NCLEX Exam Acute Kidney Injury, Immune Responses Transfusions and Transplantation, Burns, Exams of Nursing

Download NCLEX Exam Acute Kidney Injury, Immune Responses Transfusions and Transplantation, Burns and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NCLEX Exam Acute Kidney Injury, Immune Responses Transfusions and Transplantation, Burns Exam New 2024 Version with Questions and Answers Burns The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require an intervention by the charge nurse? a. The new nurse uses clean latex gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound. b. The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2° F (35.1° C). c. The new nurse administers PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change. d. The new nurse calls the health care provider for a possible insulin order when a nondiabetic patient's serum glucose is elevated. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: A Sterile gloves should be worn when applying medications or dressings to a burn. Hypothermia is an indicator of possible sepsis, and cultures are appropriate. Nondiabetic patients may require insulin because stress and high calorie intake may lead to temporary hyperglycemia. Fentanyl peaks 5 minutes after IV administration, and should be used just before and during dressing changes for pain management. The nurse is caring for a patient with partial- and full-thickness burns to 65% of the body. When planning nutritional interventions for this patient, the nurse should implement which of the following dietary choices? A. Full liquids only B. Whatever the patient requests C. High-protein and low-sodium foods D. High-calorie and high-protein foods ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d. A hypermetabolic state occurs proportional to the size of the burn area. Massive catabolism can occur and is characterized by protein breakdown and increases gluconeogenesis. Caloric needs are often in the 5000-kcal range. Failure to supply adequate calories and protein leads to malnutrition and delayed healing. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with first- and second-degree burns after being involved in a house fire. Which of the following assessment findings would alert you to the presence of an inhalation injury (select all that apply)? A.Singed nasal hair B.Generalized pallor C.Painful swallowing D.Burns on the upper extremities E.History of being involved in a large fire ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a, c. Reliable clues to the occurrence of inhalation injury is the presence of facial burns, singed nasal hair, hoarseness, painful swallowing, darkened oral and nasal membranes, carbonaceous sputum, history of being burned in an enclosed space, and cherry red skin color When caring for a patient with an electrical burn injury, the nurse should question a health care provider's order for A. Mannitol 75 gm IV. B. Urine for myoglobulin. C. Lactated Ringer's at 25 ml/hr. D. Sodium bicarbonate 24 mEq every 4 hours. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. Electrical injury puts the patient at risk for myoglobinuria, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis (ATN). Treatment consists of infusing lactated Ringer's at a rate sufficient to maintain urinary output at 75 to 100 ml/hr. Mannitol can also be used to maintain urine output. Sodium bicarbonate may be given to alkalinize the urine. The urine would also be monitored for the presence of myoglobin. An infusion rate of 25 ml/hr is not sufficient to maintain adequate urine output in prevention and treatment of ATN. Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who has suffered a burn injury while working on an electrical power line? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Stabilize the cervical spine. c. Assess for the contact points. d. Check alertness and orientation. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: B Cervical spine injuries are commonly associated with electrical burns. Therefore stabilization of the cervical spine takes precedence after airway management. The other actions are also included in the emergent care after electrical burns, but the most important action is to avoid spinal cord injury. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient in the rehabilitation phase after a burn injury to the right arm and chest? a. Keep the right arm in a position of comfort. b. Avoid the use of sustained-release narcotics. c. Teach about the purpose of tetanus immunization. d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently. ---------- Correct Answer --------- -- ANS: D Application of water-based emollients will moisturize new skin and decrease flakiness and itching. To avoid contractures, the joints of the right arm should be positioned in an extended position, which is not the position of comfort. Patients may need to continue the use of opioids during rehabilitation. Tetanus immunization would have been given during the emergent phase of the burn injury. C) Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis D) Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: Fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury include hyperkalemia related to the release of potassium into the extracellular fluid, hyponatremia from large amounts of sodium lost in trapped edema fluid, hemoconcentration that leads to an increased hematocrit, and loss of bicarbonate ions that results in metabolic acidosis. A patient has experienced an electrical burn and has developed thick eschar over the burn site. Which of the following topical antibacterial agents will the nurse expect the physician to order for the wound? A) Silver sulfadiazine 1% (Silvadene) water-soluble cream B) Mafenide acetate 10% (Sulfamylon) hydrophilic-based cream C) Silver nitrate 0.5% aqueous solution D) Acticoat ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: B Feedback: Mafenide acetate 10% hydrophilic-based cream is the agent of choice when there is a need to penetrate thick eschar. Silver products do not penetrate eschar; Acticoat is a type of silver dressing. An occupational health nurse is called to the floor of a factory where a worker has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to ìcool the burn.î How should the nurse cool the burn? A) Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes. B) Wrap the patient's affected extremity in ice until help arrives. C) Apply an oil-based substance or butter to the burned area until help arrives. D) Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: D Feedback: Once the burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burn area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain, and limits local tissue edema and damage. However, never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns. Butter is contraindicated. An emergency department nurse has just admitted a patient with a burn. What characteristic of the burn will primarily determine whether the patient experiences a systemic response to this injury? A) The length of time since the burn B) The location of burned skin surfaces C) The source of the burn D) The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn ---------- Correct Answer ----- ------ Ans: D Feedback: Systemic effects are a result of several variables. However, TBSA and wound severity are considered the major factors that affect the presence or absence of systemic effects. A nurse on a burn unit is caring for a patient in the acute phase of burn care. While performing an assessment during this phase of burn care, the nurse recognizes that airway obstruction related to upper airway edema may occur up to how long after the burn injury? A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 5 days D) 1 week ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: Airway obstruction caused by upper airway edema can take as long as 48 hours to develop. Changes detected by x-ray and arterial blood gases may occur as the effects of resuscitative fluid and the chemical reaction of smoke ingredients with lung tissues become apparent. A patient has sustained a severe burn injury and is thought to have an impaired intestinal mucosal barrier. Since this patient is considered at an increased risk for infection, what intervention will best assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation? A) Early enteral feeding B) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics C) Bowel cleansing procedures D) Administration of stool softeners ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: If the intestinal mucosa receives some type of protection against permeability change, infection could be avoided. Early enteral feeding is one step to help avoid this increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation. Antibiotics are seldom prescribed prophylactically because of the risk of promoting resistant strains of bacteria. A bowel cleansing procedure would not be ordered for this patient. The administration of stool softeners would not assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation. A patient has been admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns over 25% of the body. After ensuring cardiopulmonary stability, what would be the nurse's immediate, priority concern when planning this patient's care? A) Fluid status B) Risk of infection C) Nutritional status D) Psychosocial coping ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: During the early phase of burn care, the nurse is most concerned with fluid resuscitation, to correct large-volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. Infection control and early nutritional support are important, but fluid resuscitation is an immediate priority. Coping is a higher priority later in the recovery period. The nurse is preparing the patient for mechanical dÈbridement and informs the patient that this will involve which of the following procedures? A) A spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue B) Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs C) Shaving of burned skin layers until bleeding, viable tissue is revealed D) Early closure of the wound ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: B Feedback: Mechanical dÈbridementcan be achieved through the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs. Mechanical dÈbridement can also be accomplished through the use of topical enzymatic dÈbridement agents. The spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue is an example of natural dÈbridement. Shaving the burned skin layers and early wound closure are examples of surgical dÈbridement. A patient with a partial-thickness burn injury had Biobrane applied 2 weeks ago. The nurse notices that the Biobrane is separating from the burn wound. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention? A) Reinforce the Biobrane dressing with another piece of Biobrane. B) Remove the Biobrane dressing and apply a new dressing. C) Trim away the separated Biobrane. D) Notify the physician for further emergency-related orders. ---------- Correct Answer --- -------- Ans: C Feedback: As the Biobrane gradually separates, it is trimmed, leaving a healed wound. When the Biobrane dressing adheres to the wound, the wound remains stable and the Biobrane can remain in place for 3 to 4 weeks. There is no need to reinforce the Biobrane nor to remove it and apply a new dressing. There is not likely any need to notify the physician for further orders. An emergency department nurse learns from the paramedics that they are transporting a patient who has suffered injury from a scald from a hot kettle. What variables will the nurse consider when determining the depth of burn? A) The causative agent B) The patient's preinjury health status C) The patient's prognosis for recovery D) The circumstances of the accident ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: The following factors are considered in determining the depth of a burn: how the injury occurred, causative agent (such as flame or scalding liquid), temperature of the burning agent, duration of contact with the agent, and thickness of the skin. The patient's for the prevention of contractures. Joint alignment is not maintained specifically for preventing neuropathy, wound breakdown, or heterotopic ossification. A patient's burns have required a homograft. During the nurse's most recent assessment, the nurse observes that the graft is newly covered with purulent exudate. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Perform mechanical dÈbridement to remove the exudate and prevent further infection. B) Inform the primary care provider promptly because the graft may need to be removed. C) Perform range of motion exercises to increase perfusion to the graft site and facilitate healing. D) Document this finding as an expected phase of graft healing. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: B Feedback: An infected graft may need to be removed, thus the care provider should be promptly informed. ROM exercises will not resolve this problem and the nurse would not independently perform dÈbridement. A nurse who is taking care of a patient with burns is asked by a family member why the patient is losing so much weight. The patient is currently in the intermediate phase of recovery. What would be the nurse's most appropriate response to the family member? A) ìHe's on a calorie-restricted diet in order to divert energy to wound healing.î B) ìHis body has consumed his fat deposits for fuel because his calorie intake is lower than normal.î C) ìHe actually hasn't lost weight. Instead, there's been a change in the distribution of his body fat.î D) ìHe lost many fluids while he was being treated in the emergency phase of burn care.î ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: B Feedback: Patients lose a great deal of weight during recovery from severe burns. Reserve fat deposits are catabolized as a result of hypermetabolism. Patients are not placed on a calorie restriction during recovery and fluid losses would not account for weight loss later in the recovery period. Changes in the overall distribution of body fat do not occur. When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: B With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema, swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain. On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which action will the nurse anticipate taking now? a. Monitor urine output every 4 hours. b. Continue to monitor the laboratory results. c. Increase the rate of the ordered IV solution. d. Type and crossmatch for a blood transfusion. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: C The patient's laboratory data show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased. Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase once the patient's fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit, the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours; likely every1 hour. A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: B The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema and the health care provider should be notified immediately, so that intubation can be done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is inappropriate because immediate action should occur. A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 350 mL/hour b. 523 mL/hour c. 938 mL/hour d. 1250 mL/hour ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: C Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr. During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: D When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour. The patient's weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions are maintaining adequate perfusion. A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action? a. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings. b. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter. c. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day. d. Administer multiple vitamins and minerals in the IV solution. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- ANS: A Enteral feedings can usually be initiated during the emergent phase at low rates and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase, the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins and minerals may be administered during the emergent phase, but these will not assist in meeting the patient's caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely used in burn patients. While the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what is the best nursing action to prevent cross contamination? a. Use sterile gloves when removing old dressings. b. Wear gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all care of the patient. c. Administer IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds. d. Turn the room temperature up to at least 70° F (20° C) during dressing changes. ------ ---- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: B Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered. When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at approximately 85° F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering. Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of circulation. A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for cervical spine injury, and assessments of extremity movement will provide baseline data. The other assessment data are also necessary but not as essential as determining the cervical spine status. An employee spills industrial acids on both arms and legs at work. What is the priority action that the occupational health nurse at the facility should take? a. Remove nonadherent clothing and watch. b. Apply an alkaline solution to the affected area. c. Place cool compresses on the area of exposure. d. Cover the affected area with dry, sterile dressings. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: A With chemical burns, the initial action is to remove the chemical from contact with the skin as quickly as possible. Remove nonadherent clothing, shoes, watches, jewelry, glasses, or contact lenses (if face was exposed). Flush chemical from wound and surrounding area with copious amounts of saline solution or water. Covering the affected area or placing cool compresses on the area will leave the chemical in contact with the skin. Application of an alkaline solution is not recommended. A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. b. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV. c. Assess orientation and level of consciousness. d. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: D Agitation in a patient who may have suffered inhalation injury might indicate hypoxia, and this should be assessed by the nurse first. Administration of morphine may be indicated if the nurse determines that the agitation is caused by pain. Assessing level of consciousness and orientation is also appropriate but not as essential as determining whether the patient is hypoxemic. Reassurance is not helpful to reduce agitation in a hypoxemic patient. A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's lung sounds. b. Determine the extent and depth of the burns. c. Infuse the ordered lactated Ringer's solution. d. Administer the ordered hydromorphone (Dilaudid). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: A A patient with facial and chest burns is at risk for inhalation injury, and assessment of airway and breathing is the priority. The other actions will be completed after airway management is assured. A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess oral temperature. b. Check a potassium level. c. Place on cardiac monitor. d. Assess for pain at contact points. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: C After an electrical burn, the patient is at risk for fatal dysrhythmias and should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Assessing the oral temperature is not as important as assessing for cardiac dysrhythmias. Checking the potassium level is important. However, it will take time before the laboratory results are back. The first intervention is to place the patient on a cardiac monitor and assess for dysrhythmias, so that they can be treated if occurring. A decreased or increased potassium level will alert the nurse to the possibility of dysrhythmias. The cardiac monitor will alert the nurse immediately of any dysrhythmias. Assessing for pain is important, but the patient can endure pain until the cardiac monitor is attached. Cardiac dysrhythmias can be lethal. Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA) the nurse assesses the patient. Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. c. Cardiac monitor shows a pulse rate of 108. d. Urine output is 20 mL per hour for the past 2 hours. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: D The urine output should be at least 0.5 to 1.0 mL/kg/hr during the emergent phase, when the patient is at great risk for hypovolemic shock. The nurse should notify the health care provider because a higher IV fluid rate is needed. BP during the emergent phase should be greater than 90 systolic, and the pulse rate should be less than 120. Serous exudate from the burns is expected during the emergent phase. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status b. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who has a dressing change scheduled c. A patient with abdominal burns who is complaining of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain d. A patient with 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hour ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: A This patient has evidence of lower airway injury and hypoxemia and should be assessed immediately to determine the need for oxygen or intubation. The other patients should also be assessed as rapidly as possible, but they do not have evidence of life-threatening complications. Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A 34-year-old patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and requires enteral feedings. b. A 67-year-old patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration c. A 46-year-old patient who has just come back to the unit after having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest d. A 65-year-old patient who has twice-daily burn debridements and dressing changes to partial-thickness facial burns ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: A An RN from a medical unit would be familiar with malnutrition and with administration and evaluation of response to enteral feedings. The other patients require burn assessment and care that is more appropriate for staff who regularly care for burned patients. A patient who was found unconscious in a burning house is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse notes that the patient's skin color is bright red. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert two large-bore IV lines. b. Check the patient's orientation. c. Assess for singed nasal hair and dark oral mucous membranes. d. Place the patient on 100% oxygen using a non-rebreather mask. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: D The patient's history and skin color suggest carbon monoxide poisoning, which should be treated by rapidly starting oxygen at 100%. The other actions can be taken after the action to correct gas exchange. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse? a. Hematocrit 53% b. Serum sodium 147 mEq/L c. Serum potassium 6.1 mEq/L d. Blood urea nitrogen 37 mg/dL ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ANS: C Hyperkalemia can lead to fatal dysrhythmias and indicates that the patient requires cardiac monitoring and immediate treatment to lower the potassium level. The other laboratory values are also abnormal and require changes in treatment, but they are not as immediately life threatening as the elevated potassium level. A nurse has reported for a shift at a busy burns and plastics unit in a large university hospital. Which patient is most likely to have life-threatening complications? A) A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body B) A 27-year-old male burned over 36% of his body in a car accident C) A 39-year-old female patient burned over 18% of her body D) A 60-year-old male burned over 16% of his body in a brush fire ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: Young children and the elderly continue to have increased morbidity and mortality when compared to other age groups with similar injuries and present a challenge for burn care. This is an important factor when determining the severity of injury and possible outcome for the patient. A large majority of burns occur in the home setting; educational interventions should address this epidemiologic trend. A nurse is performing a home visit to a patient who is recovering following a long course of inpatient treatment for burn injuries. When performing this home visit, the nurse should do which of the following? A) Assess the patient for signs of electrolyte imbalances. B) Administer fluids as ordered. C) Assess the risk for injury recurrence. D) Assess the patient's psychosocial state. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: D Feedback: Recovery from burns can be psychologically challenging; the nurse's assessments must address this reality. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances are infrequent during the rehabilitation phase of recovery. Burns are not typically a health problem that tends to recur; the experience of being burned tends to foster vigilance. A patient has experienced burns to his upper thighs and knees. Following the application of new wound dressings, the nurse should perform what nursing action? A) Instruct the patient to keep the wound site in a dependent position. B) Administer PRN analgesia as ordered. C) Assess the patient's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. D) Assist with passive range of motion exercises to ìsetî the new dressing. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: C Feedback: Dressings can impede circulation if they are wrapped too tightly. The peripheral pulses must be checked frequently and burned extremities elevated. Dependent positioning does not need to be maintained. PRN analgesics should be administered prior to the dressing change. ROM exercises do not normally follow a dressing change. A nurse is caring for a patient with burns who is in the later stages of the acute phase of recovery. The plan of nursing care should include which of the following nursing actions? A) Maintenance of bed rest to aid healing B) Choosing appropriate splints and functional devices C) Administration of beta adrenergic blockers D) Prevention of venous thromboembolism ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: D Feedback: Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an important factor in care. Early mobilization of the patient is important. The nurse monitors the splints and functional devices, but these are selected by occupational and physical therapists. The hemodynamic changes accompanying burns do not normally require the use of beta blockers. A patient is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care is Ineffective Coping Related to Trauma of Burn Injury. What interventions appropriately address this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Promote truthful communication. B) Avoid asking the patient to make decisions. C) Teach the patient coping strategies. D) Administer benzodiazepines as ordered. E) Provide positive reinforcement. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A, C, E Feedback: The nurse can assist the patient to develop effective coping strategies by setting specific expectations for behavior, promoting truthful communication to build trust, helping the patient practice appropriate strategies, and giving positive reinforcement when appropriate. The patient may benefit from being able to make decisions regarding his or her care. Benzodiazepines may be needed for short-term management of anxiety, but they are not used to enhance coping. A patient who was burned in a workplace accident has completed the acute phase of treatment and the plan of care has been altered to prioritize rehabilitation. What nursing action should be prioritized during this phase of treatment? A) Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances B) Providing education to the patient and family C) Treating infection D) Promoting thermoregulation ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: B Feedback: Patient and family education is a priority during rehabilitation. There should be no fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the rehabilitation phase. The presence of impaired thermoregulation or infection would suggest that the patient is still in the acute phase of burn recovery. A burn patient is transitioning from the acute phase of the injury to the rehabilitation phase. The patient tells the nurse, ìI can't wait to have surgery to reconstruct my face so I look normal again.î What would be the nurse's best response? A) ìThat's something that you and your doctor will likely talk about after your scars mature.î B) ìThat is something for you to talk to your doctor about because it's not a nursing responsibility.î C) ìI know this is really important to you, but you have to realize that no one can make you look like you used to.î D) ìUnfortunately, it's likely that you will have most of these scars for the rest of your life.î ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: A Feedback: Burn reconstruction is a treatment option after all scars have matured and is discussed within the first few years after injury. Even though this is not a nursing responsibility, the nurse should still respond appropriately to the patient's query. It is true that the patient will not realistically look like he or she used to, but this does not instill hope. A patient who is in the acute phase of recovery from a burn injury has yet to experience adequate pain control. What pain management strategy is most likely to meet this patient's needs? A) A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system B) Oral opioids supplemented by NSAIDs C) Distraction and relaxation techniques supplemented by NSAIDs D) A combination of benzodiazepines and topical anesthetics ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- Ans: A Feedback: The goal of treatment is to provide a long-acting analgesic that will provide even coverage for this long-term discomfort. It is helpful to use escalating doses when initiating the medication to reach the level of pain control that is acceptable to the patient. The use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) gives control to the patient and achieves this goal. Patients cannot normally achieve adequate pain control without the use of opioids, and parenteral administration is usually required. The nurse caring for a patient who is recovering from full-thickness burns is aware of the patient's risk for contracture and hypertrophic scarring. How can the nurse best mitigate this risk? A) Apply skin emollients as ordered after granulation has occurred. B) Keep injured areas immobilized whenever possible to promote healing. C) Administer oral or IV corticosteroids as ordered. D) Encourage physical activity and range of motion exercises. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- Ans: D Feedback: Exercise and the promotion of mobility can reduce the risk of contracture and hypertrophic scarring. Skin emollients are not normally used in the treatment of burns, and these do not prevent scarring. Steroids are not used to reduce scarring, as they also slow the healing process. While performing a patient's ordered wound care for the treatment of a burn, the patient has made a series of sarcastic remarks to the nurse and criticized her technique. How should the nurse best interpret this patient's behavior? A) The patient may be experiencing an adverse drug reaction that is affecting his cognition and behavior. B) The patient may be experiencing neurologic or psychiatric complications of his injuries. C) The patient may be experiencing inconsistencies in the care that he is being provided. D) The patient may be experiencing anger about his circumstances that he is deflecting toward the nurse. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ans: D Feedback: The patient may experience feelings of anger. The anger may be directed outward toward those who escaped unharmed or toward those who are now providing care. While drug reactions, complications, and frustrating inconsistencies in care cannot be automatically ruled out, it is not uncommon for anger to be directed at caregivers. d. singed hair ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a. coughing and wheezing may indicate that the child has inhaled smoke or toxic fumes. Maintaining airway patency is the highest nursing priority in this situation. The condition of a client with extensive third degree burns begins to deteriorate. The nurse is aware that which type of shock may occur as a result of inadequate circulating blood volume that occurs with a burn injury? a. cardiogenic b. distributive c. hypovolemic d. septic ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. burns and the resulting low circulating fluid volume can cause hypovolemic shock. What is the best method for preventing hypovolemic shock in a client admitted with severe burns? a. administering dopamine b. applying medical antishock trousers c. infusing i.v. fluids d. infusing fresh frozen plasma ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. during the early postburn period, large amounts of plasma fluid extravasates into interstitial spaces. Restoring the fluid loss is necessary to prevent hypovolemic shock; this is best accomplished with crystalloid and colloid solutions. A client is admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full thickness burns. What should be the nurse's initial concern? a. fluid status b. risk for infection c. body image d. level of pain ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a. in early burn care, the client's greatest need has to do with fluid resuscitation because of large volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. A triage nurse in the ED admits a 50 year old male client with second degree burns on the anterior and posterior portions of both legs. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of his body is burned? Record your answer using a whole number. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 36 The anterior and posterior portions of one leg are 18%, if both legs are burned, the total is 36%. A nurse is caring for a client with a new donor site that was harvested to treat a burn. The nurse should position the client to: a. allow ventilation of the site b. make the site dependent c. avoid pressure on the site d. keep the site fully covered ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. a universal concern in the care of donor sites for burn care is to keep the site away from sources of pressure. Knowing the most common causes of household fires, which of the following prevention strategies would the nurse focus on when teaching about fire safety? a. set how water temp at 140 F b. use only hardwired smoke detectors c. encourage regular home fire exit drills d. never permit older adults to cook unattended. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. The injury that is least likely to result in a full thickness burn is: a. sunburn b. scald injury c. chemical burn d. electrical injury ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a. When assessing a pt with a partial thickness burn, the nurse would expect to find (select all that apply) a. blisters b. exposed fascia c. exposed muscles d. intact nerve endings e. red, shiny, wet appearance ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a, d, e A patient is admitted to the burn center with burns over his head, neck, chest, back, and left arm and hand after an explosion and fire in his garage. On admission to the unit, you auscultate wheezes throughout the lung fields. On reassessment, you notice that the wheezes are gone and the breath sounds are greatly diminished. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate next step? a. place the pt in high fowler's position b. encourage the pt to cough and auscultate the lungs again c. document the results and continue to monitor the pt's progress d. anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation and notify the physician ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d. Anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation, and notify the physician. Inhalation injury results in exposure of respiratory tract to intense heat or flames with inhalation of noxious chemicals, smoke, or carbon monoxide. You should anticipate the need for intubation. Fluid and electrolyte shifts that occur during the early emergent phase include a. adherence of albumin to vascular walls b. movement of potassium into the vascular space c. sequestering of sodium and water in the interstitial fluid. d. hemolysis of red blood cells from large volumes of rapidly administered fluid. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. sequestering of sodium and water in the interstitial fluid. To maintain a positive nitrogen balance in a major burn, the patient must a. increase normal caloric intake by about 3 times b. eat a high-protein, low-fat, high-carbohydrate diet. c. eat at least 1500 calories per day in small, frequent meals. d. eat rice and whole wheat for the chemical effect on nitrogen balance ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. eat a high-protein, low-fat, high-carbohydrate diet. The patient should be encouraged to eat high-protein, high-carbohydrate foods to meet increased caloric needs. Massive catabolism can occur and is characterized by protein breakdown and increased gluconeogenesis. Failure to supply adequate calories and protein leads to malnutrition and delayed healing. A patient has 25% TBSA burned from a car fire. His wounds have been debrided and covered with a silver-impregnated dressing. Your priority intervention for wound care is to: a. reapply a new dressing without disturbing the wound bed b. observe the wound for signs of infection during dressing changes c. apply cool compresses for pain relief in between dressing changes d. wash the wound aggressively with soap and water three times each day. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d. wash the wound aggressively with soap and water three times each day. Infection is the most serious threat for further tissue injury and possible sepsis. Pain management for the burn patient is most effective when a. opoids are administered on a set schedule around the clock b. the patient has as much control over the management of the pain as possible. c. there is flexibility to administer opioids withing a dosage and frequency range d. painful dressing changes are delayed until the pt's pain is totally relieved. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. the patient has as much control over the management of the pain as possible. The more control the patient has in managing the pain, the more successful the chosen strategies. Active patient participation has been found to be effective for some patients in anticipating and coping with treatment-induced pain. A therapeutic measure used to prevent hypertrophic scarring during the rehabilitative phase of burn recovery is: a. applying pressure garments. b. repositioning the pt every 2 hours c. performing active ROM at least every 4 hours d. massaging the new tissue with water based moisturizers ---------- Correct Answer ----- ------ a. applying pressure garments. Pressure can help keep a scar flat and reduce hypertrophic scarring. Gentle pressure can be maintained on the healed burn with custom-fitted pressure garments. a. containment of chemical b. duration of water flushing c. other injuries of the victim d. specific location of accident ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d. The nurse must know where the accident occurred to determine if the pt was rescued from an enclosed space. If so, the pt is at high risk for an inhalation injury because the enclosure concentrates the noxious fumes making an inhalation injury more likely. The nurse plans care for a male pt who suffered thermal burns to the entire posterior aspect of his body when he fell on an outdoor grill. Which pt need is likely to be the primary problem of this pt in the emergent phase? a. maintain tissue oxygenation b. halt progression of the burn c. maintain intravascular volume d. prevent invasion of pathogens ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. the first priority is halting the severity of the burn, to limit the depth of the burn and quick action must be a priority. The nurse plans emergent care for four male pt's who have burns covering between 40- 50% of the total body surface area. Rank these patients according to their risk for an inhalation injury beginning with the pt who has the highest risk. a. has posterior chemical burns from an exhibit at a parking lot b. has osteoporosis and electrical burns of the lower extremities c. has thermal burns of the right side and is a volunteer fireman d. has chronic bronchitis and thermal burns around the abdomen ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d, c, a, b. A pt in the emergent phase of burn care for thermal burns on 20% of the total body surface area is unconscious. Which assessment data is the most important for the nurse's evaluation of the pt's injuries? a. condition of the oropharynx b. percentage of TBSA affected c. location of the pt in the fire d. comorbidities of the pt ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a. the pt is likely to have suffered a smoke inhalation injury because thermal burns are caused by flames that emit smoke and because the pt is unconscious. A pt who has an inhalation injury is receiving albuterol (Ventolin) for bronchospasm. What is the most important adverse effect of this medication for the nurse to manage? a. gi distress b. tachycardia c. restlessness d. hypokalemia ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. albuterol stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lungs to cause bronchodilation and is nonselective and also causes receptors in the heart to increase heart rate. A female pt in the acute phase of burn care has electrical burns on the left side of her body, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a serum glucose of 485 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority for preventing a life threatening complication of hyperglycemia for the burn patient? a. replace the blood lost b. maintain a neutral pH c. Maintain fluid balance d. Replace serum potassium ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. this pt is most likely experiencing hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS) which dehydrates a patient rapidly. This increases the pt's risk for hypovolemia and hypotension. The adult client was burned as a result of an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire, and the client ran, causing subsequent burn injuries to the posterior surface of the head and the upper half of the posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extent of the burn injury? a. 18% b. 24% c. 36% d. 48% ---------- Correct Answer ----------- c. anterior head = 4.5%, upper half of anterior torso = 9%, lower half of both arms is 9%, posterior head 4.5%, upper half of posterior torso 9%, total 36% The nurse is preparing to care for a burn client scheduled for an escharotomy procedure being performed for a third degree circumferential arm burn. The nurse understands that the anticipated therapeutic outcome of the escharotomy is: a. return of distal pulses b. brisk bleeding from the site c. decreasing edema formation d. formation of granulation tissue ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a. Escharotomies arepreformed to relieve the compartment syndrome that can occur when edema forms under nondistensible eschar in a circumferential third degree burn. A client is undergoing fluid replacement after being burned on 20% of her body 12 hours ago. The nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 90/50, a pulse of 110, and urine output of 20 mL over the past hour. The nurse reports the findings to the physician and anticipates which of the following prescriptions? a. transfusing 1 unit of packed red blood cells b. administering a diuretic to increase urine output c. increasing the amount of IV lactated Ringers solution administered per hour d. changing the IV lactated Ringer's solution to one that contains dextrose in water. ------ ---- Correct Answer ----------- c. fluid management during the first 24 hours following a burn injury generally includes the infusion of LR solution. Fluid resuscitation is determined by urine output and hourly urine output should be at least 30mL/hr. The client's urine output is indicative of insufficient fluid resuscitation, which places the client at risk for inadequate perfusion of the brain, heart, kidneys, and other body organs. Therefore, should expect ↑ of LR's. When caring for a client with extensive burns, the nurse anticipates that pain medication will be administered via which route? a. oral b. IV c. IM d. Subq ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. The nurse is caring for a client who sustained superficial partial thickness burns on the anterior lower legs and anterior thorax. Which of the following does the nurse expect to note during the resuscitation/emergent phase of the burn injury? a. decreased heart rate b. increased urinary output c. increased blood pressure d. elevated hematocrit levels ---------- Correct Answer ----------- d. during the resuscitation/emergent phase, the hematocrit level increases to above normal because of hemoconcentration from the large fluid shift. The nurse is caring for a client who suffered an inhalation injury from a wood stove. The carbon monoxide blood report reveals a level of 12%. Based on this level, the nurse would anticipate which of the following signs in the client? a. coma b. flushing c. dizziness d. tachycardia ---------- Correct Answer ----------- b. 11-20% - signs include flushing, headache, decreased visual acuity, decreased cerebral functioning, and slight breathlessness. 21-40% - signs include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, tinnitus, vertigo, confusion, drowsiness, pale to reddish-purple skin, tachycardia; levels of 41-60% result in seizure and come and levels higher than 60% result in death The client arrives at the emergency department following a burn injury that occurred in the basement at home and an inhalation injury is suspected. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? a. 100% oxygen via an aerosol mask b. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 15L/min c. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 10L/min d. 100% oxygen via a tight fitting, non rebreather face mask ---------- Correct Answer ---- ------- d. The nurse is administering fluids intravenously as prescribed to a client who sustained superficial partial thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. In evaluating the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, the nurse understands that which of the following would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy? A new mother expresses concern about her baby developing allergies and asks what the health care provider meant by passive immunity. Which example should the nurse use to explain this type of immunity? a. Early immunization b. Bone marrow donation c. Breastfeeding her infant d. Exposure to communicable diseases --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C Colostrum provides passive immunity through antibodies from the mother. These antibodies protect the infant for a few months. However, memory cells are not retained, so the protection is not permanent. Active immunity is acquired by being immunized with vaccinations or having an infection. It requires that the infant has an immune response after exposure to an antigen. Cell-mediated immunity is acquired through T lymphocytes and is a form of active immunity A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse expects elevation of which laboratory value? a. IgE b. IgA c. Basophils d. Neutrophils --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: A Serum IgE is elevated in an allergic response (type 1 hypersensitivity disorders). The eosinophil level will be elevated rather than neutrophil or basophil counts. IgA is located in body secretions and would not be tested when evaluating a patient who has symptoms of atopic dermatitis. An older adult patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, I feel fine, and I don't want to pay for all these unnecessary cancer screening tests! Which information should the nurse plan to teach this patient? a. Consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity b. Decrease in antibody production associated with aging c. Impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people d. Incidence of cancer-stimulating infections in older individuals --------- Correct Answer - ----------- ANS: A The primary impact of aging on immune function is on T cells, which are important for immune surveillance and tumor immunity. Antibody function is not affected as much by aging. Poor nutrition can also contribute to decreased immunity, but there is no evidence that it is a contributing factor for this patient. Although some types of cancer are associated with specific infections, this patient does not have an active infection. A patient who collects honey to earn supplemental income has developed a hypersensitivity to bee stings. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate a need for additional teaching? a. I need to find another way to earn extra money. b. I will get a prescription for epinephrine and learn to self-inject it. c. I will plan to take oral antihistamines daily before going to work. d. I should wear a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating my allergy to bee stings. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C Because the patient is at risk for bee stings and the severity of allergic reactions tends to increase with added exposure to allergen, taking oral antihistamines will not adequately control the patients hypersensitivity reaction. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of management of the problem. Which teaching should the nurse provide about intradermal skin testing to a patient with possible allergies? a. Do not eat anything for about 6 hours before the testing. b. Take an oral antihistamine about an hour before the testing. c. Plan to wait in the clinic for 20 to 30 minutes after the testing. d. Reaction to the testing will take about 48 to 72 hours to occur. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C Allergic reactions usually occur within minutes after injection of an allergen, and the patient will be monitored for at least 20 minutes for anaphylactic reactions after the testing. Medications that might modify the response, such as antihistamines, should be avoided before allergy testing. There is no reason to be NPO for skin testing. Results with intradermal testing occur within minutes. The nurse, who is reviewing a clinic patients medical record, notes that the patient missed the previous appointment for weekly immunotherapy. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Schedule an additional dose that week. b. Administer the usual dosage of the allergen. c. Consult with the health care provider about giving a lower allergen dose. d. Re-evaluate the patients sensitivity to the allergen with a repeat skin test. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C Because there is an increased risk for adverse reactions after a patient misses a scheduled dose of allergen, the nurse should check with the health care provider before administration of the injection. A skin test is used to identify the allergen and would not be used at this time. An additional dose for the week may increase the risk for a reaction. While obtaining a health history from a patient, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of allergic rhinitis and multiple food allergies. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops. b. Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves. c. Document the patients allergy history and be alert for any clinical manifestations of a type I latex allergy. d. Recommend that the patient use vinyl gloves instead of latex gloves in preventing blood-borne pathogen contact. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C The patients allergy history and occupation indicate a risk of developing a latex allergy. The nurse should be prepared to manage any symptoms that may occur. Epinephrine is not an appropriate treatment for contact dermatitis that is caused by a type IV allergic reaction to latex. Oil-based creams will increase the exposure to latex from latex gloves. Vinyl gloves are appropriate to use when exposure to body fluids is unlikely. The nurse teaches a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about plasmapheresis. What instructions about plasmapheresis should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Plasmapheresis will eliminate eosinophils and basophils from blood. b. Plasmapheresis will remove antibody-antigen complexes from circulation. c. Plasmapheresis will prevent foreign antibodies from damaging various body tissues. d. Plasmapheresis will decrease the damage to organs caused by attacking T lymphocytes. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: B Plasmapheresis is used in SLE to remove antibodies, antibody-antigen complexes, and complement from blood. T lymphocytes, foreign antibodies, eosinophils, and basophils do not directly contribute to the tissue damage in SLE. The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing plasmapheresis. The nurse should assess the patient for which clinical manifestation? a. Shortness of breath b. High blood pressure c. Transfusion reaction d. Numbness and tingling --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: D Numbness and tingling may occur as the result of the hypocalcemia caused by the citrate used to prevent coagulation. The other clinical manifestations are not associated with plasmapheresis. Which statement by a patient would alert the nurse to a possible immunodeficiency disorder? a. I take one baby aspirin every day to prevent stroke. b. I usually eat eggs or meat for at least 2 meals a day. c. I had my spleen removed many years ago after a car accident. d. I had a chest x-ray 6 months ago when I had walking pneumonia. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: C Splenectomy increases the risk for septicemia from bacterial infections. The patients protein intake is good and should improve immune function. Daily aspirin use does not affect immune function. A chest x-ray does not have enough radiation to suppress immune function. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with urticaria after receiving an IV antibiotic b. Patient who has graft-versus-host disease and severe diarrhea c. Patient who is sneezing after having subcutaneous immunotherapy b. Assess the patients airway. c. Administer high-flow oxygen. d. Remove the stinger from the site. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: B The initial action with any patient with difficulty breathing is to assess and maintain the airway. The other actions also are part of the emergency management protocol for anaphylaxis, but the priority is airway maintenance. Immediately after the nurse administers an intracutaneous injection of an allergen on the forearm, a patient complains of itching at the site and of weakness and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first? a. Remind the patient to remain calm. b. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine. c. Apply a tourniquet above the injection site. d. Rub a local anti-inflammatory cream on the site. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Application of a tourniquet will decrease systemic circulation of the allergen and should be the first reaction. A local anti-inflammatory cream may be applied to the site of a cutaneous test if the itching persists. Epinephrine will be needed if the allergic reaction progresses to anaphylaxis. The nurse should assist the patient to remain calm, but this is not an adequate initial nursing action. A clinic patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. Which action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Perform a focused physical assessment. b. Obtain the health history from the patient. c. Teach the patient about the various diagnostic studies. d. Administer skin testing by the cutaneous scratch method. --------- Correct Answer ----- ------- ANS: D LPN/LVNs are educated and licensed to administer medications under the supervision of an RN. RN-level education and the scope of practice include assessment of health history, focused physical assessment, and patient teaching. The health care provider asks the nurse whether a patients angioedema has responded to prescribed therapies. Which assessment should the nurse perform? a. Ask the patient about any clear nasal discharge. b. Obtain the patients blood pressure and heart rate. c. Check for swelling of the patients lips and tongue. d. Assess the patients extremities for wheal and flare lesions. --------- Correct Answer --- --------- ANS: C Angioedema is characterized by swelling of the eyelids, lips, and tongue. Wheal and flare lesions, clear nasal drainage, and hypotension and tachycardia are characteristic of other allergic reactions. A nurse has obtained donor tissue typing information about a patient who is waiting for a kidney transplant. Which results should be reported to the transplant surgeon? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low --------- Correct Answer ----------- - ANS: C Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation, since a hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable. A patient who is receiving immunotherapy has just received an allergen injection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patients IgG level is increased. b. The injection site is red and swollen. c. The patients allergy symptoms have not improved. d. There is a 2-cm wheal at the site of the allergen injection. --------- Correct Answer ----- ------- ANS: D A local reaction larger than quarter size may indicate that a decrease in the allergen dose is needed. An increase in IgG indicates that the therapy is effective. Redness and swelling at the site are not unusual. Because immunotherapy usually takes 1 to 2 years to achieve an effect, an improvement in the patients symptoms is not expected after a few months. A patient who is receiving an IV antibiotic develops wheezes and dyspnea. In which order should the nurse implement these prescribed actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]). a. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion. b. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV. c. Inject epinephrine (Adrenalin) IM or IV. d. Prepare an infusion of dopamine (Intropin). e. Start 100% oxygen using a nonrebreather mask. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: A, E, C, B, D The nurse should initially discontinue the antibiotic because it is the likely cause of the allergic reaction. Next, oxygen delivery should be maximized, followed by treatment of bronchoconstriction with epinephrine administered IM or IV. Diphenhydramine will work more slowly than epinephrine, but will help prevent progression of the reaction. Because the patient currently does not have evidence of hypotension, the dopamine infusion can be prepared last. A woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is being treated aggressively with a chemotherapeutic regimen. As a result of this regimen, she has an inability to fight infection due to the fact that her bone marrow is unable to produce a sufficient amount of what? A) Lymphocytes B) Cytoblasts C) Antibodies D) Capillaries --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: The white blood cells involved in immunity (including lymphocytes) are produced in the bone marrow. Cytoblasts are the protoplasm of the cell outside the nucleus. Antibodies are produced by lymphocytes, but not in the bone marrow. Capillaries are small blood vessels During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a patient, who is a school teacher, is exposed. She has previously been immunized for mumps. What type of immunity does she possess? A) Acquired immunity B) Natural immunity C) Phagocytic immunity D) Humoral immunity --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: Acquired immunity usually develops as a result of prior exposure to an antigen, often through immunization. When the body is attacked by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, it has three means of defense. The first line of defense, the phagocytic immune response, involves the WBCs that have the ability to ingest foreign particles. A second protective response is the humoral immune response, which begins when the B lymphocytes transform themselves into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies. The natural immune response system is rapid, nonspecific immunity present at birth. A nurse has administered a childs scheduled vaccination for rubella. This vaccination will cause the child to develop which of the following? A) Natural immunity B) Active acquired immunity C) Cellular immunity D) Mild hypersensitivity --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: Active acquired immunity usually develops as a result of vaccination or contracting a disease. Natural immunity is present at birth and provides a nonspecific response to any foreign invader. Immunizations do not activate the process of cellular immunity. Hypersensitivity is not an expected outcome of immunization. doses cause bone marrow suppression, but antineoplastic drugs have the most pronounced immunosuppressive effect. NSAIDs and antiretrovirals do not normally have this effect. A patient requires ongoing treatment and infection-control precautions because of an inherited deficit in immune function. The nurse should recognize that this patient most likely has what type of immune disorder? A) A primary immune deficiency B) A gammopathy C) An autoimmune disorder D) A rheumatic disorder --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: Primary immune deficiency results from improper development of immune cells or tissues. These disorders are usually congenital or inherited. Autoimmune disorders are less likely to have a genetic component, though some have a genetic component. Overproduction of immunoglobulins is the hallmark of gammopathies. Rheumatic disorders do not normally involve impaired immune function. A neonate exhibited some preliminary signs of infection, but the infants condition resolved spontaneously prior to discharge home from the hospital. This infants recovery was most likely due to what type of immunity? A) Cytokine immunity B) Specific immunity C) Active acquired immunity D) Nonspecific immunity --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Natural immunity, or nonspecific immunity, is present at birth. Active acquired or specific immunity develops after birth. Cytokines are proteins that mediate the immune response; they are not a type of immunity. A nurse is explaining the process by which the body removes cells from circulation after they have performed their physiologic function. The nurse is describing what process? A) The cellular immune response B) Apoptosis C) Phagocytosis D) Opsonization --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is the bodys way of destroying worn out cells such as blood or skin cells or cells that need to be renewed. Opsonization is the coating of antigenantibody molecules with a sticky substance to facilitate phagocytosis. The body does not use phagocytosis or the cellular immune response to remove cells from circulation. A nurse is reviewing the immune system before planning an immunocompromised patients care. How should the nurse characterize the humoral immune response? A) Specialized cells recognize and ingest cells that are recognized as foreign. B) T lymphocytes are assisted by cytokines to fight infection. C) Lymphocytes are stimulated to become cells that attack microbes directly. D) Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: The humoral response is characterized by the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. Phagocytosis and direct attack on microbes occur in the context of the cellular immune response. A patients current immune response involves the direct destruction of foreign microorganisms. This aspect of the immune response may be performed by what cells? A) Suppressor T cells B) Memory T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells D) Complement T cells --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: C Feedback: Cytotoxic T cells (also called CD8 + cells) participate in the destruction of foreign organisms. Memory T cells and suppressor T cells do not perform this role in the immune response. The complement system does not exist as a type of T cell. The nurse is assessing a clients risk for impaired immune function. What assessment finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for decreased immunity? A) The patient takes a beta blocker for the treatment of hypertension. B) The patient is under significant psychosocial stress. C) The patient had a pulmonary embolism 18 months ago. D) The patient has a family history of breast cancer. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: Stress is a psychoneuroimmunologic factor that is known to depress the immune response. Use of beta blockers, a family history of cancer, and a prior PE are significant assessment findings, but none represents an immediate threat to immune function. The nurse is completing a focused assessment addressing a patients immune function. What should the nurse prioritize in the physical assessment? A) Percussion of the patients abdomen B) Palpation of the patients liver C) Auscultation of the patients apical heart rate D) Palpation of the patients lymph nodes --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: During the assessment of immune function, the anterior and posterior cervical, supraclavicular, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes are palpated for enlargement. If palpable nodes are detected, their location, size, consistency, and reports of tenderness on palpation are noted. Because of the central role of lymph nodes in the immune system, they are prioritized over the heart, liver, and abdomen, even though these would be assessed. The nurse knows that the response of natural immunity is enhanced by processes that are inherent in the physical and chemical barriers of the body. What is a chemical barrier that enhances the response of natural immunity? A) Cell cytoplasm B) Interstitial fluid C) Gastric secretions D) Cerebrospinal fluid --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: C Feedback: Chemical barriers, such as mucus, acidic gastric secretions, enzymes in tears and saliva, and substances in sebaceous and sweat secretions, act in a nonspecific way to destroy invading bacteria and fungi. Not all body fluids are chemical barriers, however. Cell cytoplasm, interstitial fluid, and CSF are not normally categorized as chemical barriers to infection. A patient has undergone treatment for septic shock and received high doses of numerous antibiotics during the course of treatment. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should be aware of what potential effect on the patients immune function? A) Bone marrow suppression B) Uncontrolled apoptosis C) Thymus atrophy D) Lymphoma --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: Large doses of antibiotics can precipitate bone marrow suppression, affecting immune function. Antibiotics are not noted to cause apoptosis, thymus atrophy, or lymphoma. A patients recent diagnostic testing included a total lymphocyte count. The results of this test will allow the care team to gauge what aspect of the patients immunity? A) Humoral immune function B) Antigen recognition C) Cell-mediated immune function the substances that induce the production of antibodies. Immunizations do not prompt cytokine or phagocyte production. A patient with a family history of allergies has suffered an allergic response based on a genetic predisposition. This atopic response is usually mediated by what immunoglobulin? A) Immunoglobulin A B) Immunoglobulin M C) Immunoglobulin G D) Immunoglobulin E --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Atopy refers to allergic reactions characterized by the action of IgE antibodies and a genetic predisposition to allergic reactions. An office worker takes a cupcake that contains peanut butter. He begins wheezing, with an inspiratory stridor and air hunger and the occupational health nurse is called to the office. The nurse should recognize that the worker is likely suffering from which type of hypersensitivity? A) Anaphylactic (type 1) B) Cytotoxic (type II) C) Immune complex (type III) D) Delayed-type (type IV) --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: The most severe form of a hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis. An unanticipated severe allergic reaction that is often explosive in onset, anaphylaxis is characterized by edema in many tissues, including the larynx, and is often accompanied by hypotension, bronchospasm, and cardiovascular collapse in severe cases. Type II, or cytotoxic, hypersensitivity occurs when the system mistakenly identifies a normal constituent of the body as foreign. Immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies. Type III is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, certain types of nephritis, and bacterial endocarditis. Delayed-type (type IV), also known as cellular hypersensitivity, occurs 24 to 72 hours after exposure to an allergen. A nurse is preparing a patient for allergy skin testing. Which of the following precautionary steps is most important for the nurse to follow? A) The patient must not have received an immunization within 7 days. B) The nurse should administer albuterol 30 to 45 minutes prior to the test. C) Prophylactic epinephrine should be administered before the test. D) Emergency equipment should be readily available. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Emergency equipment must be readily available during testing to treat anaphylaxis. Immunizations do not contraindicate testing. Neither epinephrine nor albuterol is given prior to testing. A patient who is scheduled for a skin test informs the nurse that he has been taking corticosteroids to help control his allergy symptoms. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement? A) The patient should take his corticosteroids regularly prior to testing. B) The patient should only be tested for grass, mold, and dust initially. C) The nurse should have an emergency cart available in case of anaphylaxis during the test. D) The patients test should be cancelled until he is off his corticosteroids. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Corticosteroids and antihistamines, including over-the-counter allergy medications, suppress skin test reactivity and should be stopped 48 to 96 hours before testing, depending on the duration of their activity. Emergency equipment must be at hand during allergy testing, but the test would be postponed. A patient has developed severe contact dermatitis with burning, itching, cracking, and peeling of the skin on her hands. What should the nurse teach the patient to do? A) Wear powdered latex gloves when in public. B) Wash her hands with antibacterial soap every few hours. C) Maintain room temperature at 75F to 80F whenever possible. D)Keep her hands well-moisturized at all times. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Powdered latex gloves can cause contact dermatitis. Skin should be kept well-hydrated and should be washed with mild soap. Maintaining room temperature at 75F to 80F is not necessary. A patient with severe environmental allergies is scheduled for an immunotherapy injection. What should be included in teaching the patient about this treatment? A) The patient will be given a low dose of epinephrine before the treatment. B) The patient will remain in the clinic to be monitored for 30 minutes following the injection. C) Therapeutic failure occurs if the symptoms to the allergen do not decrease after 3 months. D) The allergen will be administered by the peripheral intravenous route. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: Although severe systemic reactions are rare, the risk of systemic and potentially fatal anaphylaxis exists. Because of this risk, the patient must remain in the office or clinic for at least 30 minutes after the injection and is observed for possible systemic symptoms. Therapeutic failure is evident when a patient does not experience a decrease in symptoms within 12 to 24 months. Epinephrine is not given prior to treatment and the IV route is not used. The nurse in an allergy clinic is educating a new patient about the pathology of the patients health problem. What response should the nurse describe as a possible consequence of histamine release? A) Constriction of small venules B) Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle C) Dilation of large blood vessels D) Decreased secretions from gastric and mucosal cells --------- Correct Answer ---------- -- Ans: B Feedback: Histamines effects during the immune response include contraction of bronchial smooth muscle, resulting in wheezing and bronchospasm, dilation of small venules, constriction of large blood vessels, and an increase in secretion of gastric and mucosal cells. The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction? A) Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting B) Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape C) Myasthenia gravis D) Rheumatoid arthritis --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: Anaphylactic (type I) hypersensitivity is an immediate reaction mediated by IgE antibodies and requires previous exposure to the specific antigen. Skin reactions are more commonly type IV and myasthenia gravis is thought to be a type II reaction. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction. A nurse is caring for a teenage girl who has had an anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. The nurse is providing patient teaching prior to the patients discharge. In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, the nurse informs the patient that she should self- administer epinephrine in what site? A) Forearm B) Thigh C) Deltoid muscle D) Abdomen --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: The patient is taught to position the device at the middle portion of the thigh and push the device into the thigh as far as possible. The device will autoinject a premeasured dose of epinephrine into the subcutaneous tissue. A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem? A) Antigens have bound to antibodies and formed inappropriate immune complexes. B) The patients body has mistakenly identified a normal constituent of the body as foreign. C) Sensitized T cells have caused cell and tissue damage. An adolescent patients history of skin hyperreactivity and inflammation has been attributed to atopic dermatitis. The nurse should recognize that this patient consequently faces an increased risk of what health problem? A) Bronchitis B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Asthma --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: D Feedback: Nurses should be aware that atopic dermatitis is often the first step in a process that leads to asthma and allergic rhinitis. It is not linked as closely to bronchitis, SLE, and RA. A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply. A) Foods B) Medications C) Insect stings D) Autoimmunity E) Environmental pollutants --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Substances that most commonly cause anaphylaxis include foods, medications, insect stings, and latex. Pollutants do not commonly cause anaphylaxis and autoimmune processes are more closely associated with types II and III hypersensitivities. A school nurse is caring for a child who appears to be having an allergic response. What should be the initial action of the school nurse? A) Assess for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis. B) Assess for erythema and urticaria. C) Administer an OTC antihistamine. D) Administer epinephrine. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: If a patient is experiencing an allergic response, the nurses initial action is to assess the patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis. Erythema and urticaria may be present, but these are not the most significant or most common signs of anaphylaxis. Assessment must precede interventions, such as administering an antihistamine. Epinephrine is indicated in the treatment of anaphylaxis, not for every allergic reaction. A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Shortly after initiation of the transfusion, the patient begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. The patient is suffering from which type of hypersensitivity? A) Anaphylactic (type 1) B) Cytotoxic (type II) C) Immunecomplex (type III) D) Delayed type (type IV) --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: A type II hypersensitivity reaction resulting in red blood cell destruction is associated with blood transfusions. This type of reaction does not result from types I, III, or IV reactions Which of the following individuals would be the most appropriate candidate for immunotherapy? A) A patient who had an anaphylactic reaction to an insect sting B) A child with allergies to eggs and dairy C) A patient who has had a positive tuberculin skin test D) A patient with severe allergies to grass and tree pollen --------- Correct Answer -------- ---- Ans: D Feedback: The benefit of immunotherapy has been fairly well established in instances of allergic rhinitis and bronchial asthma that are clearly due to sensitivity to one of the common pollens, molds, or household dust. Immunotherapy is not used to treat type I hypersensitivities. A positive tuberculin skin test is not an indication for immunotherapy. A nurse has asked the nurse educator if there is any way to predict the severity of a patients anaphylactic reaction. What would be the nurses best response? A) The faster the onset of symptoms, the more severe the reaction. B) The reaction will be about one-third more severe than the patients last reaction to the same antigen. C) There is no way to gauge the severity of a patients anaphylaxis, even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past. D) The reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction to the same antigen. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: A Feedback: The time from exposure to the antigen to onset of symptoms is a good indicator of the severity of the reaction: the faster the onset, the more severe the reaction. None of the other statements is an accurate description of the course of anaphylactic reactions. A patient has been living with seasonal allergies for many years, but does not take antihistamines, stating, When I was young I used to take antihistamines, but they always put me to sleep. How should the nurse best respond? A) Newer antihistamines are combined with a stimulant that offsets drowsiness. B) Most people find that they develop a tolerance to sedation after a few months. C) The newer antihistamines are different than in years past, and cause less sedation. D) Have you considered taking them at bedtime instead of in the morning? --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: C Feedback: Unlike first-generation H1 receptor antagonists, newer antihistamines bind to peripheral rather than central nervous system H1 receptors, causing less sedation, if at all. Tolerance to sedation did not usually occur with first-generation drugs and newer antihistamines are not combined with a stimulant. A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply. A) Facilitate lung function testing. B) Assess breath sounds. C) Measure the childs oxygen saturation by oximeter. D) Monitor the childs respiratory pattern. E) Assess the childs respiratory rate. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: The respiratory status is evaluated by monitoring the respiratory rate and pattern and by assessing for breathing difficulties, low oxygen saturation, or abnormal lung sounds such as wheezing. Lung function testing is a lengthy procedure that is not appropriate in an emergency context. A nurse at an allergy clinic is providing education for a patient starting immunotherapy for the treatment of allergies. What education should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of scheduling appointments for the same time each month B) The importance of keeping appointments for desensitization procedures C) The importance of avoiding antihistamines for the duration of treatment D) The importance of keeping a diary of reactions to the immunotherapy --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: The nurse informs and reminds the patient of the importance of keeping appointments for desensitization procedures, because dosages are usually adjusted on a weekly basis, and missed appointments may interfere with the dosage adjustment. Appointments are more frequent than monthly and antihistamines are not contraindicated. There is no need to keep a diary of reactions. A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are consistent with contact dermatitis. What aspect of care should the nurse prioritize when working with this patient? A) Promoting adequate perfusion in affected regions B) Promoting safe use of topical antihistamines C) Identifying the offending agent, if possible D) Teaching the patient to safely use an EpiPen --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: C Feedback: Identifying the offending agent is a priority in the care of a patient with dermatitis. Antihistamines are D) Administer medications as ordered --------- Correct Answer ------------ Ans: B Feedback: Anaphylaxis severely threatens a patients airway; the nurses priority is preserving airway patency and breathing pattern. This is a higher priority than other valid aspects of care, including medication administration, psychosocial support, and assessment of LOC. The nurse prepares to give a bath and change the bed linens of a client with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which would the nurse incorporate into the plan during the bathing of this client? 1. Wearing gloves 2. Wearing a gown and gloves 3. Wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask 4. Wearing a gown and gloves to change the bed linens, and gloves only for the bath --- ------ Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 2 Rationale: Gowns and gloves are required if the nurse anticipates contact with soiled items such as those with wound drainage or if the nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent with diarrhea or a client who has an ileostomy or colostomy. Masks are not required unless droplet or airborne precautions are necessary. Regardless of the amount of wound drainage, a gown and gloves must be worn. A client develops an anaphylactic reaction after receiving morphine. The nurse would take which actions? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. 3. Document the event, interventions, and client's response. 4. Leave the client briefly to contact a primary health care provider (PHCP). 5. Keep the client supine regardless of the blood pressure readings. 6. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of D5W and administer a 500-mL bolus. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 1, 2, 3 Rationale: An anaphylactic reaction requires immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client's respiratory status. Although the PHCP and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must stay with the client. Oxygen is administered and an IV of normal saline is started and infused per PHCP prescription. Documentation of the event, actions taken, and client outcomes needs to be performed. The head of the bed needs to be elevated if the client's blood pressure is normal. The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of immunodeficiency and would incorporate which action as a priority in the plan? 1. Protecting the client from infection 2. Providing emotional support to decrease fear 3. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes 4. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function --------- Correct Answer --------- --- Answer: 1 Rationale: The client with immunodeficiency has inadequate or absence of immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention would be to protect the client from infection. Options 2, 3, and 4 may be components of care but are not the priority. A client calls the nurse in the emergency department and reports being just stung by a bumblebee while gardening. The client is afraid of a severe reaction because the client's neighbor experienced such a reaction just 1 week ago. Which action would the nurse take? 1. Advise the client to soak the site in hydrogen peroxide. 2. Ask the client if they ever sustained a bee sting in the past. 3. Tell the client to call an ambulance for transport to the emergency department. 4. Tell the client not to worry about the sting unless difficulty with breathing occurs. ------ --- Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 2 Rationale: In some types of allergies, a reaction occurs only on second and subsequent contacts with the allergen. The appropriate action, therefore, would be to ask the client if they ever experienced a bee sting in the past. Option 1 is inappropriate advice. Option 3 is unnecessary. The client would not be told "not to worry." The community health nurse is conducting a research study and is identifying clients in the community at risk for latex allergy. Which client population is most at risk for developing this type of allergy? 1. Hairdressers 2. The homeless 3. Children in day care centers 4. Individuals living in a group home --------- Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 1 Rationale: Individuals most at risk for developing a latex allergy include health care workers; individuals who work in the rubber industry; or those who have had multiple surgeries, have spina bifida, wear gloves frequently (such as food handlers, hairdressers, and auto mechanics), or are allergic to kiwis, bananas, pineapples, tropical fruits, grapes, avocados, potatoes, hazelnuts, or water chestnuts. Which interventions apply in the care of a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy? Select all that apply. 1. Use nonlatex gloves. 2. Use medications from glass ampules. 3. Place the client in a private room only. 4. Keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. 5. Avoid the use of medication vials that have rubber stoppers. 6. Use only a blood pressure cuff from an electronic device to measure the blood pressure. --------- Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Rationale: Most health care facilities use latex-free products and supplies but there may be some supplies that are not available as latex-free. If a client is allergic to latex and is at high risk for an allergic response, the nurse would use nonlatex gloves and latex-safe supplies, and would keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. Any supplies or materials that contain latex would be avoided. These include blood pressure cuffs and medication vials with rubber stoppers that require puncture with a needle. It is unnecessary to place the client in a private room. A client presents at the primary health care provider's office with complaints of a ringlike rash on the upper leg. Which question would the nurse ask first? 1. "Do you have any cats in your home?" 2. "Have you been camping in the last month?" 3. "Have you or close contacts had any flulike symptoms within the last few weeks?" 4. "Have you been in physical contact with anyone who has the same type of rash?" ---- ----- Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse would ask questions to assist in identifying a cause of Lyme disease, which is a multisystem infection that results from a bite by a tick carried by several species of deer. The rash from a tick bite can be a ringlike rash occurring 3 to 4 weeks after a bite and is commonly seen on the groin, buttocks, axillae, trunk, and upper arms or legs. Option 1 is referring to toxoplasmosis, which is caused by the inhalation of cysts from contaminated cat feces. Lyme disease cannot be transmitted from one person to another. The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is diagnosed with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse understands that this has been confirmed by which finding? 1. Swelling in the genital area 2. Swelling in the lower extremities 3. Positive punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions 4. Appearance of reddish-blue lesions noted on the skin --------- Correct Answer ---------- -- Answer: 3 Rationale: Kaposi's sarcoma lesions begin as red, dark blue, or purple macules on the lower legs that change into plaques. These large plaques ulcerate or open and drain. The lesions spread by metastasis through the upper body and then to the face and oral mucosa. They can move to the lymphatic system, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract. Late disease results in swelling and pain in the lower extremities, penis, scrotum, or face. Diagnosis is made by punch biopsy of cutaneous lesions and biopsy of pulmonary and gastrointestinal lesions. The nurse is conducting allergy skin testing on a client. Which postprocedure interventions are most appropriate? Select all that apply. 1. Record site, date, and time of the test. 2. Give the client a list of potential allergens if identified. 3. Estimate the size of the wheal and document the finding. 4. Tell the client to return to have the site inspected only if there is a reaction. 5. Have the client wait in the waiting room for at least 1 to 2 hours after injection. -------- - Correct Answer ------------ Answer: 1, 2 Rationale: Skin testing involves administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin or into the dermis. Site, date, and time of the test must be recorded, and the client must return at a specific date and time for a follow-up site evaluation, even if no reaction is suspected. A list of potential allergens is identified and reviewed and given to the client. For the follow-up evaluation, the size of the site has to be measured and not estimated. E. O+ F. O- G. AB+ H. AB- --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answers are A and F. The patient can only receive blood from donors who are B- or O-. Remember since the patient is Rh negative they can only receive negative factor blood. Red blood cells are very for vital survival. Which statement below is NOT correct about red blood cells? A. "Red blood cells help carry oxygen throughout the body with the help of the protein hemoglobin." B. "Extreme loss of red blood cells can lead to a suppressed immune system and clotting problems." C. "Red blood cells help remove carbon dioxide from the body." D. "Red blood cells are suspended in the blood's plasma." --------- Correct Answer ------- ----- The answer B. Extreme loss of red blood cells leads to anemia which can cause a patient to experience shortness of breath (there is a decreased ability to carry oxygen throughout the body), tachycardia, fatigue, pale skin color etc. Suppressed immune system can be from LOW white blood cells, and clotting problems can be from LOW platelets. You're providing care to a 36 year old male. The patient experienced abdominal trauma and recently received 2 units of packed red blood cells. You're assessing the patient's morning lab results. Which lab result below demonstrates that the blood transfusion was successful? A. Hemoglobin level 7 g/dL B. Platelets 300,000 µl C. Hemoglobin level 15 g/dL D. Prothrombin Time 12.5 seconds --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is C. Hemoglobin levels are used to assess the effectiveness of a blood transfusion. A normal Hgb level for a MALE is 14 to 18 g/dL. For a FEMALE, the level is 12 to 16 g/dL. According to the American Association of Blood Banks, what is the recommended hemoglobin level for a blood transfusion? A. 5-7 g/dL B. 7-8 g/dL C. 4-7 g/dL D. 9-10 g/dL --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is B. This is the recent recommendation for by the AABB (7-8 g/dL). A patient needs 2 units of packed red blood cells. The patient is typed and crossmatched. The patient has B+ blood. As the nurse you know the patient can receive what type of blood? Select all that apply: A. B- B. A+ C. O- D. B+ E. O+ F. A- G. AB+ H. AB- --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answers are A, C, D and E. The patient must receive blood from either a donor that has O or B blood. Since the patient is B+ (Rh factor is positive), they can receive both negative or positive blood. So, the patient can receive B-, B+, O-, and O+ blood. A donor has AB- blood. Which patient or patients below can receive this type of blood safely? A. A patient with O- blood. B. A patient with A- blood. C. A patient with B- blood. D. A patient with AB- blood. --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is D. Donors with AB type blood can only donate to others who have the AB type blood, in this case AB- blood. However, they are the universal recipients in that they can receive blood for every blood type but can only donate to their same exact blood type. As the nurse you know that there is a risk of a transfusion reaction during the administration of red blood cells. Which patient below it is at most RISK for a febrile (non-hemolytic) transfusion reaction? A. A 38 year old male who has received multiple blood transfusions in the past year. B. A 42 year old female who is immunocompromised. C. A 78 year old male who is B+ that just received AB+ blood during a transfusion. D. A 25 year old female who is AB+ and just received B+ blood. --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is A. A febrile transfusion reaction is where the recipient's WBCs are reacting with the donor's WBCs. This causes the body to build antibodies. It is most COMMON in patients who have received blood transfusion in the past. Option B is at risk for GvHD (graft versus host disease). Option C is wrong because this places the patient at risk for a hemolytic transfusion reaction (not febrile). The patient is receiving incompatible blood. However, option D is not the patient at MOST risk compared to option A. Note the patient is receiving compatible blood. Note the patient is receiving compatible blood in this option. Before a blood transfusion you educate the patient to immediately report which of the following signs and symptoms during the blood transfusion that could represent a transfusion reaction: A. Sweating B. Chills C. Hives D. Poikilothermia E. Tinnitus F. Headache G. Back pain H. Pruritus I. Paresthesia J. Shortness of Breath K. Nausea --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answers are A, B, C, F, G, H, J, and K. As the nurse you want to educate the patient to report signs and symptoms associated with blood transfusion reactions, which would include: sweating, chills, hives, headache, back pain, pruritus (itching), shortness of breath, and nausea. Your patient needs 1 unit of packed red blood cells. You've completed all the prep and the blood bank notifies you the patient's unit of blood is ready. You send for the blood and the transporter arrives with the unit at 1200. You know that you must start transfusing the blood within _________. A. 5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is C. The blood must be started within 30 minutes. A patient who needs a unit of packed red blood cells is ordered by the physician to be premeditated with oral diphenhydramine and acetaminophen. You will administer these medications? A. 15 minutes before starting the transfusion B. Immediately after starting the transfusion C. Right before starting the transfusion D. 30 minutes before starting the transfusion --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is D. For ORAL medications you will administer the medications 30 minutes before starting the transfusion. A patient is receiving 1 unit of packed red blood cells. The unit of blood will be done at 1200. The patient is scheduled to have IV antibiotics at 1000. As the nurse you will: A. Stop the blood transfusion and administer the IV antibiotic, and when the antibiotic is done resume the blood transfusion. B. Administer the IV antibiotic via secondary tubing into the blood transfusion's y-tubing. C. Hold the antibiotic until the blood transfusion is done. D. Administer the IV antibiotic as scheduled in a second IV access site. --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is D. If any IV medications will be needed while the blood is transfusing, the nurse will need to start another IV access site. The nurse would NEVER administer the IV antibiotic in the same tubing as the blood product or stop the transfusion. Remember blood is time sensitive and must be transfused within 4 hours. Also, holding the antibiotic is not correct because antibiotics are time sensitive as well and must be administered at the scheduled time to maintain blood levels. You're gathering supplies to start a blood transfusion. You will gather? A. PVC free tubing and dextrose B. Polyethylene-line tubing and 0.9% Normal Saline C. Y-tubing with in-line filter and dextrose Your patient is having a transfusion reaction. You immediately stop the transfusion. Next you will: A. Notify the physician. B. Disconnect the blood tubing from the IV site and replace it with a new IV tubing set- up and keep the vein open with normal saline 0.9%. C. Collect urine sample. D. Send the blood tubing and bag to the blood bank. --------- Correct Answer ------------ The answer is B. This question wants to know your NEXT nursing action. AFTER stopping the transfusion, the nurse will DISCONNECT the blood tubing from the IV site and replace it with a new IV tubing set-up and keep the vein open with normal saline 0.9%. This will limit any more blood from entering the patient's system. THEN the nurse will notify the MD and blood bank. The nurse is caring for a client with complaints of a rash and itching on the face for one (1) week. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Check for the presence of hirsutism on the face. 2. Use the Wood's light to visualize the rash under the black light. 3. Determine what OTC medications the client has used on the rash. 4. Ask the client to describe when the rash first appeared. --------- Correct Answer -------- ---- ANS: 4. It is important to assess the rash as it appeared. If the client treated the rash with an ointment or cream, its appearance may have changed. Many times the appearance has changed from first onset and from the treatment. Assessment is the first part of the nursing process 1. Hirsutism is an excessive amount of hair growth in unexpected areas. This is not associated with itching or a rash. 2. A Wood's light is used to examine certain infections. This would be used during the physical examination portion of the assessment. 3. The nurse should determine the previous treatment the client used, but it is not the first intervention. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to identify an allergic reaction for the client diagnosed with contact dermatitis? 1. IgA. 2. IgD. 3. IgE. 4. IgG. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 3. IgE is a protein responsible for allergic reactions. 1. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) protects against respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary infections. 2. IgD is a protein that is activated in collagen disease. 4. IgG is the major antibody for viruses, bacteria, and toxins. The client is prescribed a prick epicutaneous test to determine the cause of hypersensitivity reactions. Which result indicates the client is hypersensitive to the allergen? 1. The client complains of shortness of breath. 2. The skin is dry, intact, and without redness. 3. The pricked blood tests positive for allergens. 4. A pruritic wheal and erythema occur. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 4. During this test, a drop of diluted allergenic extract is placed on the skin and then the skin is punctured through the drop. A positive test causes a localized pruritic wheal and erythema, which occurs in five (5) to 20 minutes. 1. This is a sign of an anaphylactic reaction to an allergen and will not happen during this test because of the small amount of allergen used. 2. This indicates a negative test and the client is not sensitive to the allergen. 3. The skin reaction, not the blood pricked, indicates a positive or negative test. Which referral should the nurse implement for a client with severe multiple allergies? 1. Registered dietitian. 2. Occupational therapist. 3. Recreational therapist. 4. Social worker. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 1. A dietitian could help the client with any necessary dietary changes for food allergies and with ways to continue to meet nutritional needs. 2. An occupational therapist addresses the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. 3. A recreational therapist works in a psychiatric setting or rehabilitation setting and assists with the client's therapeutic recreational activities. 4. A social worker addresses the client's financial needs. The client diagnosed with an anaphylactic reaction is admitted to the emergency department. Which assessment data indicate the client is not responding to the treatment? 1. The client has a urinary output of 120 mL in two (2) hours. 2. The client has an AP of 110 and a BP of 90/60. 3. The client has clear breath sounds and an RR of 26. 4. The client has hyperactive bowel sounds. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 2. These vital signs indicate shock, which is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention. 1. A urinary output of greater than 30 mL/hr is within normal limits and indicates the client is responding to treatment. 3. Clear breath sounds indicate response to treatment, and although the RR is increased, this could be the result of anxiety or fear. 4. The client's bowel sounds are not significant data to determine the client's response to treatment The primary nurse is administering medications to the assigned clients. Which client situation requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse? 1. The client with congestive heart failure with an apical pulse of 64 who received 0.125 mg digoxin, a cardiac glycoside. 2. The client with essential hypertension who received a beta blocker and has a blood pressure of 114/80. 3. The client with myasthenia gravis who received the anticholinesterase medication 30 minutes late. 4. The client with AIDS who received trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, an antibiotic, and has a CD4 cell count of less than 200. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 3 These medications must be administered exactly on time so increased strength can occur during activity such as eating or grooming. There are very few medications administered exactly on time, but this is one of them. 1. An apical heart rate of less than 60 warrants intervention if the primary nurse gave the medication. 2. A blood pressure of less than 90/60 warrants intervention if the primary nurse gave the medication. 4. The client with AIDS receives prophylactic treatment for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) when the CD4 count is less than 200 to 300. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the female client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply. 1. Recommend the client not to engage in unprotected sexual activity. 2. Instruct the client to inform past sexual partners of HIV status. 3. Tell the client to not donate blood, organs, or tissues. 4. Suggest the client not get pregnant. 5. Explain the client does not have to tell healthcare personnel of HIV status. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 1, 3, 4 & 5 1. HIV is transmitted via sexual activity. 2. HIV is transmitted via sexual activity, and the client may have been HIV positive for up to a year and not aware of it, so all past sexual partners should be informed of the HIV status. 3. Blood donations are screened and excluded for this virus, as are organs/tissues from a client with HIV, because the virus can be transmitted to clients receiving the organ or tissue. 4. HIV can be transmitted to the fetus from the pregnant woman with HIV. 5. The client should tell the HCP, especially dentists, about the HIV status, but the client does not have to tell health-care personnel about the HIV status. Health-care personnel should always follow Standard Precautions. 1. Obtain a signed consent. 2. Initiate a 22-gauge IV. 3. Assess the client's lungs. 4. Check for allergies. 5. Hang a keep-open IV of D5W. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 1. The client must give permission to receive blood or blood products because of the nature of potential complications. 2. Most blood products require at least a 20-gauge IV because of the size of the cells. RBCs are best infused through an 18-gauge IV. If unable to achieve cannulation with an 18-gauge, a 20-gauge is the smallest acceptable IV. Smaller IVs damage the cell walls of the RBCs and reduce the life expectancy of the RBCs. ANS: 3. Because infusing IV fluids can cause a fluid volume overload, the nurse must assess for congestive heart failure. Assessing the lungs includes auscultating for crackles and other signs of left-sided heart failure. Additional assessment findings of jugular vein distention, peripheral edema, and liver engorgement indicate rightsided failure. ANS:4. Checking for allergies is important prior to administering any medication. Some medications are administered prior to blood administration. 5. A keep-open IV of 0.9% saline would be hung. D5W causes red blood cells to hemolyze in the tubing. The client with O+ blood is in need of an emergency transfusion but the laboratory does not have any O+ blood available. Which potential unit of blood could be given to the client? 1. The O- unit. 2. The A+ unit. 3. The B+ unit. 4. Any Rh+ unit. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 1. O- (O-negative) blood is considered the universal donor because it does not contain the antigens A, B, or Rh. (AB1 is considered the universal recipient because a person with this blood type has all the antigens on the blood.) 2. A+ blood contains the antigen A that the client will react to, causing the development of antibodies. The unit being Rh+ is compatible with the client. 3. B+ blood contains the antigen B that the client will react to, causing the development of antibodies. The unit being Rh+ is compatible with the client. 4. This client does not have antigens A or B on the blood. Administration of these types would cause an antigen-antibody reaction within the client's body, resulting in massive hemolysis of the client's blood and death. The client receiving a unit of PRBCs begins to chill and develops hives. Which action should be the nurse's first response? 1. Notify the laboratory and health-care provider. 2. Administer the histamine-1 blocker, Benadryl, IV. 3. Assess the client for further complications. 4. Stop the transfusion and change the tubing at the hub. --------- Correct Answer --------- --- ANS: 4. The priority in this situation is to prevent a further reaction if possible. Stopping the transfusion and changing the fluid out at the hub will prevent any more of the transfusion from entering the client's bloodstream 1. This should be done but after preventing any more of the PRBCs from infusing. 2. Benadryl may be administered to reduce the severity of the transfusion reaction, but it is not first priority. 3. The nurse should assess the client, but in this case the nurse has all the assessment data needed to stop the transfusion. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. After the shift report, which client should be assessed first? 1. The client who is two-thirds of the way through a blood transfusion and has had no complaints of dyspnea or hives. 2. The client diagnosed with leukemia who has a hematocrit of 18% and petechiae covering the body. 3. The client with peptic ulcer disease who called over the intercom to say that he is vomiting blood. 4. The client diagnosed with Crohn's disease who is complaining of perineal discomfort. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: 3. This client has a potential for hemorrhage and is reporting blood in the vomitus. This client should be assessed first. 1. The likelihood of a client who has already received more than half of the blood product having a transfusion reaction is slim. The first 15 minutes have passed and to this point the client is tolerating the blood. 2. Clients diagnosed with leukemia have a cancer involving blood cell production. These are expected findings in a client diagnosed with leukemia. 4. Crohn's disease involves frequent diarrhea stools, leading to perineal irritation and skin excoriation. This is expected and not life threatening. Clients "1," "2," and "3" should be seen before this client. A 38-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone). Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dL. b. There is a nontender axillary lump. c. The patient's skin is thin and fragile. d. The patient's blood pressure is 150/92. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: B A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, skin change, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy A patient has a new prescription for cyclosporine after having a kidney transplant. Which information in the patient's health history has the most implications for planning patient teaching about the medication at this time? a. The patient restricts salt to treat prehypertension. b. The patient drinks 3 to 4 quarts of fluids every day. c. The patient has many concerns about the effects of cyclosporine. d. The patient has a glass of grapefruit juice every day for breakfast. --------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: D Grapefruit juice can increase the cyclosporine to toxic levels. The patient should be taught to avoid grapefruit juice. High fluid intake will not impact cyclosporine levels or renal function. Cyclosporine may cause hypertension, and the patient's many concerns should be addressed, but these are not potentially life- threatening problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 230 A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. The nurse will anticipate a. administration of immunosuppressant medications. b. insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis. c. placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list. d. drawing blood for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) and ABO compatibility matching. -- ------- Correct Answer ------------ ANS: A Acute rejection is treated with the administration of additional immunosuppressant drugs such as corticosteroids. Because acute rejection is reversible, there is no indication that the patient will require another transplant, hemodialysis, or HLA/ABO testing. Which information about patient and donor tissue typing results for a patient who needs a kidney transplant is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative. b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing. c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive. d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low. --------- Correct Answer ---------- -- ANS: C Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation, since hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable. In a person having an acute rejection of a transplanted kidney, which of the following would help the nurse understand the course of events? (Select all that apply) a. A new transplant should be considered b. Acute rejection can be treated with OKT3 c. Acute rejection usually leads to chronic rejection d. Corticosteroids are the most successful drugs used to treat acute rejection. e. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy. --- ------ Correct Answer ------------ B. Acute rejection can be treated with OKT3 E. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy. Rationale: Acute rejection is treatable and does not usually require a new transplant. Monoclonal antibodies such as Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) are used for preventing and treating acute rejection episodes. Calcineurin inhibitors are the most effective immunosuppressants available to treat organ rejection. It is not uncommon to b. "There must be some sort of error. Someone must have failed to record the urine output." c. "A patient with acute kidney failure retains sodium and water, which counteracts the action of the furosemide." d. "The gradual accumulation of nitrogenous waste products results in the retention of water and sodium." a b d e ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The RN supervising a senior nursing student is discussing methods for preventing acute kidney injury (AKI). Which points would the RN be sure to include in this discussion? Select all that apply a. Encourage patients to avoid dehydration by drinking adequate fluids. b. Instruct patients to drink extra fluids during periods of strenuous exercise. c. Immediately report a urine output of less than 2 mL/kg/hr. d. Record intake and output and weigh patients daily. e. Monitor laboratory values that reflect kidney function. c ---------- Correct Answer ----------- For which patient is the nurse most concerned about the risk for developing kidney disease? a. A 25-year-old patient who developed a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy b. A 55-year-old patient with a history of kidney stones c. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes d. A 79-year-old patient with stress urinary incontinence d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for a. vasodilation. b. poor skin turgor. c. bounding pulses. d. rapid respirations. c ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The nurse will plan care to meet the goal of a. replacing fluid volume. b. preventing hypertension. c. maintaining cardiac output. d. diluting nephrotoxic substances. c ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine output b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function for a patient who is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level b. Urine output c. Creatinine level d. Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who requires hemodialysis, a temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Place the patient on bed rest. b. Start continuous pulse oximetry. c. Discontinue the retention catheter. d. Restrict the patients oral protein intake. c ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which information about a patient who was admitted 10 days previously with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. b. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. c. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is <30 mL/min/1.73m2. d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- After noting lengthening QRS intervals in a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the QRS interval. b. Notify the patients health care provider. c. Look at the patients current blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. d. Check the chart for the most recent blood potassium level. b ---------- Correct Answer ----------- When caring for a dehydrated patient with acute kidney injury who is oliguric, anemic, and hyperkalemic, which of the following prescribed actions should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). c d e ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What are intrarenal causes of AKI? Select all that apply a. anaphylaxis b. renal stones c. nephrotoxic drugs d. acute glomerulonephritis e. tubular obstruction by myoglobin c e ---------- Correct Answer ----------- An 83 year old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient? Select all that apply a. anaphylaxis b. renal calculi c. hypovolemia d. nephrotoxic drugs e. decreased cardiac output d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- ATN is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. patient with DM b. patient with hypertensive crisis c. patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria? a. urine testing reveals a low specific gravity b. causative factor is malignant hypertension c. urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration a. elevate the HOB 30-45 degrees b. take vital signs c. establish an IV site d. call the admitting healthcare provider for prescriptions e. contact the hemodialysis unit d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which initial manifestation of acute renal failure is most common? a. dysuria b. anuria c. hematuria d. oliguria d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The client who is in acute renal failure has an elevated BUN. What is the likely cause of this finding? a. fluid retention b. hemolysis of RBCs c. below-normal metabolic rate d. reduced renal blood flow a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A client with acute renal failure has an increase in the serum potassium level. The nurse should monitor the client for a. cardiac arrest b. pulmonary edema c. circulatory collapse d. hemorrhage d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A high-carbohydrate, low-protein diet is prescribed for the client with acute renal failure. The intended outcome of this diet is to a. act as a diuretic b. reduce demands on the liver c. help maintain urine acidity d. prevent the development of ketosis a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The client with acute renal failure asks the nurse for a snack. Because the client's potassium level is elevated, which snack is most appropriate? a. a gelatin dessert b. yogurt c. an orange d. peanuts a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, the nurse should assess the client for a. pulmonary edema b. metabolic alkalosis c. hypotension d. hypokalemia a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The client in acute renal failure has an external cannula inserted in the forearm for hemodialysis. Which nursing measure is appropriate for the care of this client? a. use the unaffected arm for blood pressure measurements b. draw blood from the cannula for routine laboratory work c. percuss the cannula for bruits each shift d. inject heparin into the cannula each shift b ---------- Correct Answer ----------- During dialysis, the client has disequilibrium syndrome. The nurse should first a. administer oxygen per nasal cannula b. slow the rate of dialysis c. reassure the client that the symptoms are normal d. place the client in Trendelenburg's position c ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which abnormal blood value would not be improved by dialysis treatment? a. elevated serum creatinine level b. hyperkalemia c. decreased hemoglobin concentration d. hypernatremia a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The client with acute renal failure is recovering and asks the nurse, "will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the client's renal status will most likely a. continue to improve over a period of weeks b. result in the need for permanent hemodialysis c. improve only if the client receives a renal transplant d. result in end-stage renal failure a b d ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A client with AKI has a serum potassium level of 7.0. The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply a. place the client on a cardiac monitor b. notify the HCP c. put the client on NPO status except for ice chips d. review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium e. allow an extra 500 ml of IV fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration b ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which assessment finding is commonly found in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Hypovolemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Thrombocytopenia a ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Which patient has the greatest risk for prerenal AKI? a. The patient who is hypovolemic because of hemorrhage. b. The patient who relates a history of chronic urinary tract obstruction. c. The patient with vascular changes related to coagulopathies. d. The patient receiving antibiotics such as gentamicin. a b c e ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Important nursing interventions for the patient with AKI are Select all that apply a. careful monitoring of intake and output. b. daily patient weights. c. meticulous aseptic technique. d. increase intake of vitamin A and D. e. frequent mouth care.