NR507 / NR 507 Midterm Exam (Latest 2022/2023): Advanced Pathophysiology - Chamberlain, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Nursing

Download NR507 / NR 507 Midterm Exam (Latest 2022/2023): Advanced Pathophysiology - Chamberlain and more Study Guides, Projects, Research Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1. Question : Student Answer: Instructor Explanation: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: c Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes. Maternal-fetal incompatibility exists only if the mother and fetus differ in ABO blood type or if the fetus is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative. This erythrocyte incompatibility does not exist in any of the other options. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875941, | MulipleChoice | 68 | True | 0 | -589875941, | MultipleChoice | 68 Question 2. Question : Student Answer: Instructor Explanation: Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life- threatening complication? c Retropharyngeal abscess Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration Examination of the throat may trigger laryngospasm and cause respiratory collapse. Death may occur in a few hours. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the life-threatening complication that can result from an examination of the throat of a child who demonstrates the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875940 | MulipleChoice | 87 | True | 0 | -589875940 | MultipleChoice | 87 Question 3. Question : If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? Student 60 to 70 Answer: c v 40 to 60 « 30 to 40 c 10 to 20 c Instructor If the SA node is damaged, then the AV node will become the heart’s Explanation: pacemaker at a rate of approximately 40 to 60 spontaneous depolarizations per minute. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875939 | MulipleChoice | 75 | True | 0 | -589875939 | MultipleChoice | 75 Question 4. Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? Student ? 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) Answer: @ 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) Cc 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) Cc Vomiting and diarrhea C a Renal failure and Addison disease « Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease c Instructor Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, Explanation: massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists. The other options are not known to be causes of hyperkalemia. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875934 | MulipleChoice | 36 | True | 0 | -589875934 | MultipleChoice | 36 Question 9. Question : What is the first stage in the infectious process? Student Invasion Answer: c a Colonization « Spread c Multiplication c Instructor From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the infectious Explanation: process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875933 | MulipleChoice | 7 | True | 0 | -589875933 | MultipleChoice | 7 Question 10 Question: Which statement is true concerning the IgM? Student Answer: Y IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response « to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. C IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. C IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. c Instructor Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed Explanation: by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not true statements regarding IgM. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: -589875932 | MulipleChoice | 6 | True 0 | -589875932 | MultipleChoice | 6 Question 11 Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Student Atrial septal defect (ASD) Answer: c v Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect C Instructor On physical examination, a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic Explanation: thrill can be detected at the left lower sternal border. The intensity of the murmur reflects the pressure gradient across the VSD. An apical diastolic rumble may be present with a moderate-to-large defect, reflecting increased flow across the mitral valve. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875931. | MulipleChoice | 39 | True | 0 | -589875931, Question 12 Question: | MultipleChoice | 39 What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Student Low birth weight Answer: o Alcohol consumption during pregnancy c wa Premature birth « Smoking during pregnancy oO Instructor RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is a Explanation: major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875930 | Multiplechoice | Bl | True | 0 | -589875930 | MultipleChoice | 81 Question 13 Question: Student Answer: Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that « serve as storage units and conduits for blood. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the C preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into C this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary C Student Tron deficiency Answer: o ¥ Pernicious « Sideroblastic c Hemolytic oO Instructor Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. The Explanation: remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875925 | MulipleChoice | 61 | True | 0 | -589875925 | MultipleChoice | 61 Question 18 Question: Apoptosis is a(an): Student Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is Answer: “ © excessive Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb c Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene c Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia C Instructor Normal cells have a mechanism that causes them to self-destruct when Explanation: growth is excessive and cell cycle checkpoints have been ignored. Diverse stimuli, including normal development and excessive growth, trigger this self-destruct mechanism, called apoptosis. The remaining options do not describe apoptosis. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875924 | MulipleChoice | 24 | True | 0 | -589875924 | MultipleChoice | 24 Question 19 Question: What is the functional unit of the kidney called? Student Glomerulus Answer: © e Nephron « Collecting duct c Pyramid Cc Instructor The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. Although the other options Explanation: are also located in the kidney, they are not its functional units. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875923 | MulipleChoice | 91 | True | 0 | -589875923 | MultipleChoice | 91 Question 20 Question: Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? Student A Answer: c v B c Cc c x D cy Instructor Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted. Explanation: Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875922 | MulipleChoice | 53 | False | 0 | -589875922 | MultipleChoice | 53 Question 21 Question: The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? Student v Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries Answer: © Diffusion rate in the renal cortex Diffusion rate in the renal medulla Glomerular active transport Cc Instructor The filtration of the plasma per unit of time is known as the glomerular Explanation: filtration rate (GFR), which is directly related to only the perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -5898 75921. | MulipleChoice | 98 | True | 0 | -5898 75921. | MultipleChoice | 98 Question 22 Question: Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? Student x Difficult deflation Answer: © Easy inflation c v Stiffness c Inability to diffuse oxygen c Instructor A decrease in compliance indicates that the lungs or chest wall is abnormally Explanation: stiff or difficult to inflate. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the meaning of decreased compliance. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: options are related to the cause of RDS. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875916 | MulipleChoice | 82 | True | 0 | -589875916 | MultipleChoice | 82 Question 27 Question: Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure? Student Gut Answer: o e Spleen c x Bone marrow « Thymus oO Instructor The spleen is the largest of the secondary lymphoid organs and the site of Explanation: fetal hematopoiesis. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875915 | MulipleChoice 57 | False | 0 | -589875915 | MultipleChoice 57 Question 28 Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Student Tron Answer: © w Zinc « Jodine c Magnesium Instructor Of the options available, only deficient zinc intake can profoundly depress T- Explanation: and B-cell function. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875914 | MulipleChoice | wW | True | 0 | -589875914 | MultipleChoice | W Question 29 Question: Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Student ¥ Bacteria Answer: © Fungi oO ‘Viruses c Yeasts c Instructor Invasion is the direct confrontation with an individual’s primary defense Explanation: mechanisms against only bacteria, which include the complement system, antibodies, and phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875913 | MulipleChoice | 15 | True | 0 | -589875913 | MultipleChoice | 15 Question 30 Question: Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys? Student Antidiuretic hormone Answer: c Aldosterone Cc ¥ Erythropoietin Angiotensinogen c Instructor Erythropoietin is produced by the fetal liver and in the adult kidney and is Explanation: essential for normal erythropoiesis. This statement is not true of the other options. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875912 | MulipleChoice | 107 | True | 0 | -589875912 | MultipleChoice | 107 Question 31 Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Student Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Answer: c Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus c Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia Cc Y Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus « (PDA) Instructor Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13, Explanation: trisomy 18, and Down syndrome include VSD and PDA (see Table 33-2). The other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875911. | MulipleChoice | 38 | True | 0 | -589875911. | MultipleChoice | 38 Question 32 Question: Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? Question 36 Question: Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life? Student v Monocytes Answer: o Platelets c x Neutrophils « Lymphocytes oO Instructor Only monocyte counts are high in the first year of life and then decrease to Explanation: adult levels. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875906 | MulipleChoice | 65 | False | 0 | -589875906 | MultipleChoice | 65 Question 37 Question: Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Student x Perfusion Answer: © a Ventilation c Respiration c Diffusion oO Instructor Of the options available, ventilation is the only term used to identify the Explanation: mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: -589875905 | MultipleChoice 41 False | 0 | -589875905 MultipleChoice 41 Question 38 Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to- complete absence of T-cell immunity? Student Bruton disease Answer: c v DiGeorge syndrome « Reticular dysgenesis Cc Adenosine deaminase deficiency C Instructor The principal immunologic defect in DiGeorge syndrome is the partial or Explanation: complete absence of T-cell immunity. The other options are not the result of either a partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875904 | MulipleChoice | 12 | True | 0 | -589875904 | MultipleChoice | 12 Question 39 Question: Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? Student v Alcohol Answer: © Steroids oO Antihistamines c Antidepressants c Instructor Alcohol interacts with smoke, increasing the risk of malignant tumors, Explanation: possibly by acting as a solvent for the carcinogenic chemicals in smoke products. No current research supports the remaining options as having an increased effect on the incidence of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875903 | MulipleChoice | 31 | True | 0 | -589875903 | MultipleChoice | 31 Question 40 Question: Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Student Answer: Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative Cc bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. c Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation c cascades. ¥ Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. « Instructor Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. The other Explanation: options are not true of exotoxins. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875902 | MulipleChoice | 16 | True | 0 | -589875902 | MultipleChoice | 16 Question 41 Question: Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Student Passive-acquired immunity Answer: © v Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? Student Oand1 Answer: © a 2and4 « 5 and 6 oO 6 and 7 c Instructor The incidence of SIDS is low during the first month of life but sharply Explanation: increases in the second month of life, peaking at 2 to 4 months and is unusual after 6 months of age. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875897 | MulipleChoice | 89 | True | 0 | -589875897 | MultipleChoice | 89 Question 46 Question: What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement? Student To evaluate the cause of hypoxia Answer: c e To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration « To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary c membrane To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide c concentrations Instructor Spirometry measures volume and flow rate during forced expiration. The Explanation: alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient is used to evaluate the cause of hypoxia. Diffusing capacity is a measure of the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane. Arterial blood gas analysis can be used to determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875896 | MulipleChoice | AT | True | 0 | -589875896 | MultipleChoice | AT Question 47 Question: Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes? Student Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. Answer: © Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. C ¥ Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. « Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia. Cc Instructor Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant tumors of Explanation: glandular or squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to the epithelium and have not broken through the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding tissue. Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell structure. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875895 | MulipleChoice | 22 | True | 0 | -589875895 | MultipleChoice | 22 Question 48 Question: The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Student v Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III) Answer: « Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Degrading the fibrin within blood clots c Instructor Clinically administered heparin or heparin sulfate (on the surface of Explanation: endothelial cells) binds to AT-III and induces a conformational change that greatly enhances its activity. Under normal conditions, the presence of endothelial cell heparin sulfate and available AT-III in the circulation cooperate to protect the vessels from the effects of spontaneously activated thrombin. The other options do not accurately describe the role heparin plays in hemostasis. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875894 | MulipleChoice 58 | True | 0 | -589875894 | MultipleChoice 58 Question 49 Question: The coronary ostia are located in the: Student Left ventricle Answer: c x Aortic valve « Coronary sinus c ¥ Aorta c Instructor Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called the Explanation: coronary ostia. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875893 | MulipleChoice | 72 | False | 0 | -589875893 | MultipleChoice | 72 Question 50 Question: Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: Student ‘Vagus nerve Answer: © a Sympathetic nervous system increasingly a fluoroquinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (QRNG). The other options are not major concerns. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875889 | MulipleChoice 50 | True | 0 | -589875889 | MultipleChoice 50 Question 54 Question: What is the action of urodilatin? Student Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. Answer: c It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Cc Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. C e It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. « Instructor Urodilatin (a natriuretic peptide) inhibits sodium and water reabsorption Explanation: from the medullary part of collecting duct, thereby producing diuresis. It is not involved in the actions described by the other options. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875888 | MulipleChoice | 105 | True | 0 | -589875888 | MultipleChoice | 105 Question 55 Question: How is most carbon dioxide (COz) in the blood transported? Student Attached to oxygen Answer: o v In the form of bicarbonate Combined with albumin Dissolved in the plasma Instructor Approximately 60% of the CO: in venous blood and 90% of the CO2 in Explanation: — arterial blood are carried in the form of bicarbonate. Points Received: (not graded) Comments: | -589875887 | MulipleChoice | 44 | False | 0 | -589875887 | MultipleChoice | 44 Question 56 Question: The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? Student ¥ Bones Answer: c Brain oO x Bladder « Kidney c Instructor The bone, especially the lumbar spine area, is the most common metastasis Explanation: site for prostate cancer. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875886 | MulipleChoice | 29 | False | 0 | -589875886 | MultipleChoice | 29 Question 57 Question: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Student wv I Answer: @ II c Ill IV c Instructor Hypersensitivity reactions have been divided into four distinct types: type I Explanation (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, type II (tissue-specific) hypersensitivity reactions, type III (immune complex—mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, and type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions. Points Received: 2 of 2 Comments: | -589875885 | MulipleChoice | 14 | True | 0 | -589875885 | MultipleChoice | 14 Question 58 Question: Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? Student x IgM Answer: © IgG c ’ TgE c IgA oO Instructor —_ Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code for Explanation increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e.g., interleukin [IL], IgE, leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. None of the other options are associated with childhood asthma. Points Received: 0 of 2 Comments: | -589875884 | MulipleChoice | 84 | False | 0 | -589875884 | MultipleChoice | 84 Question 59 Question: The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?