - correct answer Neutrophils What type of immunoglobulin is associated with Type I hypersensitivity reaction? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM - correct answer IgE PMNs and macrophages are involved in phagocytosis. Both of these cell types migrate to sites of inflammation to engulf bacteria and discharge granules consisting of microbial substances. a. Both are true b. Both are false c. First is true, second is false d. First is false, second is true - correct answer Both are true T lymphocytes a. mature in the thymus b. stimulate B lymphocytes c. are derived from bone marrow NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers d. all of the above - correct answer All of the above Which muscle shifts the mandible to the side of the face? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial Pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid E. Sternocleidomastoid - correct answer Lateral Pterygoid The maxillary teeth, buccal gingiva and pulp of molars are innervated by which cranial nerve? A. III B. IV C. V D. VII E. IX - correct answer CN V The submandibular gland lies superior to the digastric muscles, and divided into superficial and deep lobes, are separated by the mylohyoid muscle. It produces serous type secretion only from the Stenson's duct. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers D. First is false, second is true - correct answer -First is true, second is false -The submandibular gland produces both serous and mucous type secretions; this gland produces the most saliva and includes Wharton's duct All but which of the following contain taste buds? A. Foliate B. Filiform C. Fungiform D. Circumvallate E. Foliate lingual - correct answer Filiform Major branches of the maxillary artery include all but which of the following? A. Infraorbital B. Inferior alveolar C. Superior thyroid D. Greater palatine E. Posterior superior alveolar - correct answer Superior thyroid The pituitary gland is an endocrine protrusion off the bottom of the hypothalamus at the base of the brain. This gland is responsible for NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Temporalis D. Lateral pterygoid E. Medial pterygoid - correct answer Buccinator Which primary teeth erupt first? A. Maxillary incisors B. Mandibular incisors C. Mandibular cuspids D. Maxillary first molars E. Mandibular first molars - correct answer Mandibular central incisors In a patient that grinds, which muscles will be prominent? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Zygomaticus D. Medial Pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid - correct answer Masseter Which muscle retracts the tongue? A. Transverse NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers B. Hyoglossus C. Styloglossus D. Genioglossus E. Superior longitudinal - correct answer Styloglossus All of the following are branches of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve except which? A. Lingual B. Masseteric C. Deep temporal D. Inferior alveolar E. Superior alveolar - correct answer Superior alveolar The mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve exits where? A. Foramen ovale B. Jugular foramen C. Foramen rotundum D. internal orbital fissure E. Superior orbital fissure - correct answer Foramen ovale Hypomobility, due to loss of elasticity of the masticatory muscles or TMJ ligaments is known as trismus. Trismus results in dislocation of both joints. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - correct answer -First is true, second is false -Trismus is due to the loss of elasticity of the masticatory muscles or TMJ ligaments which results in limited ability to open the mouth -Subluxation is dislocation of both joints caused by opening the mouth too wide What are the muscles in the anterior triangle of the neck? - correct answer Carotid, submental and submandibular What are the muscles in the posterior triangle of the neck? - correct answer Occipital and subclavian Each of the following triangles is in the posterior triangle of the neck EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception? A. Carotid B. Occipital C. Subclavian D. None of the above - correct answer -Carotid -the anterior triangles of the neck contain carotid, submental and submandibular NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. amalgam c. porcelain d. composite e. porcelain fused to metal - correct answer Gold Triclosan is a toothpaste additive used to a. prevent caries b. control sensitivity c. eliminate oral malodor d. minimize the formation of calculus e. antimicrobial, specific for gingivitis - correct answer Antimicrobial; used specifically for gingivitis The best method to use when polishing teeth via rubber cup is a. the least abrasive agent with firm, constant pressure b. light intermittent pressure with coarse prophy paste c. highest speed, moderate pressure and appropriate prophy paste d. lowest speed, least abrasive agent with light, intermittent pressure - correct answer Lowest speed, least abrasive agent with light and intermittent pressure The main purpose for etching in preparing a tooth surface for a sealant is NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers a. increasing wettability of the enamel b. improving retention by cleaning the area to be sealed c. to form 'tags' or microscopic pores to retain material d. all of the above - correct answer To form "tags" or microscopic pores to retain material is the MAIN purpose Which best describes the type of retention seen with sealants A. Chemical B. Mechanical C. Chemo-mechanical D. None of the above - correct answer Mechanical Rubber cup or air polishing will remove which? A. Fluorosis B. White spots C. Intrinsic stains D. Extrinsic stains E. Tetracycline stains - correct answer Extrinsic stain What is the correct order for sealant placement? a. rinse, isolate, clean, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. clean, rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion c. isolate, clean, rinse, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion d. etch, rinse, dry, clean, rinse, isolate, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion e. check occlusion, clean rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate - correct answer b. Clean, rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion All of the following are considered anti plaque agents except which? A. Triclosan B. Essential oils C. Strontium chloride D. Cetylpyridinium chloride E. All of the above - correct answer Strontium chloride - for hypersensitivity Of gypsum materials, which is the most compressive/weak? a. Type II b. Type III c. Type IV d. A and B - correct answer Type II NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. amalgam c. composite d. resin glass ionomer - correct answer Amalgam Which of the following represents the smallest particle size for composite materials? A. Nanofill B. Microfill C. Macrofill D. Microhybrid - correct answer Nanofill All impression materials set by gelation with the exception of reversible hydrocolloid. Reversible hydrocolloids set by polymerization. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - correct answer -Both are false -All impression materials set by polymerization EXCEPT reversible hydrocolloid (agar) which sets through gelation Sensitivity can be treated clinically with 5% NaF varnishes which are FDA approved for treating hypersensitivity. Caries prevention is an off label and accepted use for 5% NaF Varnish. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - correct answer Both are true Caries or restoration on the incisal edge of anterior teeth or the cusp tips of posterior teeth is considered which GV black classification? a. class I b. class II c. class III d. class IV e. class V f. class VI - correct answer Class VI Calcium hydroxide is known for which property? A. Seals dentinal tubules B. Stimulates reparative dentin C. Has a sedative effect on pulp D. A & C - correct answer Stimulates reparative dentin Which provides desensitization via nerve depolarization? A. Calcium phosphate NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers B. Potassium nitrate C. Potassium oxalate D. Stannous Fluoride E. Strontium chloride - correct answer Potassium nitrate Which property may result in a metallic taste? A. Thermal conductivity B. Corrosion C. Galvanism D. Tarnish E. None of the above - correct answer Galvanism What is used as a measurement of heat transfer? A. Coefficient of thermal expansion B. Corrosion C. Hardness D. Tarnish E. Thermal conductivity - correct answer Thermal conductivity Which of the following materials has the highest thermal conductivity? A. Ceramics B. Composites NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers a. chromogenic bacteria influence the color b. gram-negative anaerobes predominate c. aerobic bacteria predominate in the slime layer d. the biofilm becomes calcified over time - correct answer Gram negative anaerobes predominate Which types of cells are responsible for resorption of cementum and bone in ortho tooth movement? a. cementoblasts b. fibroblasts c. osteoblasts d. cementoclasts e. osteoclasts - correct answer Osteoclasts All of the following conditions can be determined by radiographic examination EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Extent and severity of bone loss B. Height of crystal bone C. Widening of PDL space D. Presence of perio pockets E. Presence of calculus - correct answer Presence of perio pockets NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A 34 year old client with early chronic perio who smokes and has challenges with self care is new to your practice. All of the following initial or nonsurgical perio therapies are appropriate to recommend for this client except one. Which is the exception? A. Topical antimicrobial mouthrinse B. Gingival curettage C. Scaling and perio debridement D. Selective stain removal - correct answer Gingival curettage - has no significant benefit over scaling, debridement and root planning in the treatment of chronic perio Which structure demarcates the attached gingiva from the alveolar mucosa? a. junctional epithelium b. gingival margin c. gingival groove d. mucogingival junction - correct answer Mucogingival junction Which bacteria is tissue invading and thus associated with destruction of collagen and resorption of bone in periodontitis? a. actinomyces viscosus b. porphyromonas gingivalis c. treponema pallidum d. streptococcus sanguis - correct answer P. gingivalis NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Supragingival calculus is primarily composed of a. calcium carbonate b. calcium phosphate c. glycoproteins d. magnesium - correct answer Calcium phosphate Which type of perio disease is characterized by gray, sloughing tissue, pain and spontaneous bleeding? a. pericoronitis b. pregnancy-related gingivitis c. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis d. gingival abscess - correct answer Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis Which condition should be suspected when a radiolucent area occurs at the apex of the root of a tooth on a radiograph? a. periodontal abscess b. pyogenic granuloma c. occlusal trauma d. periapical abscess - correct answer Periapical abscess What is the principle etiologic agent of periodontitis? NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers D. Pocket reduction or elimination - correct answer Guided tissue regeneration The most common oral site for donor tissue for free gingival graft procedures is the a. palate b. tongue c. lingual mucosa d. fresh extraction site - correct answer Palate Which of the following findings would indicate a failed dental implant? A. Peri implant inflammation B. BOP C. Alveolar bone loss D. Mobility - correct answer Mobility All of the following are advantages of controlled drug delivery (sustained release drug delivery) over systemic drug administration in periodontal therapy EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Less concern about client adherence throughout indicated time frame B. Site specific antimicrobial action in perio pocket C. High concentration delivered to the site of infection NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers D. Can be used when periodontal infection is generalized or severe - correct answer -Can be used when periodontal infection is generalized or severe -controlled (sustained release) drug delivery is site specific and application is limited to a specific number of sites depending on the drug selected -therefore, systemic antibiotics are used for generalized conditions warranting antibiotic therapy Which of the following oral conditions are contagious? A. Acute pericoronitis B. Chronic perio C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. NUG - correct answer Herpetic gingivostomatitis Which of the following local anesthetic agents may be useful in patients with hepatic dysfunction? A. Articaine B. Lidocaine C. Bupivacine D. Mepivacaine - correct answer Articaine: only amide with an ester link; primarily metabolized in plasma NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers When a drug enters the bloodstream, what portion of the agent exerts its therapeutic effect? a. the free form of the drug in plasma b. that portion of the drug bound to albumin c. the metabolized portion of the drug in plasma d. once administered, all portions of the medicament are therapeutic - correct answer The free form of the drug in plasma How does penicillin exert its bactericidal properties? a. produces endotoxin b. destroys cell wall integrity c. interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis d. destroys bacterial endoplasmic reticulum function - correct answer Destroys cell wall integrity Pharmacokinetics refers to what happens to a drug from entrance into the body until the exit of all traces of the medicament. All of the following are processes involved with pharmacokinetics of medications EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Excretion B. Absorption C. Distribution D. Mechanism of action - correct answer Mechanism of action NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers The metabolite formed during metabolism (biotransformation) is more polar and less lipid soluble than its parent compound. This allows for the metabolite to be excreted. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer Both parts are true What part of a prescription instructs the patient how to take the medication? a. ac b. sig c. q3h d. stat - correct answer B. sig which means write on label. -ac: at meals -q3h: every 3 hours -stat: immediately All of the following meds affect bleeding times Except one. Which is the exception? A. Aspirin B. ibuprofen NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. Coumadin D. Acetaminophen - correct answer Acetaminophen A patient reports using fluticasone (Flovent) to control asthma symptoms. Upon exam, you notice white patches on the soft palate. What is the likely cause? a. stomatitis b. linea alba c. SLS allergy d. candidiasis - correct answer Candidiasis Fosamax is often used as a medication to treat osteoporosis. What adverse oral side effect has been linked to Fosamax use? a. candidiasis b. necrosis of the mandible c. increased aphthous ulcer incidence d. widened periodontal ligament space - correct answer Necrosis of the mandible Nitrous oxide is eliminated via a. exhalation b. excretion in the urine c. p-450 enzyme system NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers d. biotransformation in the respiratory system - correct answer Exhalation Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is allergic to it? a. penecillin b. clindamycin c. erythromycin d. metronidazole - correct answer Penicillin Primary site for drug metabolism a. liver b. sweat c. kidneys d. gingival crevicular fluid - correct answer Liver Your patient presents with peptic ulcer disease and is taking Coumadin for stroke prevention. Which of the following analgesic agents should you recommend following invasive procedures? a. Aspirin b. ibuprofen c. naproxen d. acetaminophen - correct answer Acetaminophen NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Nystatin is used for the treatment of a. herpes b. linea alba c. lichen planus d. oral candidiasis - correct answer Oral candidiasis Dental local anesthetic with vasoconstricting agents must be limited to the cardiac dose for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants. These drugs when administered together have a risk of producing severe hypotension. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer -First part is true, the second is false -These can be safely administered to pts. without pre-existing arrhythmias The 1st line of treatment for intermittent asthma is a a. corticosteroid b. mast cell degranulation inhibitor c. long acting beta2-adrenergic agonist d. short acting beta2-adrenergic agonist - correct answer Short acting B2 adrenergic agonist NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers When the SANS is stimulated, the adrenal medulla releases primarily what neurotransmitter into the systemic circulation? a. muscarine b. epinephrine c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine - correct answer Epinephrine The addition of vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic has all of the following purposes except one. Which is the exception? A. Reduces systemic toxicity B. Limits systemic absorption C. Increases systemic toxicity D. Increases duration of anesthesia E. Reduces blood supply to the area - correct answer Increases systemic toxicity Diazepam may be administered for treatment of which emergency? a. asthma b. seizure c. hypoglycemia d. hyperglycemia e. anaphylactic shock - correct answer Seizure NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A dose-related reaction that produces undesirable effects caused by the action on nontarget organs is called a. side effect b. drug allergy c. toxic reaction d. therapeutic effect - correct answer A side effect Which of the following choices has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and anti platelet action? A. Aspirin B. Codeine C. Hydrocodone D. Acetaminophen - correct answer Aspirin The most common adverse reaction associated with any insulin product is a. bradycardia b. hypoglycemia c. hyperglycemia d. intestinal stasis - correct answer Hypoglycemia NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Characteristic hyperplasia of which papillae is termed hairy tongue a. foliate b. filiform c. fungiform d. circumvallate - correct answer Filiform papillae A ranula is usually found on the a. mucosa b. vestibule c. labial fold d. floor of mouth - correct answer Floor of the mouth All of the following meds have been associated with gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT A. Fosamax B. Phenytoin C. Nifedipine D. Cyclosporine - correct answer Fosamax - bisphosphonate that may induce osteonecrosis of the jaw Wickham's striae is seen with NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers a. lichen planus b. Kaposi's sarcoma c. erythema multiforme d. lupus erythematosus - correct answer Lichen planus Which is a multilocular radiolucency (honey combed) usually found in the posterior region of the mandible? A. Cementoma B. Radicular cyst C. Ameloblastoma D. Condensing osteitis - correct answer Ameloblastoma Which one of the following is FALSE concerning Addison's disease? A. Bronzing of skin B. Patient may experience pathologic fracture C. Known as primary adrenal cortical insufficiency D. May be caused by a malignant tumor that destroys adrenal gland - correct answer Patient may experience pathologic fracture Hyperthyroidism in children can lead to a. ankylosis b. partial anodontia NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers c. amelogenesis imperfecta d. early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruption of permanent teeth - correct answer Early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruption of the permanent teeth Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and abnormal bone metabolism are characteristic of which condition? a. hypothyroidism b. hyperpituitarism c. hyperparathyroidism d. hyperparapituitarism - correct answer Hyperparathyroidism Which of the following is typically an acute metabolic complication of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus? A. Retinal damage B. Ketoacidosis C. Atherosclerosis D. End stage kidney failure - correct answer Ketoacidosis Polydipsia, polyuria and polyphagia are all characteristic of a. hyperthyroidism b. Addison's disease c. hyperparathyroidism NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Which microorganism is associated with Tuberculosis? A. Treponema pallidum B. Actinomycosis israelii C. Mycobacterium israelii D. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis - correct answer Mycobacterium TB A positive skin reaction to PPD indicates a. active tuberculosis b. need for antibiotics c. contagious tuberculosis d. exposure to the tuberculosis bacteria - correct answer Exposure to TB All are clinical characteristics of NUG EXCEPT A. Foul odor B. Xerostomia C. Metallic taste D. Painful gingiva - correct answer Xerostomia All contribute to development of oral candidiasis except A. Xerostomia B. Herpangina NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers C. HIV infection D. Antibiotic therapy - correct answer Herpangina What is the term for the theory that a disease can be attributed to many factors? a. dimensional b. multifactorial c. naturalization d. cause and effect - correct answer Multifactorial A negatively skewed distribution has a curve that is shifted to the left. The curve of a negatively skewed distribution results from more scores falling in the lower range. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer -Both parts are false -A negatively skewed distribution has a curve that is shifted to the RIGHT and does so due to more scores falling in the HIGHER range -The situation described in the question is a positively skewed distribution NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a given period of time is referred to as a. incidence b. mortality c. causality d. prevalence e. morbidity - correct answer Incidence During which stage does the RDH develop a blueprint? A. Planning B. Evaluation C. Assessment D. Implementation E. Dental hygiene diagnosis - correct answer Planning Designing a community health program in the local community that provides mouthguard to the student athletes is what type of prevention? a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. modern prevention - correct answer Primary prevention NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer -First part is true, the second is false -It determines the prevalence and severity of gingivitis Which of the following refers to a relationship or association between variables that can be measured mathematically A. Trend B. Causality C. Correlation D. Probability - correct answer -Correlation -the closer the number to 1, the stronger the relationship -the closer the number to 0, the weaker the relationship Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is arranged in what order a. numerical b. alphabetical c. multidimensional fields d. lower to higher level needs - correct answer -Lower to higher levels: one must meet the lower level before moving up -Physiological -> safety -> love and belonging -> self esteem -> self actualization NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers A risk factor is a non-modifiable attribute that is associated with the increased probability of disease. A risk factor has been identified with longitudinal studies. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer -First part is false, the second is true -A risk factor IS modifiable. This is an attribute one can change -ex: smoking puts you at a higher risk for periodontal disease. What type of exam uses a mouth mirror, explorer and adequate illumination but NO radiographs? a. type I b. type 2 c. type 3 d. type 4 - correct answer Type 3 After giving a patient toothbrushing instructions, the Patient Hygiene Performance Index (PHP) assesses the extent of what? a. gingival bleeding b. plaque and debris NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers c. gingival inflammation d. clinical attachment loss - correct answer Plaque and debris Demographic information suggests a negative correlation between dental decay and SES. This means that as a SES decreases, the observance of dental decay increases. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer Both parts are true A small version of a proposed study that is used to test the design prior to the long term study is called a a. case study b. pilot study c. pivotal study d. descriptive study - correct answer Pilot study The number of all existing cases of a disease in a population measured at a given point is referred to as a. incidence b. mortality NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. What type of exam is used in this program? - correct answer Type 4 The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers What would be the mean score for the PHP t - correct answer B. 2.31 The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. What would be the mode from this list of P - correct answer 2.5 The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. When looking at the correlation test betwe - correct answer -strong positive correlation -directly related= positive -indirectly related= negative -closer to 0= weak -closer to 1= strong The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers Mucosal pallor, delayed tooth eruption, and atrophy of tongue papillae are all oral manifestations of a. hepatitis b. Crohn's disease c. sickle cell anemia d. chronic renal failure - correct answer Sickle Cell Anemia Stage 2 HTN is classified when a client's BP is a consistent reading of A. 145/98 B. 110/75 C. 120/80 D. 180/120 - correct answer 145/98 Which type of hepatitis is caused by poor hygiene, transmitted via oral- fecal route? a. Type A and E b. Type A, B, C c. Type B and E d. Type D and E - correct answer Type A & E Which condition is associated with diffuse pigmentation of the skin and mucosa caused by insufficient adrenal cortical steroid production? a. Myxedema NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers b. diabetes mellitus c. Addison's disease d. Cushing's syndrome - correct answer Addison's disease According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), in public facilities both architectural and communication barriers must be removed. A dentist who leases an office is not responsible for ensuring that the office is accessible to people with disabilities. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - correct answer -First part is true, the second is false -A dentist IS responsible All of the following are examples of instrumental activities of daily living (IADL's) except A. Client can brush his teeth B. Client can clean his house C. Client can cook dinner for himself D. Client can drive a van adapted for his impairment - correct answer Client can brush his teeth NBDHE Practice Questions And Answers What level of functional limitation would a client who uses adaptive equipment, such as an augmentative and alternative communication device, be classified as exhibiting? a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV - correct answer Level II What is the most common type of diabetes? a. type I b. type II c. gestational d. prediabetes - correct answer Type II Which condition is a severe asthmatic attack that will not respond to treatment? a. dyspnea b. intrinsic asthma c. extrinsic asthma d. status asthmaticus - correct answer Status asthmaticus