NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED, Exams of Nursing

Download NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ATypes of immunity ch 7 & 8 a. Innate- natural epithelial barrier and inflammation the make innate resistance and protection pg. 191 Innate immunity includes two lines of defense: Natural barriers and inflammation. i. Natural barriers- physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers at the body’s surfaces ii. Inflamation- associated with infection usually initiates an adaptive process that results in a long-term and very effective immunity to the infecting microorganism, referred to a adaptive, acquired or specific immunity. Use of the Epithelial cells with no memory function involved. b. Adaptive/ acquired- immune response or immunity, after innate and inflammation, Third line of defense, initiated when innate immune system signals the cells of adaptive immunity. There is a delay between primary exposure to antigen and maximum response, however there is immediate action against secondary exposure. Response is specific toward antigen. Involves T lymphocytes, B Lymphocytes, macrophages, and dentric cells. Specific immunologic memory by T and B lymphocytes i. Active (Acquired) -after natural exposure to an antigen or after immunization pg. 227 ii. Passive (Acquired)- preformed antibodies or t lymphocytes are transferred rom a donor to the recipient, maternal to fetus, or bone marrow transplant pg. 227 Questions NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? ▪ Passive-aquired immunity ➢ The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? ▪ IgA ➢ A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a patient's immunity. What is the clinician's best answer? • Lymphocytes. ➢ A nurse recalls humoral immunity is generated through the process of: • producing antibodies. ➢ While taking a health history, if a person has resistance to a disease from natural exposure to an antigen, how would the nurse document this form of immunity? • Active acquired ➢ What type of immunity will the nurse expect in an individual who is given a vaccine? • Active acquired immunity NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to: Alveolus radius ➢ The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term should the nurse use to describe this process? Perfusion ➢ A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff. Which information should be included? At the base of the lungs: Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lo ➢ be receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When this occurs in a patient it is called: Alveolar dead space ➢ Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypoventilation? hypercapnia ➢ A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of emphysema. Which information should the nurse include? Emphysema results in: the destruction of alveolar septa and air trapping 3. Dermatologic conditions and terminology ch. 46 pg. 1620, a. macules- freckles, flat moles, change in color, less than1 cm, NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 b. nevi- moles pg. 1641, c. pityriasis rosea- benign self-limiting inflammatory disorder that occurs in young adults, with seasonal peaks spring and fall. Harmful in pregnancy. Associated with a virus, starts with a herald patch, circular. Salmon pink, and demarcated, usually on the trunk, acyclovir and erythromycin, and corticosteroid creams for itching. Should go away within a few months. d. Papule - An elevated, firm, circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter, Wart (verruca), elevated moles, lichen planus, fibroma, insect bite e. Patch - A flat, nonpalpable, irregular-shaped macule more than 1 cm in diameter, Vitiligo, port-wine stains, mongolian spots, café-au-lait spots f. Plaque- Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter, Psoriasis, seborrheic and actinic keratosis g. Wheal - Elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient; variable diameter, Insect bites, urticaria, allergic reaction NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 h. Nodule- Elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion; deeper in dermis than a papule; 1-2 cm in diameter, Erythema nodosum, lipomas i. Tumor- Elevated, solid lesion; may be clearly demarcated; deeper in dermis; greater than 2 cm in diameter, Neoplasms, benign tumor, lipoma, neurofibroma, hemangioma j. Vesicle- Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, does not extend into dermis; filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter, Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles), herpes simplex k. Bulla - Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter, Blister, pemphigus vulgaris l. Pustule- Elevated, superficial lesion; similar to a vesicle but filled with purulent fluid, Impetigo, acne m. Cyst - Elevated, circumscribed, encapsulated lesion; in dermis or subcutaneous layer; filled with liquid or semisolid material, Sebaceous cyst, cystic acne n. Telangiectasia - Fine (0.5-1.0 mm), irregular red lines produced by capillary dilation; can be associated with acne rosacea (face), venous hypertension (spider veins in legs), systemic sclerosis, or developmental abnormalities (port-wine birthmarks), Telangiectasia in rosacea Questions ➢ The physician instructs a mother to take her child out in the sun for approximately an hour or until the skin turns red (not sunburned). This NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A 3-year-old child woke up in the middle of the night with a croupy cough and inspiratory stridor. The parents bring the child to the emergency department, but by the time they arrive, the cough is gone, and the stridor has resolved. What can the nurse teach the parents with regard to this type of croup? A cool mist vaporizer at the bedside can help prevent this type of croup. 5. Types of anemia pg. 982-1102 C. 28 reduction of the total number of erythrocytes in the circulating blood or a decrease in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin. Anemias commonly result from impaired erythrocyte production, blood loss, increases erythrocyte destruction, or a combination of these three factors. a. Pernicious Anemia (PA)- The most common type of megaloblastic anemia, is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is often associated with the end stage of type A chronic atrophic gastritis. b. Macrocytic-normochromic anemia- large abnormally shaped erythrocytes but normal hemoglobin concentrations (Pernicious- lack of B12, abnormal RNA and NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 DNA synthesis and early cell death, folate deficiency- lack of folate for erythropoiesis premature cell death) c. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia- Small abnormally shaped erythrocytes and reduced hemoglobin concentration (Iron deficiency- lack of Fe for hemoglobin production, insufficient hemo, sideroblastic- dysfunctional iron uptake by erythroblasts and defective porphyrin and heme synthesis, thalassemia- impaired synthesis of alpha and beta chain of hemoglobin, phagocytosis of abnormal erythroblasts in the marrow) d. Normocytic-normochromic anemia- normal size, normal hemo concentration (aplastic- insufficient erythropoiesis, posthemorrhagic- blood lost, hemolytic- premature destruction of mature erythrocytes in the circulation, sickle cell- abnormal hemo synthesis, abnormal cell shape with damage, lysis and phagocytosis, anemia of chronic disease- abnormal demand for new erythrocytes ) Questions ➢ Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally last how long? • The rest of one’s life ➢ Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia • Increasing rate and depth of breathing ➢ What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera? Increased blood viscosity ➢ What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? • Vitamin B12 by injection NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ What is the function of erythrocytes? • Tissue oxygenation ➢ The nurse is collecting data on a patient with suspected pernicious anemia. Which of these signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to find for this patient? Glossitis ➢ Megaloblastic anemia is a result of insufficient folic acid or vitamin B12, affecting which of the following? Rapidly turning over cells ➢ A patient with anemia who is given iron salts could expect to show a therapeutic increase in hematocrit within 6 to 10 months. ➢ After reviewing the major types of anemia, students demonstrate understanding of the info when they identify which of the following as an example of a hemolytic anemia? Sickle cell anemia ➢ Which of the following would the nurse encourage a pt. to consume to prevent folic acid anemia? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ Which type of anemia is associated with normochromic and macrocytic red blood cells (RBCs)? Megaloblastic anemia ➢ What is the genetic disorder that is associated with excessive red blood cell (RBC) destruction? Sickle cell anemia ➢ A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes would be: Able to assume various shapes ➢ A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart? Pernicious anemia ➢ A 70-year-old male is brought to the emergency department, where he dies shortly thereafter. Autopsy reveals polycythemia vera (PV). His death was most likely the result of: Cerebral thrombosis ➢ A 67-year-old male was diagnosed with polycythemia vera (PV) but refused treatment. His condition is at risk for converting to: Acute myeloid leukemia ➢ A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia. Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart? Sideroblastic anemia ➢ How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Schilling test for pernicious anemia? Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine. ➢ A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding. A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is: Iron deficiency ➢ A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia? Hemolytic anemia ➢ A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about aplastic anemia. Which information should the nurse include? Aplastic anemia is caused by: Stem cell deficiency ➢ A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur? Bronze colored skin 6. The inflammatory process upon injury pg. 195 Ch. 7- blood vessel dilation, increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid out of the vessel, WBC adherence to the inner NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 walls of the vessel and their migration through vessel walls to the site of injury. Figure 7- 2 Questions ➢ A nurse will be teaching about body defenses. Which information should the nurse include? The body's first line of defense against microorganisms is comprised of the: skin and mucous membranes. ➢ While planning care for a patient with an infection, which principle should the nurse remember? In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response recognizes specific invaders ➢ The nurse assesses clients for the cardinal signs of inflammation. Redness, edema and warmth ➢ A client has a leg wound that is in the second stage of the inflammatory response. For what manifestation does the nurse assess? Purulent drainage ➢ Which event in the inflammatory response would the nurse correlate with the action of bradykinin? Pain ➢ A nurse recalls if the surface barriers such as the skin or mucus membranes are breached, the second line of defense in innate immunity is the: inflammatory response. ➢ A nurse is teaching about inflammation. Which information should be included? The first vascular response in inflammation is: vasoconstriction. NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 difficulty breathing ➢ A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Dyspnea 9. Complications of gastric resection surgery-pg 1440 Weight loss often follows gastric resection but stabilizes within 3 months. Food may be poorly absorbed because the stomach is less able to mix, churn, and break down food particles. a. Signs and symptoms- Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and malabsorption of fats. dumping syndrome- occurs when food, especially sugar, moves from your stomach into your small bowel too quickly b. A BMI of 25 to 29.9 kg/m2 is considered a grade 1 (overweight) classification. A BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2 is considered normal range, whereas 30 to 39.9 kg/m2 is a grade 2 (severe overweight) classification, and a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2 is considered grade 3 (morbidly overweight). Questions ➢ The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of: NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 25 to 29.9 ➢ Care for the postoperative client after gastric resection should focus on which of the following problems? Nutritional needs ➢ Which of the following complications of gastric resection should the nurse teach the client to watch for? Dumping syndrome 10.Chicken pox- pg. 1660, ch. 47. disease of early childhood, highly contagious virus, vesicles, trunk, scalp, or face, transmission 5-6 days after first vesicle, contagious 1 day prior to rash, contagious for 7-10 days, Questions ➢ An older adult client tells the nurse that her granddaughter has chickenpox. The client is afraid to visit because she is afraid of getting shingles from her granddaughter. What is the nurse's best response? "If you already had chickenpox, you can safely visit your granddaughter." ➢ The nurse counsels the parent of a 12 year old diagnosed with chickenpox about when the child can return to school. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the parent makes which statement? My child can return to school when the lesions are crusted ➢ A parent calls the clinic to report that the child has been exposed to varicella zoster (chicken pox). The nurse should tell the parent that the incubation period for chickenpox is which length of time? 2-3 weeks NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 11.Maternal immune system- pg. 1059. ABO incompatibility. The human neonate has a poorly developed immune response, particularly in the production of IgG. The fetus and neonate are protected in utero and during the first few postnatal months by maternalantibodies that are actively transported across the placenta. After birth the maternal antibodies disappear by 10 months of age. Questions ➢ If a patient has a typical secondary immunity response, which antibody is most predominant IgG ➢ A mother is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and is worried that her newborn infant will also contract the infection. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client? Your newborn has maternal IgG antibodies that were transferred through the placenta before birth, providing some protection from infection. ➢ The laboratory finds IgA in a sample of cord blood from a newborn infant. This finding is important because it signifies what? Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection ➢ A woman experiences a viral infection while pregnant. Which of the following types of immunity does an infant have at birth against this infection? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A patient's anemia is described as having erythrocytes that demonstrate anisocytosis. The nurse would recognize the erythrocytes would be: Able to assume various shapes ➢ A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has? Hemolytic anemia ➢ A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is: Defective DNA synthesis ➢ A patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms may cause anemia in this patient? Decreased erythrocyte life span, Failure of mechanisms of compensatory erythropoiesis, Disturbances of the iron cycle 15.Antibodies pg. 229-230 a. IgG- most abundant 80-85%, protective activity, Four subclasses IgG1, IgG2, IgG3 and IgG4 b. IgA- normal body secretions highest amount here, found in blood, saliva, brest milk, and respiratory secretions. c. IgM- largest first produced in initial or primary response, early in neonatal life, d. IgD- low concentrations, bcell antigen receptor, e. IgE least concentrated- mediator of allergic responses Questions ➢ What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Greater quantities of IgE ➢ The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? ▪ IgE ➢ A patient has a parasite. Which lab report should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis? IgE ➢ If a patient has a typical secondary immune response, which antibody is most predominant? IgG. ➢ A mother is breastfeeding her infant. The nurse realizes the main antibody being transferred from the mother to her infant through the breast milk is: IgA ➢ When a person has a life-threatening hypersensitivity/allergic reaction to bee stings, which lab result will the nurse check IgE ➢ Which immunity principle should guide the nurse when caring for an infant? At birth, IgG levels in newborn infants are: NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 near adult levels. ➢ While reviewing a patients' immunological profile, which immunoglobulin does the nurse expect to see elevated if the patient has a type I hypersensitivity reaction? IgE ➢ The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals is IgE ➢ In teaching a patient with SLE about the disorder, the nurse knows that the pathophysiology of SLE includes the production of a variety of autoantibodies directed against components of the cell nucleus ➢ A patient is diagnosed with a hypersensitivity reaction mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies. For which type of hypersensitivity reaction should the nurse plan care for this patient? Type 12 16.Skin cancer- pg. 1641. basal carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma most common a. Basal cell-on the surface of the epithelial tumor of the skin originating from undifferentiated basal or germinative cells. Tumor grows upward and katerally or downward to the dermal-epidermal junction. Has depressed center and rolled borders. b. Squamous cell-Tumor of the epidermis and the second most commone human cancer. Affects the head, neck and the hands. Questions NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 pericardial ➢ A 52-year-old female is admitted to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of pericarditis. She asks the nurse to explain where the infection is. In providing an accurate description, the nurse states that the pericardium is: A membranous sac that encloses the heart ➢ A nurse is explaining the function of the heart. Which is a correct response by the nurse? A function of the pericardium is to: Provide a barrier against extracardial infections. ➢ A nurse is teaching about the heart. Which information should the nurse include? The chamber of the heart that generates the highest pressure is the: Left ventricle ➢ A nurse recalls the chamber that receives blood from the systemic circulation is the: Right atrium ➢ Which statement indicates the nurse understands blood flow? Oxygenated blood flows through the: Pulmonary veins ➢ While viewing the electrocardiogram, the nurse recalls the bundle of His conducts action potentials down the atrioventricular septum. 18.Congenital heart defects- pg. 1198 leading cause of death in the first year of life minus prematurity. Etiology usually unknown. If pulmonary vascular resistance has fallen, then infants with PDA will characteristically have a continuous machine-type murmur best NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. If the PDA is significant, then the infant also will have bounding pulses, an active precordium, a thrill on palpation, and signs and symptoms of pulmonary overcirculation. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described the symptoms. Questions ➢ An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal boarder throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Patent ductus arteriousus (PDA) ➢ The comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old that would alert the nurse about the presence of a congenital heart defect is: "He tires out during feedings." ➢ The nurse explains that which congenital cardiac defect(s) cause(s) increased pulmonary blood flow? Atrial septal defects (ASDs), Patent ductus arteriosus, Ventricular septal defects (VSDs) ➢ A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect (CHD). The test results reveal that the lumen of the duct between the aorta and pulmonary artery remains open. This defect is known as patent ductus arteriosus or PDA . ➢ Congenital heart defects (CHDs) are classified by which of the following? Defects with increased pulmonary blood flow, Defects with decreased pulmonary blood flow., Mixed defects, Obstructive defects. ➢ Hypoxic spells in the infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD) can cause which of NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 the following? Polycythemia, Blood clots, Cerebrovascular accident, Developmental delays, Brain damage. ➢ A 6-month-old who has episodes of cyanosis after crying could have the congenital heart defect (CHD) of decreased pulmonary blood flow called tetalology of fallot or TOF ➢ While looking through the chart of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD) of decreased pulmonary blood flow, the nurse would expect which laboratory finding? Polycythemia. ➢ In which congenital heart defect (CHD) would the nurse need to take upper and lower extremity BPs? Coarctation of the aorta (COA). 19.Urinary tract obstruction- pg. 1341 Ch 38- interference with the flow of urine at any site along the urinary tract. Obstruction may be anatomic or functional. It impedes flow proximal to the obstruction, dilates structures distal to the obstruction, increases risk for infections, and compromises renal functions. Questions NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ The nurse explains to the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease that this disorder: • often involves relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach contents to back up into the espophagus ➢ The client with a hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with hiatal hernia? Lying recumbent following meals ➢ The client is diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which inter- vention should the nurse implement? Monitor intravenous fluids. ➢ Which of the following factors would most likely contribute to the development of a client's hiatal hernia? . Obesity, pregnancy, age, trauma , smoking ➢ The client asks the nurse whether he will need surgery to correct his hiatal hernia. Which reply by the nurse would be most accurate? "Hiatal hernia symptoms can usually be successfully managed with diet modifications, medications, and lifestyle changes." ➢ A client with ulcerative colitis (UC) has stage 1 of a restorative proctocolectomy with ileo-anal anastomosis (RPC-IPAA) procedure performed. The client asks the nurse, "How long do people with this procedure usually have a temporary ileostomy?" How does the nurse respond? "It is usually ready to be closed in about 1 to 2 months." ➢ The nurse is caring for a patient with fulminant ulcerative colitis. The nurse would be alert for which of the following symptoms associated NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 with severe fulminant ulcerative colitis? Toxic megacolon, 10 or more bowel movements per day, Bowel perforation,Anemia ➢ Which of the following clients would the nurse suspect to have pyloric stenosis? A 5-week-old infant with projectile vomiting ➢ A 3-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis is admitted to the hospital during a vomiting episode. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? position on right side ➢ Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia? Weakness of the diaphragmic muscle 21.Skin cancer lesions-pg. 1642 superficial, nodular, sclerosis/morpheaform, can be pigmented or non pigmented. Questions ➢ A patient is scheduled for Mohs' microscopic surgery for removal of a skin cancer lesion on his forehead. The nurse knows to prepare the patient by explaining that this type of surgery requires: Removal of the tumor, layer by layer NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A patient with squamous cell carcinoma has been scheduled for treatment of this malignancy. The nurse should anticipate that treatment for this type of cancer will primarily consist of what intervention? Surgical excision ➢ A patient has just been told that he has malignant melanoma. The nurse caring for this patient should anticipate that the patient will undergo what treatment? Wide excision ➢ A patient with a suspected malignant melanoma is referred to the dermatology clinic. The nurse knows to facilitate what diagnostic test to rule out a skin malignancy? A skin biopsy is done to rule out malignancies of skin lesions. ➢ While performing an initial assessment of a patient admitted with appendicitis, the nurse observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the patient's ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer? Malignant melanoma 22.Gastroesophageal reflux disease- pg, 1429 Ch 41- Regurgitation of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus, causing esophagitis from repeated exposure to acids and enzymes in the regurgitated gastric contents. reflux of acid and pepsin from stomach, to the esophagus, risk factors obesity, hiatal hernia, drugs or chemicals Questions ➢ A patient comes to the clinic complaining of heartburn after meals and is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which dietary instructions should the nurse include in teaching? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ The nurse is interpreting a patient's positive tuberculin skin test. This finding is consistent with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? type IV ➢ A nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a patient. Which symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the patient experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction? Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and pruritus ➢ The nurse is concerned about the patient having tissue injury during type II hypersensitivity. Which mechanism provides the rationale for this concern? Autoantibody mediation of neutrophils with detoxication of their toxic substances contributes to tissue injury. ➢ The patient has a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In planning care for this patient, the nurse should consider that this type of reaction is related to: delayed response ➢ Type IV hypersensitivity tissue effects are initiated by: the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. ➢ Allergy is the most common type of immediate hypersensitivity. 24.Congenital intrinsic factor deficiency- pg. 988, genetic disorder tat demonstrates an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, transporter required for absorption of dietary NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Vit b12, essential for maturation and DNA synthesis in erythrocytes. Results in Percutaneous anemia (CH. 28) Questions ➢ A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart? Pernicious anemia ➢ A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in intrinsic factor is the most likely cause. 25.Acid base imbalance- Pg. 126 Ch. 3, See charts. Pathophysiologic changes in the concentration of hydrogen ion or base in the blood lead to acid-base imbalances. a. Respiratory acidosis- is a condition that occurs when the lungs can't remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body b. Respiratory alkalosis- is a medical condition in which increased respiration elevates the blood pH beyond the normal range (7.35–7.45) with a concurrent reduction in arterial levels of carbon dioxide c. Metabolic acidosis- is primary reduction in bicarbonate (HCO3 −), typically with compensatory reduction in carbon dioxide partial pressure (Pco2); pH may be markedly low or slightly subnormal d. Metabolic alkalosis- is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 beyond the normal range (7.35–7.45). Questions ➢ While checking arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds respiratory acidosis. What does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient? reduced tidal volumes ➢ A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2 ) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause? Hyperventilation ➢ The nurse is assessing a client with suspected respiratory acidosis. Which assessment items are priority for the nurse to collect? Rate and depth of respirations, Skin color and temperature, Appearance of the optic nerve o The nurse is administering sodium bicarbonate to the client with respiratory acidosis. The nurse understands that which is the primary goal of treatment for this client? Removing excess acids in blood ➢ The student nurse is assisting in the care for a client with acute respiratory acidosis. The nurse explains to the student nurse that the client's blood pH initially falls in the development of acute respiratory acidosis because of which process? Hypoventilation NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ What is true regarding duodenal ulcers? More common in men than in women, typically develop between the ages of 30 and 55. More common in individuals who smoke ➢ A client with a duodenal ulcer asks the nurse why antibiotics are a part of the treatment plan. Which information should the nurse include in the explanation? Most duodenal ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori. ➢ When obtaining a nursing history from a client with suspected gastric ulcer, which signs and symptoms should the nurse assess? Vomiting, weight loss & anemia 28.Lupus- pg. 1632- inflammatory, autoimmune, systemic disease with cutaneous manifestations, lupus nephritis is a complication affecting renal component pg. 1358 a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)- is a chronic, multisystem, inflammatory disease and is one of the most common, complex, and serious of the autoimmune disorders. SLE is characterized by the production of a large variety of autoantibodies against nucleic acids, erythrocytes, coagulation proteins, phospholipids, lymphocytes, platelets, and many other self-components. The most characteristic autoantibodies produced in SLE are against nucleic acids (e.g., single-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA], double- stranded DNA), histones, ribonucleoproteins, and other nuclear materials. Questions ➢ A 26-year-old woman has been diagnosed with early systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) involving her joints. In teaching the patient about NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 the disease, the nurse includes the information that SLE is a(n): Disorder of immune function, but it is extremely variable in its course, and there is no way to predict its progression. ➢ A patient with polyarthralgia with joint swelling and pain is being evaluated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse knows that the serum test result that is the most specific for SLE is the presence of: Anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm). ➢ A client is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematous. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following is one of the initial characteristic sign of systemic lupus erythematous? Rash on the face across the bridge of the nose ➢ The nurse is assigned to care for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse plans care knowing that this disorder is: An inflammatory disease of collagen contained in connective tissue 29.General adaptation syndrome- pg. 339- Manifestation of a nonspecific response to noxious stimuli in three stages 1. Alarm stage or reaction, CNS is aroused and the bodys defenses are mobilized, 2. Resistance or adaptation- mobilization contributes to fight or flight, 3. Stage of exhaustion where continuous stress causes the progressive breakdown of compensatory mechanisms and homeostatis. Questions NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ Increased blood volume, heart rate, blood glucose levels, and increased mental alertness occur during which part of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? ALARM STAGE ➢ While assessing a person for effects of the general adaptation syndrome, the nurse should be aware that: Glucose level increases during the alarm reaction stage ➢ Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? • Flight or fight ➢ A client with cancer has recovered from tumor removal surgery and is now stable while undergoing a chemotherapy treatment schedule. She is not having any symptoms at this time and is continuing to work and enjoy social events. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) would you place her in? Resistance 30.Ventilation/perfusion ratio- V/Q ratio, normal is 0.8 pg. 1240 The relationship between ventilation and perfusion is expressed as a ratio called the ventilation-perfusion ratio, or ˙V/˙Q.The normal ˙V/˙Q ratio is 0.8. This is the amount by which perfusion exceeds ventilation under normal conditions. Questions ➢ How dose chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? ▪ An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s ➢ A nurse recalls a high ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by: obstruction to pulmonary blood flow. NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 or precursor cells to produce large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells are known as: Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) 33.Obstructive sleep apnea- pg. 504, ch 16, disorder of sleep characterized by airway obstruction and episodes of apnea with snoring, Questions ➢ When assessing a client for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), the nurse understands the most common symptom is: Excessive daytime sleepiness ➢ The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sleep apnea. The nurse understands that which elements occur when a client has sleep apnea? Carbon dioxide retention will cause the pH to decrease and respiratory acidosis to develop. ➢ The patient is diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. Identify the symptoms you would expect the client to exhibit. Daytime fatigue, Snoring ➢ The nurse knows the following risk factors are associated with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) Deviated septum, recessed chin, alcohol use, large neck NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 34.Large bowel obstruction- pg 1432, s/sx are hypo gastric pain, and abdominal distention. The most common causes of large bowel obstructions are colorectal cancer, volvulus, and strictures related to diverticulitis. Questions ➢ The nurse is taking a health history of a newly admitted patient with a diagnosis Rule/out bowel obstruction. Which of the following is the priority question to ask the patient? When was the last time you moved your bowels ➢ You are admitting a patient with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. A bowel obstruction is suspected. You assess this patient for which anticipated primary acid-base imbalance if the obstruction is high in the intestine? Metabolic alkalosis 35.Vaginal candidiasis- pg. 1638 table, heat, moisture, occlusive clothing, pregnancy, systemic antibiotics, DM, SEX, itching, white, watery, or creamy discharge, swollen vaginal and labial membranes with erosions, lesions on anus and groin, treated with miconazole cream, nystatin tablets, clotrimazole tablets or cream, loose cotton clothing Questions ➢ During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Candidiasis ➢ A patient undergoing treatment for vaginitis is also counseled about measures to prevent its recurrence. Which patient statement best indicates effective counseling? "My sexual partner will also need to be treated." ➢ A nurse is reviewing a client's medical history. Which factor indicates the client is at risk for candidiasis? Use of corticosteroids ➢ A nurse who works in a gynecologist's office frequently cares for patients who are diagnosed with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The nurse should teach the patients how to manage and treat the most common symptom of: Vulvar pruritus. ➢ A patient with HIV has recently completed a 7-day regimen of use of antibiotics. She reports vaginal itching and irritation. In addition, the patient has a white, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the patient most likely suffering? Vulvovaginal candidiasis ➢ A woman complains to the nurse that she has developed a yeast infection. The woman does not understand how she could get a yeast infection since she has been on antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. What is the rationale for this patient's complaint? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells ➢ The nurse, interviewing a patient with acute pancreatitis, expects what finding in the patient's history? Diabetes mellitus 38.Types of fractures- Oblique, occult, open, pathologic, segmented, spiral, transverse, green stick, impacted pg. 1541 Questions ➢ The human body is designed to protect its vital parts. A fracture of what type of bone may interfere with the protection of vital organs? Flat bones ➢ A patient has sustained a long bone fracture. The nurse is preparing a care plan for this patient. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to enhance fracture healing? Monitor color, temperature, and pulses of the affected extremity ➢ The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient admitted to the Emergency Department (ED) with an open fracture. The nurse will assign priority to what nursing diagnosis for a patient with an open fracture of the radius? Risk for infection ➢ While caring for a patient with a hip fracture, the nurse will instruct the patient to do what to prevent the most common complication associated with a hip fracture? Increase fluid intake ➢ Radiographs were ordered for a 10-year-old boy who had his right upper arm injured. The radiographs show that the humerus appears to be fractured on one side and slightly bent on the other. What NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 type of fracture is this an example of? Green stick ➢ A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam. She is at high risk for: Pathologic bone fractures ➢ A 65-year-old Hispanic female is admitted to the hospital with a pathologic, compound, transverse fracture of the femur. Which of the following statements best describes this type of fracture? The fracture line is straight across the bone. ➢ A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the Pathologic fracture ➢ A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his leg. This is referred to as a what type of fracture? fatigue ➢ What does prolonged bed rest put the older adult at risk for Pathologic fractures ➢ A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of a torus fracture. Which information should the nurse include? A torus fracture is a type of: NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 incomplete fracture. ➢ A patient has a fracture that broke into several fragments. Which type of fracture did the patient sustain? Comminuted fracture ➢ A torus fracture occurs when: The cortex of the bone buckles ➢ While teaching a group of student nurses about different types of fractures, the nursing instructor says, "This fracture is characterized by the crushing of cancellous bone." Which type of fracture is the nursing instructor describing? Compression ➢ A client sustained multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse determines that the client is at a high risk for osteomyelitis due to which type of fracture? Open ➢ A patient has a fracture line at an angle to the long axis of the bone. Which type of fracture did the patient sustain? Oblique ➢ transchondral fractures are most prevalent in Adolescents ➢ An adolescent patient has sustained a fracture that involves fragmentation of the articular cartilage. Which type of fracture did the adolescent sustain? Transchondral ➢ The orthopedic nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a fracture of the radius. When the nurse is considering all of the various types of bone fractures, which bone type is most anticipated? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Klinfelter's syndrome-- 44 + XXY ➢ Trisomy 21 is otherwise called: Down's syndrome ➢ Down's syndrome is due to: An extra chromosome ➢ In Down's syndrome, the chromosome number in each cell is: 47 ➢ The risk of Down's syndrome in offsprings is high to mothers at the age of: 35 years ➢ Persons with Klinfelter's syndrome have chromosomes: 47 ➢ Turner's syndrome is characterised by chromosomes: 45 ➢ A person having Klinfelter's syndrome is characterised by: Male with some secondary sexual characters of female 40.Vitamin B-12 therapy- 988-989 cobalamin, initial injections of vit b12 are administered weekly, followed by monthly injections for an individuals life, for Pernicious anemia (PA) Questions ➢ The nurse knows the Vitamin B12 is found naturally in many foods. Which foods contain the LEAST amount of B12? Chocolate. B12 is found in meats, seafood, fermented cheeses. ➢ A patient had a portion of stomach removed and must take vitamin B12. Which of the following statements should be included in the patient teaching? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 "Pernicious anemia is a complication of this surgery, so you must take vitamin B12." ➢ After teaching a patient with pernicious anemia about vitamin B12, therapy, which patient statement would indicate that the teaching was successful? I need to inject this drug intramuscularly every 5 to 10 days. ➢ When describing the function of vitamin B12, which of the following would be appropriate to include? Maintenance of myelin sheath ➢ A patient has vitamin B12 deficiency following a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse understands the patient has which type of anemia? megaloblastic ➢ The nurse is teaching a patient with B12 deficiency caused by a previous gastrectomy and lack of intrinsic factor. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan? "You may be prescribed a high dose of oral vitamin B12." ➢ The nurse is preparing the patient for a test to determine the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. The patient will receive a small oral dose of radioactive vitamin B12 followed by a large parenteral dose of nonradioactive vitamin B12. What test is the patient being prepared for? Schilling test ➢ A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy? "I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 life." ➢ The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B12? Meats and dairy products ➢ The nurse recognizes that which patient is at the greatest risk for pernicious anemia or vitamin B12 deficiency? 60-year-old woman who has undergone a total gastric resection ➢ In monitoring a patient for early signs of vitamin B12 deficiency, the nurse correlates which clinical manifestation with this disorder? Paresthesia in hands and feet ➢ A 2-year-old malnourished child has vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies. A blood smear suggests the deficiency is macrocytic and normochromic. The nurse would expect the hemoglobin to be: Normal ➢ Which of the following individuals should the nurse assess first for a vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? 47-year-old male who had a gastrectomy procedure (removal of the stomach) 41.Glaucoma pg. 510-11- leading cause of visual impairment and blindness, intraocular pressures greater than 12-20mm Hg, family history is a risk factor, NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A patient is being treated for chronic pain. What should the nurse keep in mind when assessing this patient's level of pain? The pain rating may be inconsistent with the underlying pathology. ➢ A patient is seen talking and laughing in the clinic's waiting room yet complains of excruciating pain. What should the nurse realize this patient is demonstrating? inconsistent behavioral response to pain 44.Autosomal dominant diseases-pg. 152-154 inherited one bad gene from one parents that is dominant, they are rare, fewer than 1 in 500 individuals Questions ➢ A nurse is assessing a patient with an autosomal-dominant inherited condition. When discussing the risk of transmission to the patient's offspring, which of the following would the nurse include? Each child has a 50% risk of inheriting the gene. ➢ A client has an autosomal-dominant disorder. His wife is unaffected. When explaining the risk for inheritance of the disorder in their offspring, which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? There is a 50% chance that each of your children will have the condition ➢ The daughter of a patient with Huntington disease has requested that she be tested for the disease even though she has no symptoms at this time. What type of test does the nurse anticipate the physician will order? Presymptomatic testing ➢ Which of the following risk factors have been linked to ovarian NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 cancers? Select all that apply. Gene mutations BRCA-1 and BRCA-2, Nulliparity ➢ A late acting dominant disorder is: Huntington's chorea ➢ Huntignton's chorea is characterised by Disordered muscle movement and mental disorientation ➢ Dancing gait and bizarre grimacing are characteristics of: Huntignton's disease ➢ The RN is reading the chart of a new pt. at the genetic clinic. The chart notes that the pt., her brother, and her mother all have inherited a particular condition. The RN plans care for a condition with which of the following type of inheritance pattern? autosomal dominant 45.Congenital murmurs- have at birth, innocent or more Questions ➢ While assessing a newborn with respiratory distress, the nurse auscultates a machine-like heart murmur. Other findings are a wide pulse pressure, periods of apnea, increased PaCO2, and decreased PO2. The nurse suspects that the newborn has: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). ➢ A 2-day-old infant was just diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What is the most likely nursing assessment finding? Heart murmur NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A newborn develops a murmur and cyanosis shortly after birth. She is diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS) after an echocardiogram revealed narrowing of the pulmonary: Valve orifice 46.Lactose intolerance- pg. 1439 inhibits the breakdown of lactose into monosaccharides and there for prevents lactose digestion and absorption in the intestinal wall, most common in blacks, watery diarrhea, bloating, cramping, pain, diarrhea, flatulence Questions ➢ During the nursing assessment a patient reveals that he has diarrhea and cramping every time he has ice cream. He attributes this to the cold nature of the food. However, the nurse begins to suspect that these symptoms are associated with: Lactose intolerance . ➢ A client receiving enteral feedings develops abdominal distention and diarrhea shortly after initiation of the feedings. In review of the nursing history for this client, which of these notations indicates the need to notify the health care provider? Lactose intolerance since childhood ➢ The nurse is working with a client with lactose intolerance. What can this nurse suggest to this client to increase tolerance to small amounts of milk? Consume milk with food. ➢ People who have lactose intolerance suffer from bloating, gas, and diarrhea. What type of diarrhea is caused by lactose intolerance? Osmotic diarrhea 47.Angiotensin-renin system- pg. 176 TableWhen renin is released, it cleaves an α-globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 following is an appropriate response by the nurse? "AIDS is considered to be a chronic illness today." ➢ Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? An AIDS client with a decreased CD4+ TH1 count 49.Carcinoma- pg. 364 cancers arising from the epithelial tissues Questions ➢ Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissure origin? Epithelial cells ➢ A nurse is conducting a session on education about cancers of the reproductive tract and is explaining the importance of visiting a health care professional if certain unusual symptoms appear. Which should the nurse include in her list of symptoms that merit a visit to a health care professional for further evaluation Irregular vaginal bleeding, persistent low backache not related to standing, and elevated or discolored vulvar lesions are some of the symptoms that should be immediately brought to the notice of the primary health care provider NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ The postmenopausal woman who has bleeding and spotting and cannot tolerate a endometrial biopsy in the office would expect to have which of the following tests done to rule out endometrial cancer? transvaginal ultrasound ➢ The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following to be the treatment of choice for endometrial cancer? hysterectomy and salpingo-oophorectomy ➢ The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following age group to be when ovarian cancer occurs more frequently? 55-75 years of age ➢ Treatment for Stage IA (Microinvasive Carcinoma) is? Ia1: Vaginal hysterectomy. Cervical conization if the patient desires to maintain her fertility. ➢ An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond? Cancer ➢ The nurse working with oncology clients understands that interacting factors affect cancer development. Which factors does this include? Genetic predisposition, Exposure to carcinogens, Immune function ➢ A nurse is providing community education on the seven warning signs of cancer. Which signs are included a sore that does not heal, indigestion or trouble swallowing, obvious NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 changes in a mole. changes in bowel or bladder habbits, unusual bleeding or discharge, thickening of lump in breast or elsewhere, nagging cough or hoarseness ➢ The nursing instructor explains the difference between normal cells and benign tumor cells. What information does the instructor provide about these cells? Growing in the wrong place or time is typical of benign tumors. ➢ The nursing student learning about cancer development remembers characteristics of normal cells. Which characteristics does this include? Nonmigratory, Specific morphology, Differentiated function ➢ The student nurse caring for clients who have cancer understands that the general consequences of cancer include which client problems? reduced immunity and blood-producing functions, altered GI structure and function, decreased respiratory function, motor and sensory deficits 50.Hormonal regulation of calcium- pg. 119 by parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D and calcitoni n Questio ns ➢ When evaluating the laboratory findings of a patient with decreased function of the anterior pituitary gland, the nurse would expect to find normal serum calcium levels. ➢ When teaching a patient with hypoparathyroidism about the NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ How are neural tube defects prevented? Folic Acid ➢ Where do neural tube defects occur? occur anywhere in the brain or spinal cord ➢ How are neural tube defects detected? via a ultra sound 52.Types of hormones- pg. 690 Table, 717-767, 804-855 Water soluble, lipid soluble Questions ➢ A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones. Which information should the nurse include? One of the protein hormones is: Insulin ➢ -A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient's target cells have the capacity for: Down regulation NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ -A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by: Diffusion ➢ Hormones are effective communicators because they: decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels ➢ Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble? insulin ➢ From where is the hormone glucagon secreted? α-Cells of the islets of Langerhans ➢ Which endocrine gland secretes cortisol? Adrenal cortex ➢ What accurately demonstrates that hormones of one gland influence the function of hormones of another gland? Increased atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) levels inhibit the secretion of aldosterone. 53.Glycoprotein- pg. 13-15 Proteins attached to carbs, cell surface markers. Questions ➢ Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? ▪ Uromodulin 54.Kidney stones- pg. 1343-1344 Masses of crystals, protein, or other substances common cause of UTO, most common form is of calcium oxalate or phosphate Questions NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A client presents to the emergency department complaining of a dull, constant ache along the right costovertebral angle along with nausea and vomiting. The most likely cause of the client's symptoms is: renal calculi. ➢ The nurse reviews a client's history and notes that the client has a history of hyperparathyroidism. The nurse would identify that this client most likely would be at risk for which of the following? Kidney stones ➢ Which of the following are appropriate interventions in the care of a patient diagnosed with renal calculi? Straining the client's urine • Addressing the client's pain • Keeping track of intake and output ➢ A nurse is administering medications to a patient with a kidney stone. Which medication does the nurse administer that will lower urinary calcium by increasing tubular reabsorption to decrease the amount of calcium in the urine? Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) ➢ Which of the following is a nonsurgical method of treatment for renal calculi (kidney stones)? Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ The nurse is evaluating a 45-year-old patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which symptom reported by the patient is considered one of the classic clinical manifestations of diabetes? Excessive thirst ➢ The nurse is teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus about exercise to help control his blood glucose. The nurse knows the patient understands when the patient elicits which exercise plan? I will take a brisk 30-minute walk 5 days per week and do resistance training 3 times a week. 56.Pituitary hormone secretion- a. posterior- (polypeptide hormones) ADH & oxytocin, b. anterior- ACTH, melanocyte- stimulating hormone (MSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), GH, prolactin, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and TSH Questions ➢ Which hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? Prolactin, growth hormone, gonadotropic hormone, melanocyte- stimulating hormone, TSH, ACTH ➢ When educating a group of students about the pituitary hormones, which should the nurse identify as the function of vasopressin? Stimulates contraction of blood vessels ➢ The nurse is explaining to the nursing students the relationship between "releasing" hormones and "inhibiting" hormones. What is the best answer by the nursing students of which part of the body is responsible for releasing hormones that either inhibit release or NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 promote release of other hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary? Hypothalamus ➢ A 22-year-old patient is being seen in the clinic with increased secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones. The nurse would expect the laboratory results to show Increased urinary cortisol. ➢ A client thought to have a problem with the pituitary gland is given a stimulation test using insulin. A short time later, blood analysis reveals elevated levels of growth hormone (GH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Which is the nurse's interpretation of this finding? A normal pituitary response to insulin 57.Signs of breast cancer- pg. 873 Chest pain, dilated blood vessels, dimpling of skin, edema, , edema of arm, hemorrhage, local pain, nipple/areolar eczema, nipple discharge, nipple retraction, pitting of skin, reddened skin, skin retraction, ulceration Questions ➢ A client is at risk for breast cancer. Which of the following would reflect the client's genotype for this disorder? carrier of BRCA1 mutation NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A 32-year-old patient has just been told that she has the BRCA1 hereditary breast cancer gene mutation. What is her risk of developing cancer by the age of 65 years? 80% ➢ The nurse is reviewing statistics regarding breast cancer. Which woman, aged 40 years in the United States, has the highest risk for development of breast cancer? African-American ➢ The nurse is preparing for a class in early detection of breast cancer. Which statement is true with regard to breast cancer in African- American women in the United States? African-American women are more likely to die of breast cancer at any age. ➢ The nurse is reviewing risk factors for breast cancer. Which of these women have risk factors that place them at a higher risk for breast cancer? 65-year-old whose mother had breast cancer ➢ A 43-year-old woman is at the clinic for a routine examination. She reports that she has had a breast lump in her right breast for years. Recently, it has begun to change in consistency and is becoming harder. She reports that 5 years ago her physician evaluated the lump and determined that it "was nothing to worry about." The examination validates the presence of a mass in the right upper outer quadrant at 1 o'clock, approximately 5 cm from the nipple. It is firm, mobile, nontender, with borders that are not well defined. The nurse's recommendation to her is: "Because of the change in consistency of the lump, it should be NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ During the physical examination of a female client, the nurse notes that the client's axillary lymph nodes are enlarged, hard, and fixed. The nurse recognizes that these findings are consistent with what disease process? Malignancy ➢ A 63-year-old nurse comes to the office upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her right arm. She states she found it last week while taking a shower. She isn't sure if she has any breast lumps because she doesn't know how to do self-breast examinations. She states her last mammogram was 5 years ago and it was normal. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She quit smoking 2 years ago after a 55- pack a year history. She denies any illegal drugs and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother died of a heart attack and her father died of a stroke. She has no children. Examination shows an older woman appearing her stated age. Visual inspection of her right axilla reveals nothing unusual. Palpation reveals a 2-cm hard fixed lymph node. She denies any tenderness. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her left axilla and breast is unremarkable. On palpation of the right breast, the nurse detects a nontender 1-cm lump in the tail of Spence. What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms? Breast cancer ➢ A client comes to the clinic for a routine evaluation. During the physical examination, the nurse palpates the client's breast and finds a small lump. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect possible breast cancer? the lump is irregularly shaped. NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A nurse is reviewing a client's history for possible risk factors associated with breast cancer. Which of the following would the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk? First full-term pregnancy at age 34 years 58.Alzheimer’s disease- Pg. 545-550 leading cause of dementia, and one of the most common causes of severe cognitive dysfunction in older adults, risk factors include low estrogen, being a female, DM, obesity, smoker, HTN, HLD, inactivity, head trauma. Unknown what causes it, Questions ➢ A patient is admitted to the unit in the middle stages of Alzheimer's disease. How would the nurse expect to find the patient's state of mind? Unable to perform simple tasks ➢ When teaching the children of a patient who is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD) about the disorder, the nurse explains that a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out. ➢ The patient has been diagnosed with the mild cognitive impairment stage of Alzheimer's disease. What nursing interventions should the nurse expect to use with this patient? NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 Use a calendar and family pictures as memory aids. ➢ A patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) dementia has manifestations of depression. The nurse knows that treatment of the patient with antidepressants will most likely do what? Improve cognitive function ➢ The wife of a patient who is manifesting deterioration in memory asks the nurse whether her husband has AD. The nurse explains that a diagnosis of AD is usually made when what happens? All other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated 59.Guillain-Barre Syndrome- pg. 622-624 an acquired acute inflammatory demyelinating or axonal polyneuropathy with four subtypes. Autoimmune triggered by a bacterial or viral infection. S/Sx numbness, pain, paresthsia, or weakness in limbs, Diagnosed by CSF- high proteins found, without cellular abnormality. IgG infusions, plasmapheresis, combination therapy. Questions ➢ patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? o prepare to assist with intubation. mechanical ventilation is required if the vital capacity falls, making spontaneous breathing impossible and tissue oxygenation inadequate ➢ nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome is planning care with regard to the clinical manifestations associated this syndrome. The nurse's communication with the patient should reflect the possibility of what sign or symptom of the disease Vocal paralysis Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the vagus NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 help to regulate body temperature? Sympathetic nerves to sweat glands promotes secretion of sweat Piloerection induced by sympathetic nerves causes heat conservation ➢ The nurse is teaching a patient about the functions of the sympathetic nervous system related to a prescribed medication. What should the nurse tell the patient about the functions of this system? It maintains the body temperature. It regulates the cardiovascular system. It implements the "fight-or-flight" reaction. ➢ The nurse is reviewing the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) effects on the heart and blood vessels. Which statement is correct regarding the effect of SNS stimulation? Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to veins causes vasoconstriction. ➢ A patient is experiencing symptoms of the fight-or-flight response. Which autonomic process stimulates this response? Sympathetic system ➢ The nurse is teaching a group of coworkers about the functions of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). Which statement by a coworker would require correction? "The SNS regulates control of vision." NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ Cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) drugs that stimulate muscarinic receptors are indicated for which situation? Producing miosis in certain eye diseases ➢ A nurse is preparing to give a drug that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. Which patient response is an expected outcome of this drug? Heart rate decreases to 60 beats per minute. ➢ A patient is experiencing symptoms of the fight-or-flight response. Which autonomic process orchestrates this response? Stimulation of the sympathetic system ➢ Which organs are controlled primarily by the parasympathetic system? Gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, skin & salivary glands 61.ACTH- Adrenocorticotropic hormone pg. 339, 699T- corticosteroid, adrenal gland/ cortex is target organ, increased steoridogenesis, synthesis of adrenal proteins contributing to the maintenance of the adrenal gland, made by anterior pituitary Questions ➢ The nurse is preparing a client for testing to determine if the client has Cushing syndrome. What tests are included in the screening process 24-hour urine secretion of cortisol Dexamethasone suppression test Plasma levels of ACTH ➢ A client comes to the clinic with fatigue and muscle weakness. The client also states NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 she has been having diarrhea. The nurse observes the skin of the client has a bronze tone and when asked, the client says she has not had any sun exposure. The mucous membranes of the gums are bluish-black. When reviewing laboratory results from this client, what does the nurse anticipate seeing? Increased levels of ACTH ➢ A client is diagnosed with adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency (ACTH) and is to begin replacement therapy. Regarding which type of replacement will the nurse educate the client? Cortisol replacement therapy ➢ Following destruction of the pituitary gland, ACTH stimulation stops. Without ACTH to stimulate the adrenal glands, the adrenals' production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder? Secondary ➢ The nurse is preparing a client for a test that will measure negative feedback suppression of ACTH. Which medication will the nurse administer in conjunction for this test? Dexamethasone ➢ ACTH deficiency results in secondary hypocortisolism ➢ ACTH deficiency is most commonly caused by? glucocorticoid withdrawal NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ When counseling a woman who is having difficulty conceiving, the nurse will be most concerned about a history of infection with N. gonorrhoeae. ➢ When a patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for nongonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. When trying to determine the reason for the recurrent infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient? "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics? ➢ A woman in the STD clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea by her partner. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to obtain a cervical specimen for an enzyme immunoassay (EIA). ➢ The nurse assesses a client in the family planning clinic. Which of the following statements, if made by a client, suggests to the nurse that the client has been exposed to gonorrhea? My boyfriend has a drip ➢ a female patient with a purulent vaginal discharge is seen at the outpatient clinic. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of gonorrhea to be treated with cefixime (Suprax) and doxycycline (Vibramycin) ➢ A 22-year-old male is being treated at a college health care clinic for gonorrhea. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include in patient teaching? "While you're taking your antibiotics, you will need to abstain from participating in sexual activity or drinking alcohol." ➢ The client is single, admits to not using condoms during sexual NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 intercourse, and has had multiple partners over the past year. Which of the following symptoms would alert the nurse to a possible gonorrheal infection? Dysuria, Abnormal uterine bleeding, Mild sore throat, Abnormal vaginal discharge ➢ A newborn is diagnosed with ophthalmic neonatorum. The nurse understands that this newborn was exposed to which infection? Gonorrhea 64.Glomerulonephritis-pg. 1352- 1358, the inflammation of the glomerulus, caused by glomular injury, primary and secondary. Questions ➢ A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease? Group A B-hemolytic streptococcus ➢ When a nurse observes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as a diagnosis on a patient, which principle will the nurse remember? Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by? antigen –antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024 ➢ A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is? Acute glomerulonephritis ➢ A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond? Post streptococcal infection ➢ Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis? Gross hematuria, flank pain and hypertension ➢ A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 week before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the Pharynx ➢ A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is? acute glomerulonephritis ➢ A 45-year-old male presents with oliguria. He is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse knows oliguria is related to? thickening of the glomerular membrane and decreased renal blood flow ➢ Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing NR-507 FINAL STUDY GUIDE AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ BEST GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023/2024