NHA Phlebotomy certification EXAM 2023-2024, Exams of Pharmacology

Download NHA Phlebotomy certification EXAM 2023-2024 and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity! NHA Phlebotomy certification EXAM 2023/2024 1. What temperature should a semen sample be transported?: 36-38 degrees C 2. Which of the following would result in a grossly hemolyzed specimen? a. Incorrect order of draw b. Incorrect needle gauge c. Applying tourniquet too close to the draw site d. Failure to invert tube: b. Incorrect needle gauge 3. 3. Which of the following is proper procedure after collecting ammonia specimen? a. Protect from light b. Keep specimen warm c. Keep specimen at body temp d. Place specimen in icewater slurry (or a cup of ice): d. Place specimen in icewater slurry (or a cup of ice) 4. 4. The phlebotomist has a request to collect a CBC from a healthy 10 month old. Which is appropriate?: a. Either heel 5. 5. A phlebotomist is preparing to draw blood from a patient in hospital/ The patient extends his arm and turns head away. Which consent does this indicate?: a. Implied consent 6. 6. Why should phlebotomist document volume of blood drawn from a patient?: a. Iatrogenic anemia could be a result fo too much taken 7. 7. A phlebotomist has a requisition to draw blood on a patient with severe Down's syndrome. What steps would you take?: a. Speak with the patient guardian before performing venipuncture to enmsure the patient understands 8. 8. A 69 year old unconscious patient is brought ot the ER. Several blood tests are ordered. The phlebotomist collects blood under: a. Implied consent 9. 9. Which of the following actions is appropriate when labeling specimens?: a. Label specimens at the time of collection in front of the patient 10. 10. Before collecting blood on an inpatient, the phlebotomist notices there's no wristband on wrist. There is one on the IV pole. What do you do?: a. Don't draw until nurse puts an armband on patient 11. 11. Which is appropriate form of identification in inpatient setting?: a. Verbal and wrist band 12. 12. WBC, RBC, Electrolytes are ordered. Which tubes are used for capillary?: a. Lavender and red 13. 13. A blood specimen is rejected by lab with QNS as the reason? Why?: a. The specimen was insufficient-not enough blood 14. 14. Which of the following is best method to prevent internal or external bleeding from venipuncture site after needle is removed?: a. Apply pressure to prevent leakage of blood into the tissues 15. 15. A physician orders a STAT but phlebotomist forgets to fill out patient ID number. What is appropriate procedure for an improperly labeled specimen when received in lab?: a. Lab rejects the mislabeled specimen 16. 16. Phlebotomist is performing venipuncture and patient begins to seize. What is correct action?: a. Discontinue the draw 17. 17. Phlebotomist receives orders to draw an infant screening card, O2 levels, bilirubin, and DNA. Which is to be drawn first?: a. O2 levels 18. 18. When performing a venipuncture on a patient of average weight, which is the correct technique for needle insertion?: a. Insert until a change in resistance 42. 42. Blood cultures have been ordered on ICU patient. You would use:: a. Aerobic and anaerobic bottles 43. 43. A phlebotomist is required to obtain what from a potential donor?: a. Complete medical history 44. 44. Phlebotomist needs to draw a glucose tolerance test on a patient and notices an empty breakfast plate at bedside. What should you do?: a. Ask the patient when he or she ate last 45. 45. Which vein should you attempt first?: a. Median cubital 46. 46. If a phlebotomist is stuck with a used needle, first action is:: a. Flush the area with running water 47. 47. correct specimen handling, what should you put on collection tubes?: Before leaving a patient room, make sure the date, time and initials are on the tubes. 48. 48. When removing the needle from the arm, engage the safety device immediately: 49. 49. What can cause hemolysis?: a. Vigorously shaking the tube 50. 50. A phlebotomist must centrifuge a serum separator tube before shipment:: a. Cells must be separated from the serum 51. 51. The phlebotomist draws a CBC at 1800. Lab closed at 1730 and will not process until 500. What temp should the CBC be stored: a. 2-10 degrees C (EDTA tubes may be processed at 12 hours if refrigerated) 52. 52. What test results can be affected if iodine is used to clean the site?: a. Potassium 53. 53. According to CLSI, what is collected first?: a. Blood cultures 54. 54. KNOW ORDER OF DRAW: 55. 1. KNOW ADDITIVES: 56. 55. KNOW ORDER OF VENIPUNTURE PROCEDURE: 57. 56. A physician ordered a Tobramycin level to be drawn one hour after dose. The Tobramycin has been ordered for 11am. What should you do: a. Check with the nurse to make sure meds were given (or not given) 58. 57. phlebotomist notices red spots. What is appropriate action?: a. Apply pressure after collecting During the draw, the the sample 59. 58. What is a potential consequence of mislabeling a blood bank specimen?: a. A Transfusion reaction 60. 59. When should a phlebotomist perform external liquid controls for quality control on CLIA waived point of care test?: a. When a new lot number or kit is opened 61. 60. A 3.3 kg infant has a total blood volume of 240-330ml: 62. 61. Cleanse in an outward spiral: 63. 62. What would you use for a hand draw?: a. Butterfly or winged infusion set 64. 63. Invert anticoagulant tubes to :prevent coagulation: 65. Name the 3 types of blood samples: whole blood/ plasma/ serum 66. What two States require licensure: Louisiana & California 67. When the Phlebotomist collects blood, in which of the patient's zones of interpersonal space is he/she operating?: The patient's Intimate Zone or Space 68. Define Phlebotomy: An incision into the vein 69. What is the meaning of these acronyms: ASPT, ASCP, and NHA?: ASPT = American Society of Phlebotomy Technicians ASCP = American Society for Clinical Pathology NHA = National Healthcareer Association 70. Define Reference Laboratory:: A reference laboratory is one that specializes in one test or one group of tests, or where more unusual or obscure tests are performed. 71. . Number the following items to reflect the correct blood flow through the heart and lungs: _1__ Vena Cave (superior/inferior) _7__ Lungs _5__ Pulmonary Valve _6__ Pulmonary Artery _13__ Aorta _9__ Left Atrium _2__ Right Atrium _8__ Pulmonary Veins _4__ Right Ventricle _11__ Left Ventricle _3__ Tricuspid Valve _12__ Aortic Valve _10__ Mitral Valve (aka, Bi-Cuspid): 72. To whom does the phlebotomist report?: A technical phlebotomy supervisor 73. What two government agencies administer CLIA?: Center for Medicare/Medicaid Services (CMS)__ FDA 74. . Is the Joint Commission a non-profit organization?: No, it's a not for profit organization 75. In what year and by what organization was The Patient's Bill of Rights initiated?: 1973 by the American Hospital Association. 76. . What is Informed Consent?: When you explain the procedure to the patient and they give you verbal or written permission to proceed. 77. What is Implied Consent?: When you explain the procedure to the patient and they make a gesture that implies their permission to proceed, such as extending their arm, rolling up their sleeve or nodding their head. 78. What is required to obtain Informed Consent for a child?: You explain the procedure to the parent or legal guardian and obtain their informed consent for the child. 79. What is the difference between a Criminal Lawsuit and a Civil Lawsuit?: A criminal lawsuit is initiated by the government, a civil lawsuit is between private parties. 80. What is Assault?: The threat of touching another person without his or her consent and with the intention of causing fear of harm 81. What is Battery?: Actual harmful touching of another person without his or her consent. 82. What is Libel?: False defamatory writing that is published. 83. What is a Sentinel Event?: An unanticipated death or permanent loss of function not related to a patient's illness or underlying condition. 84. . What does PPE stand for?: Personal Protective Equipment 85. . How full should you fill the Sharps Container before using a new container?: ¾ full 86. . What is the name of the multi-purpose fire extinguisher?: ABC 87. To what does the term "aseptic techniques" refer?: Techniques that provide a degree of cleanliness that prevents infection and keeps the phlebotomy environment free of contamination by microorganisms. 88. . A nosocomial infection is: a. Something acquired by healthcare workers. d. both A and B: d. both A and B d. both A and B 100. Which of the following pairings is wrong? a. icteric and yellow. b. lipemic and cloudy. c. hemolyzed and red.: d. fasting and cloudy. 101. The main anticoagulant for coagulation studies is: a. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). b. sodium citrate. c. heparin. d. oxalate.: b. sodium citrate. 102. . ABO and Rh typing are performed in which laboratory section? a. Hematology b. Blood bank c. Chemistry d. Cytology: b. Blood bank 103. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) or partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is performed in: a. coagulation. b. chemistry. c. urinalysis. d. histology.: a. coagulation. 104. . Which test would a physician order on a patient with a suspected infection? a. Glucose b. Complete blood count (CBC) c. Cholesterol d. Antinuclear antibody (ANA): b. Complete blood count (CBC) 105. An anemia would be detected by a: a. glucose test. b. blood culture. c. urinalysis. d. complete blood count.: d. complete blood count. 106. . An agency that assures quality care by hospitals is the: a. Joint Commission. b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration. d. College of American Pathologists.: a. Joint Commission. 107. . The most serious error a phlebotomist can make is: a. causing a hematoma. b. failure to correctly identify a patient. c. drawing a specimen in the wrong tube. d. collecting a hemolyzed dermal puncture specimen.: b. failure to correctly identify a patient. 108. . A puncture device with a broken seal should not be used because: a. it is no longer sterile. b. the needle may contain a barb. c. there may be a manufacturing defect. d. the color coding will not match the size.: a. it is no longer sterile. 109. Using an evacuated tube after its expiration date can result in all of the following except: a. a short draw. b. a clotted specimen. c. a lipemic specimen. d. a contaminated specimen: a. a short draw. 110. The Patient's Bill of Rights guarantees the patient all of the following except: a. a private room. b. informed consent. c. confidentiality. d. treatment refusal.: a. a private room. 111. To complete the chain of infection, all of the following are required except a: a. source. b. contaminated surface. c. mode of transmission. d. host.: b. contaminated surface. 112. An infection contracted by a patient while in the hospital is termed: a. antibiotic-resistant. b. staphylococcal. c. nosocomial. d. unfortunate: c. nosocomial. 113. The recommended disinfectant for blood and body fluid contamination is: a. sodium hydroxide. b. antimicrobial soap. c. hydrogen peroxide. d. sodium hypochlorite.: d. sodium hypochlorite. 114. . The term universal precautions refers to: a. universal blood donors. b. mixing organic chemicals under a hood. c. wellness clinics available to everyone. d. treating all specimens as infectious.: d. treating all specimens as infectious. 115. In addition to changing gloves between every patient, phlebotomists should also: a. change their lab coats. b. disinfect the phlebotomy tray. c. double-bag the specimens. d. wash their hands.: d. wash their hands. 116. To comply with the current Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, phlebotomists must: a. discard sharps only into containers attached to the wall. b. activate the needle protection device before removing the needle from the adapter. c. decontaminate needle adapters between each patient. d. activate the needle protective device and discard the needle and the adapter.: d. activate the needle protective device and discard the needle and the adapter. 117. The code word PASS refers to: a. storage of volatile chemicals. b. operation of a fire extinguisher. c. labeling of hazardous material. a. permits arterial flow and blocks venous flow. b. blocks arterial and venous flow. c. prevents backflow. d. permits venous flow and blocks arterial flow.: a. permits arterial flow and blocks venous flow. 131. The color coding of evacuated tubes provides information about all of the following except the: a. volume of specimen collected. b. type of specimen collected. c. need to invert the tube. d. presence of an anticoagulant.: c. need to invert the tube. 132. . Which of the following tubes must always be completely filled? a. Gray b. Light blue c. Red d. Pink: b. Light blue 133. The ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a light blue stopper tube is: a. 2:l b. 5:l c. 9:l d. 10:1: c. 9:l 134. Most anticoagulants in blood collection tubes prevent clotting by: a. binding calcium. b. acting as an antithrombin agent. c. binding fibrinogen. d. releasing heparin.: a. binding calcium. 135. Which of the following is the most acceptable order of tube draw? a. Yellow, red glass, and light blue b. Lavender, red plastic, and yellow c. Red plastic, light blue, and lavender d. Yellow, green, and light blue: a. Yellow, red glass, and light blue 136. Failing to adequately invert a lavender stopper tube after collection will: a. cause hemolysis. b. falsely elevate calcium results. c. destroy coagulation factors. d. produce a clotted specimen.: d. produce a clotted specimen 137. . The presence of a clot is acceptable in: a. red stopper tubes. b. lavender stopper tubes. c. green stopper tubes. d. light blue stopper tubes.: a. red stopper tubes. 138. . Which of the following needles has the largest diameter? a. 16 gauge b. 18 gauge c. 20 gauge d. 22 gauge: a. 16 gauge 139. Collecting a large evacuated tube using a 23-gauge needle: a. is recommended for geriatric patients. b. is required for certain automated tests. c. may cause a hemolyzed sample. d. may cause a loss of vacuum in the tube.: c. may cause a hemolyzed sample. 140. Forcing blood from a syringe into an evacuated tube: a. prevents the blood from clotting. b. can only be done when using a small syringe. c. may hemolyze the specimen. d. is required when using a transfer device.: c. may hemolyze the specimen 141. The needle holder that is part of the evacuated tube collection system is: a. disposed of in the general trash after removing the collection needle. b. disposed of as a unit with the collection needle into a red bag. c. disposed of as a unit with the collection needle into a sharps container. d. made of a grade of plastic that does not require disposal in a sharps container.: c. disposed of as a unit with the collection needle into a sharps container. 142. All of the following are used to identify a patient except the: a. bed sign. b. requisition form. c. identification band. d. bar codes.: a. bed sign. 143. The most important purpose of a requisition form is: a. authorization to perform the procedure.a. authorization to perform the procedure. b. providing a system to report results. c. location of the patient. d. monitoring test result turnaround time.: a. authorization to perform the procedure.a. authorization to perform the procedure. 144. Blood should not be drawn from a patient who is: a. standing. b. nervous. c. unable to make a fist. d. not fasting.: a. standing. 145. The maximum time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm is: a. 1 minute. b. 2 minutes. c. 3 minutes. d. 5 minutes.: a. 1 minute. 146. The vein of choice for routine venipuncture is the: a. median cubital. b. radial. c. cephalic. d.baslic: a. median cubital. 147. The vein located on the thumb side of the arm is the: a. brachial. b. median cubital. c. basilic. d. cephalic.: c. basilic. 148. Palpate means to: a. perform a venipuncture. 159. Patients are most likely to be in a basal state at: a. 6:00 a.m. b. 10:00 a.m. c. 2:00 p.m. d. 6:00 p.m.: a. 6:00 a.m 160. . A patient who appears pale and has cold, damp skin may develop: a. coagulation problems. b. septicemia. c. sclerosis. d. syncope.: d. syncope. 161. When encountering a patient with a fistula, the phlebotornist should: a. apply the tourniquet below the fistula. b. use the other arm. c. collect the blood from the fistula. d. attach a syringe to the T-tube connector.: b. use the other arm. 162. When collecting blood from a patient with a very edematous right arm and a large hematoma in the antecubital area of the left arm, the phlebotornist should collect the specimen from: a. below the hematoma. b. above the hematoma. c. the antecubital area of the right arm. d. the antecubital area of the left arm.: a. below the hematoma 163. The maximum number of attempts that a phlebotomist should make to collect a specimen is: a. one. b. two. c. three. d. four.: b. two. 164. . Prolonged tourniquet application will cause: a. edema. b. hemolysis. c. hemoconcentration. d. both B and C: d. both B and C b. hemolysis. c. hemoconcentration. 165. . Specimens are rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except: a. clots in a lavender stopper tube. b. collection in the wrong tube. c. incompletely filled light-blue stopper tubes. d. clots in a red stopper tube.: d. clots in a red stopper tube. 166. . Allowing blood to leak from a vein into the surrounding tissue will cause: a. hematoma. b. hemolysis. c. nerve damage. d. syncope.: a. hematoma. 167. Hematomas can be caused by all of the following except: a. having the patient bend the elbow. b. inserting the needle partially into the vein. c. drawing below an intravenous line. d. removing the tourniquet after removing the needle.: c. drawing below an intravenous line. 168. The best reason why the majority of patient samples are drawn in the early moming hours is because: a. the patient will not be in the basal state early in the rnorning because this requires several hours of normal physical activity by the patient. b. patients should have consumed a meal no less than three hours prior to the time of collection. c. the patient will be in the basal state, having restrained from strenuous exercise and having fasted for approximately 12 hours. d. patients are generally more agreeable with collection times scheduled early in the morning.: c. the patient will be in the basal state, having restrained from strenuous exercise and having fasted for approximately 12 hours. 169. . Plasma differs from Serum in that: a. Serum contains fibrinogen b. Serum is obtained by centrifugation c. Plasma contains fibrinogen d. Plasma is obtained by centrifugation: c. Plasma contains fibrinogen 170. A sentinel event would be most likely caused by delivery of a mislabeled tube to which lab department: a. Coagulation b. Hematology c. Immunology d. Blood bank: d. Blood bank 171. . Which of the following tests is not part of the CBC: a. Red blood cell count b. Platelet count c. Sedimentation rate d. Differential: c. Sedimentation rate 172. . Testing of a fecal stool for parasites is performed in: a. Hematology b. Microbiology c. Immunology d. Urinalysis: b. Microbiology 173. A prothrombin test is performed in: a. Coagulation b. Immunology c. Microbiology d. Chemistry: a. Coagulation 174. True/False Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. The liquid portion of a specimen collected in a tube containing ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is serum.: False 175. True/False Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. If a needle has not been used it can be recapped?: False 176. True/False Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. D. Collect the appropriate amount of blood by venipuncture or dermal punc-ture: C. Perform test on patient samples in the lab 189. . To prevent blood from clotting, the specimen must be: A. Collected in a tube containing an anticoagulant B. Inverted right after collection C. Centrifuged right after collection D. Both a and b: D. Both a and b A. Collected in a tube containing an anticoagulant B. Inverted right after collection 190. The primary antiseptic for venipuncture is: A. 70% isopropyl alcohol B. 80% isopropyl alcohol C. 90% isopropyl alcohol: A. 70% isopropyl alcohol 191. . Most anticoagulants in blood collection tubes prevent clotting by: A. Binding calcium B. Acting as an antithrombin agent C. Binding fibrinogen D. Releasing heparin: A. Binding calcium 192. . List five (5) physical and/or emotional changes associated with the aging process that could impact phlebotomy procedures: Any 5 of the following: - Hearing loss leading to embarrassment and frustration - Impaired verbal communication - Failing eyesight - Loss of taste, smell and/or feeling - Memory loss - Thinner skin tissue - Smaller muscles - Increased susceptibility to accidental hypothermia - Increased sensitivities and allergies - Anxiety related to becoming older and less capable 193. List two other terms used to refer to point-of-care testing: Any two of the following:: - Decentralized laboratory testing - On-site testing - Bedside testing - Near-patient testing - Patient-focused testing 194. The nervous system that is made up of the brain and spinal cord is the: a. central nervous system. b. peripheral nervous system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. voluntary nervous system: a. central nervous system 195. Application of the tourniquet on the patient's arm for longer than one minute may cause: a. an increase in contaminated blood cultures. b. a clotted sample in the red top tubes collected. c. an increase in concentration of large molecules. d. decreased pain and discomfort in the arm.: c. an increase in concentration of large molecules 196. The anterior portion of the body is the: a. right side. b. front side. c. back side. d. left side.: b. front side. 197. When a central venous access device (CVAD) is present: a. blood is drawn from the line using a 30-mL syringe. b. laboratory specimens should not be collected from the catheter. c. blood is drawn and discarded before the specimen is collected. d. an evacuated tube is attached to the line for specimen collection.: c. blood is drawn and discarded before the specimen is collected. 198. A phlebotomist may be requested not to transport a specimen through the pneumatic tube system if it is to be tested for: a. glucose. b. cholesterol. c. creatinine. d. potassium.: d. potassium. 199. Inflammation of the meninges caused by a bacterial or viral infection is called: a. poliomyelitis. b. chondrosarcoma. c. meningitis. d. cerebral palsy: c. meningitis. 200. Accessioning refers to: a. a test performed in the chemistry section. b. organization of requisition slips for morning sweeps. c. assigning of identification numbers and distribution of specimens. d. processing of specimens requiring special handling.: c. assigning of identification numbers and distribution of specimens. 201. Errors in prioritizing specimens appropriately (routine versus stat) for processing are classified as: a. post-examination variables. b. different types of variables depending on the type of laboratory. c. pre-examination variables. d. examination variables.: c. pre-examination variables. 202. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers may be used as a substitute for handwashing: a. only in a blood donation center. b. only in certain patient care areas such as oncology or obstetrics and gynecology c. at any time. d. when the hands are not visibly contaminated with blood or other body fluid.: d. when the hands are not visibly contaminated with blood or other body fluid. 203. The physical examination of urine includes reports on: a. odor and turbidity. b. color and appearance. c. clarity and foam color. d. color and blood.: b. color and appearance. 204. Which of the following pairings is wrong? a. icteric and yellow. b. lipemic and cloudy.