Immune System and Infectious Diseases: Neutrophils, Phagocytosis, and Viruses, Exams of Nursing

Download Immune System and Infectious Diseases: Neutrophils, Phagocytosis, and Viruses and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR 507 Week 1 Quiz Question 1. Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Mycoplasma Explanation: Invasion results in direct confrontation with an individual’s primary defense mechanisms against bacteria, which include the complement system, antibodies, and phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages. (See Chapters 6, 7, and 8). Question 2. What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Traumatic injury Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Explanation: Despite the wide scale implementation of progressive public health and immunization policies, infectious disease remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Question 3. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA. It is needed to produce integrase. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. Explanation: One particular family of viruses, retroviruses (e.g., HIV) carries an enzyme reverse transcriptase that creates a double-stranded DNA version of the virus. Question 4. Which statement is true about fungal infections? They occur only on skin, hair, and nails. Explanation: Type O individuals, who have neither A or B antigen but have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, cannot accept blood from any of the other three types. Question 8. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of complement-mediated cell lysis. phagocytosis by macrophages. phagocytosis in the spleen. neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products. Explanation: The components of neutrophil granules, as well as the several toxic oxygen products produced by these cells, damage the tissue. Question 9. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium Explanation: Deficient zinc intake can profoundly depress T- and B-cell function. Question 10. What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Myasthenia gravis Explanation: Deposition of circulating immune complexes containing antibody against DNA produces tissue damage in individuals with SLE. Question 11. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency Explanation: The principal immunologic defect in DiGeorge syndrome is the partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. Question 12. The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is IgA. IgE. IgG. IgM. Explanation: Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 8-1). Question 13. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? Bronchial edema caused by chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis Explanation: One of the primary effects of cortisol is the stimulation of gluconeogenesis or the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino or free fatty acids in the liver. Question 17. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? IL-1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF-a IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Explanation: A number of stress factors initiate CRH production, including high levels of IL-1 and IL-6. Question 18. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of dysplasia. hyperplasia. myoplasia. anaplasia. Explanation: Anaplasia is defined as the loss of cellular differentiation, irregularities of the size and shape of the nucleus, and loss of normal tissue structure. In clinical specimens, anaplasia is recognized by a loss of organization and a marked increase in nuclear size with evidence of ongoing proliferation. The remaining options refer to very specific changes in the cell. Question 19. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy. an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer. tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth. Explanation: It is understood that multiple genetic mutations are required for the evolution of full-blown cancer. The remaining options do not address the progression of benign to metastatic tumors. Question 20. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Explanation: In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip), whereas benign tumors use the suffix “-oma.” Question 21. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Women older than 45 years of age Women who never had children Women who had a high body mass index Woman who smoked for more than 10 years Explanation: A recent hypothesis states that the observed increased incidence of such cancers as breast, endometrium, colon, liver, kidney, and adenomas of the esophagus may be associated with obesity. There are no current data to support the remaining options. Question 25. What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children? Down syndrome Wilms tumor Retinoblastoma Neuroblastoma Explanation: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common genetic defect linked to the development of acute leukemia. Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic and myelogenous leukemia and a higher risk for developing acute megakaryocytic leukemia. There are no current data to support a link between the other stated congenital malformations and acute leukemia.