NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100%, Exams of Nursing

Download NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: peripartum cardiomyopathy Explanation: Dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of possible infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus, or peripartum cardiomyopathy. 2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the: mediastinum Explanation: The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the mediastinum. The right and left pleural cavities, are on either side of the mediastinum and those contain the lungs. The visceral pleura encloses the lung. The pericardium surrounds the heart. 3. A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves: CN I Explanation: Cranial Nerve I is the olfactory nerve responsible for the sense of smell. To test the sense of smell, the examiner presents the patient with familiar and nonirritating odors. A person should normally perceive odor on each side and correctly identify the source. Cranial Nerves II and III assess vision and pupillary reaction. Cranial Nerve VIII tests the hearing and balance. 4. A transient ischemic attack is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction Explanation: TIA is now defined as “a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.” Ischemic stroke is “an infarction of central nervous system tissue” that may be symptomatic or silent. The other terms are not related to the new definitions. 5. The term asteatosis refers to: skin that is dry, flaky, rough, and often itchy NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 10. Swelling noted 1-2 inches below the knee joint and on the medial surface of the knee would be suggestive of: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct anserine bursitis Explanation: Swelling 1-2 inches below the knee joint and on the medial surface would be suggestive of anserine bursitis. Swelling over the tibial tubercle suggests infrapatellar bursitis. Swelling over the patella suggests prepatellar bursitis. Semimembranous bursitis would be suggested by swelling on the posterior and medial surface of the knee. 11. A patient states that the only way he can sleep at night is to use several pillows or to sleep upright in a recliner. This sleep pattern is most consistent with: obstructive lung disease Explanation: With obstructive lung disease, the patient experiences orthopnea, dyspnea that occurs when the patient lies down but improves with sitting. Therefore, the patient would use several pillows or sleep upright in a recliner. Orthopnea is seen in obstructive lung disease, mitral stenosis, and heart failure. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea describe episodes of sudden dyspnea that cause the patient to awaken from sleep where the patient must sit up, walk, or stand for it to resolve. Coughing and wheezing may also occur. Angina pectoris commonly creates chest pain or shortness of breath. Jugular venous pressure reflects right atrial pressure and volume status. In cases of cardiac or pulmonary dysfunction, jugular venous pressures usually raise. 12.A positive obturator sign would elicit pain in the: right hypogastric area Explanation: Assessment of the obturator sign is performed by flexing. By flexing the patient's right thigh at the hip with the knees bent, rotating the leg internally at the hip. If this causes increased pain in the right epigastric area, then the obturator sign is positive. Hypogastric pain occurs as the obturator muscle rubs an inflamed appendix. 13.The lateral bone that serves as a strut between the scapula and the sternum is known as the: clavicle Explanation: The lateral bone that serves as a strut between the scapula and the sternum is known as the clavicle. The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. The acromion process is an extension of the spine of the scapula and located at the highest point of the shoulder. The thick curved extension of the superior border of the scapula is referred to as the coracoid process. 14. When examining the foot of a patient, the nurse practitioner notes focal heel tenderness on palpation of the plantar fascia. This could be suggestive of: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct plantar fasciitis Explanation: Focal heel tenderness on palpation of the plantar fascia suggests plantar fasciitis. Bone spurs may NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct right scapula area Explanation: Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain radiating to the right scapular area. It is usually steady and aching. Pain in the epigastric area could be associated with peptic ulcer or dyspepsia. Cancer of the stomach can present with epigastric pain. Acute mechanical colon obstruction presents with pain in the lower abdomen. 20.The preauricular lymph node is located: in front of the ear Explanation: The preauricular lymph nodes are located in front of the ear. The tonsillar lymph nodes are at the angle of the mandible. The occipital lymph nodes are located at the base of the skull posteriorly. The posterior auricular nodes are superficial to the mastoid process. 21.Cessation of the menses for 12 months is termed: menopause Explanation: Menopause is defined as cessation of menses for 12 months, progressing through several stages of erratic cyclical bleeding. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent bleeding with menses occurring greater than 35-day intervals, or 4-9 menstrual cycles per year. Menorrhagia refers to excessive or prolonged menstrual flow occurring at regular intervals. Metrorrhagia refers to intermenstrual bleeding. 22.The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the: posterior surface of the lower leg Explanation: The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the posterior surface of the lower leg. 23.One cause of nasal septum perforation may be: intranasal use of cocaine Explanation: Perforation of the nasal septum could be caused by trauma, surgery, and intranasal use of cocaine or amphetamines. Nasal polyps obstruct air flow but there is no relationship to nasal septum perforation. Cystic fibrosis or chronic sinusitis are not associated with nasal perforation. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 24. Tenderness in the costovertebral angles may signify: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct pyelonephritis Explanation: Because the kidney lies directly under the costovertebral angle, tenderness over this area would be related to renal issues such as renal stones or pyelonephritis. 25.A patient presents with an altered level of consciousness. He/she is considered in a stuporous state if he/she: arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state Explanation: A stuporous patient arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, verbal responses are slow, and lapses into an unresponsive state. A lethargic patient appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. An obtunded patient opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. A comatose patient remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli. 26.A flat affect can be an identifiable finding in an older adult who has: depression Explanation: Flat affect occurs in depression, Parkinson’s disease, or Alzheimer’s disease. 27.Pain and crepitus over the patella suggests: roughening of the patellar undersurface Explanation: Pain and crepitus over the patella suggests roughening of the patellar undersurface that articulates with the femur. Tenderness over the patellar tendon or inability to extend the knee suggests a partial or complete tear of the patellar tendon. A degenerative patella produces pain with compression and patellar movement during quadriceps contraction. Swelling above and adjacent to the patella suggest synovial thickening or effusion of the knee joint. 28.A child with a heart murmur audible at the lower left sternal border would be suggestive of: ventricular septal defect Explanation: This type murmur is not considered a normal finding in children. The murmur associated with a ventricular septal defect is audible at the lower left sternal border. A child with a heart murmur located at the midsternum or upper right sternal border and associated with a click could be NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Vomiting, flu - like symptoms, and platelet count < 100,000 Explanation: HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening pregnancy complication usually considered to be a variant NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct of pre-eclampsia. Both conditions usually occur during the later stages of pregnancy, or sometimes after childbirth. Its characteristics: H (hemolysis), EL (elevated liver enzymes) and LP (low platelet count). 34.Flexion contracture of the knee suggests hamstring tightness or: limb paralysis Explanation: Flexion contracture (inability to extend fully) is seen in hamstring tightness or limb paralysis. Swelling over the patella suggests prepatellar bursitis. Stumbling or "giving way" of the knee during the heel strike phase of gait suggests quadriceps weakness or abnormal patellar tracking. 35.A protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the spinal cord itself, through a defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column is known as: a meningomyelocele Explanation: A meningomyelocele is defined as the protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the spinal cord itself, through a defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column. A developmental congenital disorder caused by the incomplete closing of the embryonic neural tube is known as spina bifida. A protrusion of the spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral arch is referred to as a myelocele. An omphalocele is a type of abdominal wall defect in which the intestines, liver, and occasionally other organs remain outside of the abdomen in a sac. 36.Static stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are: bony structures of the shoulder girdle Explanation: Static stabilizers are incapable of movement and include the bony structures of the shoulder girdle, the labrum, the articular capsule, and the glenohumeral ligaments that add to joint stability. Dynamic stabilizers are capable of movement and include the SITS muscles of the rotator cuff (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis). These muscles move the humerus and compress and stabilize the humeral head within the glenoid cavity. 37.With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with: epispadias Explanation: With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with epispadias. A chordee refers to the fixed downward bowing of the penis. With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the ventral surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with hypospadias. Cryptorchidism is a NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct term used to describe undescended testicles in a male. 38. The nurse practitioner should base a response to a parent's question about the prognosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) on which of the following statement: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct cystourethrocele Explanation: When the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra, is involved in the bulge, a cystourethrocele is present. A cystocele is a bulge of the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder above it. It results from weakened supporting tissues. A prolapsed urethral mucosa forms a swollen red ring around the urethral meatus. A urethral caruncle is a small, red, benign tumor visible at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. 43.A 3 year-old presents with a history of fever and cough over the past 24 hours. Findings on exam reveal: temperature of 102°F, apical heart rate of 157 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute. Tachypnea in this child is most likely related to the child's febrile state Explanation: In children, heart and respiratory rates will increase with fever. For every degree of fever the respiratory rate will increase 3-4 breaths/minutes and the heart rate will increase 8-10 beats/minute. 44.A female patient presents with a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. This vaginal discharge is most consistent with: Trichomonal vaginitis Explanation: Trichomonas vaginalis causes trichomonal vaginitis. Presenting symptoms include a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. Candidal vaginitis produces a white and curd-like thin discharge that is rarely malodorous. With bacterial vaginosis, the discharge can be gray or white, thin, malodorous (fishy), and not usually profuse. The discharge associated with gonorrhea is usually thick and bloody. 45.When assessing plantar reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the right foot. Absence of movement of the big toe is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Explanation: Superficial (cutaneous) reflexes and their corresponding spinal segments include the following: Abdominal reflexes: upper thoracic 8, 9, 10 and lower thoracic 10, 11, 12; Plantar: lumbar 5 and sacral 1; and Anal: sacral 2, 3, 4. 46.Which disorder of the eye can be detected with the cover-uncover and the Hirschberg test? Strabismus NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Explanation: Strabismus is misalignment of the eyes and can be assessed using the cover-uncover teats and the Hirschberg test (corneal light reflex). With the cover-uncover test, eye muscle weakness is seen as eye deviation when the eye is uncovered. With Hirschberg's test, an asymmetric light reflex indicates a deviation. Cataracts are visualized by a cloudiness or opacity in the lens. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Conjunctivitis is diagnosed by observation of a discharge from the eyes and erythema of the conjunctiva. Amblyopia is diagnosed by visual assessment and testing by an optometrist or ophthalmologist. 47.If fetal movement cannot be perceived after 24 weeks gestation, all of the following may be considered except: normal finding Explanation: If fetal movement cannot be perceived after 24 weeks, consider error in calculating gestational age, fetal death or severe morbidity, or false pregnancy. Confirm fetal health and gestational age with an ultrasound. 48.To palpate an indirect inguinal hernia in a woman, have her stand and palpate in the labia majora and: palpate upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercles Explanation: To palpate an indirect inguinal hernia in a woman, have her stand and palpate in the labia majora and upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercles. 49.Bilateral exophthalmos suggests: Grave's disease Explanation: Exophthalmos is an abnormal protrusion of the eye. When it presents bilaterally, it is suggestive of Grave's disease, a form of hyperthyroidism. Unilateral exophthalmos may be due to Grave's disease or to a tumor or inflammation of the orbit. Hashimoto's thyroiditis, hypothyroidism, and goiter do not present with exophthalmos. 50.If regular uterine contractions occur prior to 37 weeks gestation, this could be: preterm labor Explanation: Before 37 weeks, regular uterine contractions with or without pain and bleeding are abnormal, suggesting preterm labor. 51.A form of aphasia in which the person has difficulty speaking and understanding words and is unable to read or write is termed: global aphasia Explanation: With global aphasia, the person has difficulty speaking and understanding words and is unable to read or write. In Broca's aphasia, speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Orthostatic hypotension occurs in 20% of older adults and in up to 50% of frail nursing home residents, especially when they first arise in the morning. Symptoms include lightheadedness, weakness, unsteadiness, visual blurring, and in 20% to 30% of patients, syncope. 56. What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in a child? NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Clubbing, frequent respiratory infections, and rectal prolapse Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is one of the most common genetic disorders in Caucasian children in the United States and is usually diagnosed at an early age. However, if it is not diagnosed in infancy, some of the symptoms seen in children include: not growing or gaining weight appropriately, frequent lung infections, persistent cough, and wheezing. Other symptoms may also develop in childhood such as: clubbing, rectal prolapse, and polyps in the nose or sinuses. The other choices are not seen in cystic fibrosis. 57.The most effective method to use when assessing visual acuity in young children, is the: E chart. Explanation: The E chart and Snellen charts assess visual acuity but for the young child, but the E chart is more appropriate. The child can tell the examiner which direction the E is pointing. The Snellen test requires that the child be able to identify letters of the alphabet. The most effective method to use when assessing conjugate gaze in young children, is the use of the cover-uncover test and the corneal light reflex test. The Ishihara chart assesses color blindness. 58. An adolescent visits the nurse practitioner for a sports participation physical. The nurse practitioner instructs the adolescent to hold his arms against his lateral upper legs against resistance. This maneuver assesses for: strength of the deltoid muscle Explanation: This maneuver assesses strength of the deltoid muscle. 59.Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of damage to which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve III (CN III) Explanation: Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of 3rd nerve palsy (CN III)-Oculomotor nerve. 60.When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are not easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: transverse lie Explanation: The top of the uterus (fundus) is palpated to establish which end of the fetus (fetal pole) is in the upper part of the uterus. If either the head or buttocks (Breech) of the fetus is in the fundus, then the fetus is in vertical lie. Otherwise the fetus is most likely in transverse lie. If the cephalic prominence is on the same side as the small parts, then the fetus is in vertex presentation. If the cephalic prominence is on the same side as the back , then the head is extended and the fetus is in NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct face presentation. 61. Which of the following substances is found in the urine of a child suspected of having post streptococcal glomerulonephritis? NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors Explanation: Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors influence respiration as follows: breathing is initiated by a lack of oxygen and a high level of carbon dioxide in the blood stream. This stimulates the respiratory center in the medulla of the brain. Initiation of respiration is aided by the compression of the chest wall during the birth process, the cool air on the wet face, and the general handling of the body and limbs. A healthy baby cries almost immediately, but he has to breathe to be able to cry. With the first breath, the blood vessels in the lung expand. Spontaneous breathing is now established. Pulmonary venous return to the heart increases. This results in left arterial pressure exceeding right arterial pressure. Right to left shunting through the foramen ovale is reduced. 67.At what age does an infant copy sounds and gestures of others? Nine months Explanation: A normal nine-month infant should display stranger awareness, have a favorite toy, understand no, copy sounds and gestures of others, use fingers to point at things, play peek-a-boo, sit without support, and display the pincer grasp. 68.Stool that appears bloody, mucoid, or with pus, may indicate: Crohn's disease Explanation: Crohn's disease usually presents with blood, mucus, or pus in the stool. Thin, pencil-like stool occurs in an obstructing “apple-core” lesion of the sigmoid colon. Constipation produces hard, dry stool. In the presence of hemorrhoids, the stool may appear blood streaked. 69.A patient complains of a sore tongue. Findings reveal a smooth and erythematous tongue. This condition is termed: glossitis Explanation: Glossitis is a term used to describe a sore tongue with an erythematous and smooth surface or a general inflammation of the tongue. Gingivitis refers to an inflammation of the gums. Stomatitis describes inflammation of the mouth including the mucous membranes and the lips. Candidiasis refers to a yeast infection of the mouth and presents with yellowish white patchy lesions in the mouth and tongue. 70. During pregnancy, what sound may be auscultated at the second or third intercostal space at the sternal border due to increased blood flow through the vessels? NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Venous hum Explanation: A venous hum, or continuous mammary souffle that occurs during pregnancy is due to increased blood flow through normal vessels. The mammary souffle is commonly heard during late pregnancy or lactation. It is heard loudest in the second or third intercostal space at the sternal NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct border, and is typically both systolic and diastolic, though only the systolic component may be audible. 71.Part of the nutritional assessment includes anthropometric measurements. These measurements include all of the following except: height and weight: blood pressure, pulse, and respiration: mass index (BMI): basal metabolic rate (BMR). Explanation: Anthropometric measurements are a set of noninvasive, quantitative techniques for determining an individual's body fat composition by measuring, recording, and analyzing specific dimensions of the body: height, weight, BMI, BMR, distribution of body fat, and skin fold thickness. Vital signs are considered physiologic measurements. 72.Cognitive and language development between twelve years and adulthood, follows which one of Piaget's stages of development? Formal operational stage Explanation: Cognitive and language development between twelve years and adulthood, follows the formal operational stage of Piaget's stages of development. 73.If a newborn develops a cephalohematoma, the newborn is at an increased risk for: jaundice Explanation: Cephalohematomas are characterized by bleeding between the bone and the periosteum. Because of breakdown of the red blood cells within a hematoma, the infants are at greater risk for jaundice. They do not increase the risk for infections. Caput succedaneum is an edematous area on the head from pressure against the cervix. Erythema toxicum is a benign rash of unknown cause that consists of blotchy red areas. 74.A 40 year old male complains of right flank pain. His temperature is 102° F. These symptoms may be characteristic of: acute pyelonephritis Explanation: Kidney pain in the flank area and groin that is accompanied by fever and chills is consistent with acute pyelonephritis. Renal or ureteral colic usually presents with a sudden onset of pain in the flank area, abdomen, or groin. Chills and fever do not generally accompany urinary calculi. In men, painful urination without frequency or urgency suggests urethritis. Acute prostatitis presents with frequency, urgency, and dysuria. 75. When examining a patient with atopic dermatitis, there is a thickening and roughening NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct extremities due to the narrowing of the descending aorta resulting in decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. The other choices do not present with these findings. 80. A patient presents with chest pain that radiates to the left side of the neck and down the left arm when he chops wood. This type of pain could be suggestive of: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct angina pectoris Explanation: Assessing chest pain can be very difficult but a thorough patient history and physical exam can help the clinician determine a likely cause. Exertional pain can be angina pectoris. Symptoms most often seen with myocardial infarction include a retrosternal type pain that often radiates up to the neck, shoulder, and jaw and down to the ulnar aspect of the left arm. Pain and tenderness associated with costochondritis worsens with coughing or taking deep breaths. A sudden sharp pain that radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with aortic dissection. Any pain in the chest is cardiac until proven otherwise. 81.The Sexual Maturity Rating in girls includes 5 stages. Characteristics of Stage 5 include: coarse, curly hair as in adults covering the pubis and inner thighs Explanation: The Sexual Maturity Rating is also termed, Tanner staging; named after Dr. James Tanner. The stages are characterized by the following findings: Stage 1: (prepubertal): absence of breasts, pubic hair; Stage 2: Long, downy pubic hair near the labia, appearance of breast buds; Stage 3: Dark, coarse, curly hair sparsely over the symphysis pubis, enlargement of breast tissue and areola, with no separation of contours; Stage 4: Pubic hair as in an adult female but not in distribution; areola and nipple form secondary mound above breast tissue; Stage 5: Pubic hair as in adult female with distribution in inner thighs, linea alba; large breasts with single contour. 82.B/P readings greater than 140 mm HG systolic and greater than 90 mm HG diastolic prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum is: chronic hypertension Explanation: Chronic hypertension occurs when systolic BP (SBP) >140 mm Hg or diastolic BP (DBP) >90 mm Hg documented prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum. Gestational hypertension refers to elevated blood pressure detected after 20 weeks gestation in the absence of proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia occurs in a woman who was previously normotensive but now has new onset hypertension with either proteinuria or end-organ damage. Primary hypertension, formerly known as essential hypertension, is a disorder which is associated with elevated blood pressure and an unidentifiable cause. 83.The lateral collateral ligament of the knee: connects the lateral femoral epicondyle and the head of the fibula Explanation: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) connects the lateral femoral epicondyle and the head of the fibula. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) crosses obliquely from the anterior medial tibia to the lateral femoral condyle, preventing the tibia from sliding forward on the femur. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) crosses from the posterior tibia and lateral meniscus to the medial NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct toe extensors Explanation: The dorsiflexors in the foot include the anterior tibial muscles and the toe extensors. 90.In renal adaptation of the newborn, which one of the following statements is correct? The kidneys have an inability to concentrate urine and adapt to fluid and electrolyte stress Explanation: In the neonate the kidneys are structurally complete but physiologically immature. The glomeruli have an inability to filter and concentrate urine, therefore glucose and amino acids escape and there is decreased ability to remove uric acid crystals which give the reddish appearance to the urine. There is an inability to adapt to fluid and electrolyte stress leading to loss of bicarbonate and poor reabsorption. This puts the neonate at increased risk of metabolic acidosis. The tubules are short/narrow which causes a problem with reabsorption. The nephrons function well within a month. ADH inhibits diuresis and the immature kidney causes an increased risk for dehydration. 91.When performing a breast exam, a mobile mass becomes fixed when the arm relaxes. This suggests that the mass is: attached to the rib or intercostal muscle Explanation: A mobile mass that becomes fixed when the arm relaxes is attached to the ribs and/or intercostal muscles. If fixed when the hand is pressed against the hip, it is attached to the pectoral fascia. This finding is not consistent with cystic breast disease or indicative of nonmalignant masses. 92.An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true? This is a normal exam Explanation: Sinus arrhythmia occurs when an irregular heart rate increases with inspiration and decreases with respiration and is considered normal in children. There is no need for an echo or referral to a cardiologist nor should the child be evaluated for caffeine intake. 93.According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every: year Explanation: The Task Force recommends screening for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. Recommends against NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct routine screening for adults ages 76 to 85 years, due to moderate certainty that the net benefit is small. 94. The great saphenous vein enters the deep venous system by way of the: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct femoral vein Explanation: The great saphenous vein, which originates on the dorsum of the foot, joins the femoral vein of the deep venous system below the inguinal ligament. 95.When discussing the musculoskeletal system, all of the following statements related to articular structure disease are true except which one? Articular disease is usually due to stiffness or pain Explanation: Articular disease typically involves swelling and tenderness of the entire joint and limits both active and passive range of motion due either to stiffness or to pain. Extra-articular disease typically involves selected regions of the joint and types of movement. 96.Signs and symptoms associated with diabetic gastroparesis may include all of the following except: vomiting of undigested food: weight loss: diarrhea: erratic glucose levels. Explanation: Diabetic gastroparesis occurs as a result of damage to the vagus nerve (controls the movement of food through the digestive system). Signs and symptoms associated with diabetic gastroparesis may include vomiting of undigested food, weight loss, erratic glucose levels, and gastroesophageal reflux. Diarrhea is not associated with diabetic gastroparesis or vagus nerve disorders since the vagus nerve innervates the stomach. 97.The portion of the umbilicus in a newborn that is covered with a firm gelatinous substance and dries up within two weeks of birth is known as: the umbilicus amniotic Explanation: The umbilicus amniotic refers to the amniotic portion of the umbilical cord which is covered with a firm gelatinous substance. This portion dries up and falls out within two weeks of birth. The portion of the umbilicus in a newborn that is covered with skin and retracts to become flush with the abdominal wall, is known as the umbilicus cutis. An umbilical hernia in infants is a defect in the abdominal wall which can measure up to six centimeters. An umbilical granuloma reflects granulation tissue at the base of the navel formed during the healing process. 98.A patient was recently diagnosed with gluten intolerance and needs instructions on what foods to eat. The patient should be told that a gluten restricted diet includes: corn NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Explanation: A small, tuberculated eminence, curved a little forward, and giving attachment to the radial collateral ligament of the elbow-joint is referred to as the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 104.Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain, which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity is: seizure Explanation: A seizure is an uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity, or a combination of symptoms. Dystonia is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs. Bradykinesia is the term used to describe the impaired ability to adjust to one's body position. This symptom is noted in patients who have Parkinson's disease. A rhythmic oscillatory movement of a body part resulting from the contraction of opposing muscle groups is a tremor. 105.A sudden, tearing, sharp pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with: an aortic dissection Explanation: Assessing chest pain can be very difficult but a thorough patient history and physical exam can help the clinician determine a likely cause. A sudden sharp pain that radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with aortic dissection. Exertional pain can be angina pectoris. Symptoms most often seen with myocardial infarction include a retrosternal type pain that often radiates up to the neck, shoulder, and jaw and down to the ulnar aspect of the left arm. Pain associated with pericarditis may radiate to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck and presents with a sharp knifelike pain. Any pain in the chest is cardiac until proven otherwise. 106.Involuntary movements of the body that involve larger portions of the body, including the trunk resulting in grotesque, twisted postures are suggestive of: dystonic movements Explanation: Dystonic movements are similar to athetoid movements, but often involve larger portions of the body, including the trunk. Grotesque, twisted postures may result. Facial tics are brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals. Examples include repetitive winking, grimacing, and shoulder shrugging. Athetoid movements are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude. They most commonly involve the face and the distal extremities. Oral–facial dyskinesias are rhythmic, repetitive, bizarre movements that chiefly involve the face, mouth, jaw, and tongue: grimacing, pursing of the lips, protrusions of the tongue, opening and closing of the mouth, and deviations of the jaw. These are involuntary movements. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 107.To assess the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves (CN III, IV, & VI) for extraocular movements in an infant, the nurse practitioner would: observe how well the infant tracks the nurse practitioner's face Explanation: To assess the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves (CN III, IV, & VI) for extraocular NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct equinovarus is the term that describes a clubfoot. Toeing inward or outward of the feet is known as tibial torsion. 113.When examining the medial and lateral meniscus, a click along the medial joint with valgus stress, external rotation, and leg extension suggests a probable tear of the: posterior portion of the medial meniscus Explanation: When examining the medial and lateral meniscus, a click along the medial joint with valgus stress, external rotation, and leg extension suggests a probable tear of the posterior portion of the medial meniscus. 114.Breastfeeding is contraindicated for an infant diagnosed with which one of the following conditions? Galactosemia Explanation: Galactosemia is the lack of a specific enzyme in the liver that breaks down galactose into glucose. Some infants may inherit a gene that allows for some galactose metabolism. However, if the baby has “classic galactosemia” in which the baby has no galactose metabolizing enzymes, the baby will need to be weaned abruptly, and then fed a lactose free formula. Breast feeding is not contraindicated in the other conditions. 115.In order to examine the tongue, ask the patient to stick out his tongue and with the examiner's right hand: gently pull it to the left side , and inspect the side of the tongue Explanation: In order to examine the tongue, ask the patient stick out his the tongue and with the examiner's right hand, grasp the tip of the tongue with a gauze and gently pull it to the patient's left. Inspect the side of the tongue, then palpate it with the left hand, feeling for any induration. Reverse the procedure for the other side. Inspecting for tongue symmetry checks function of cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal. Stimulating the patient to cough and eliciting the gag reflex do not have anything to do with the tongue examination. 116.The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person's risk for: peripheral artery disease Explanation: The ankle-brachial index test is a quick, noninvasive way to check a person's risk for peripheral artery disease (PAD). It compares the blood pressure in the ankle and the arm and measures the difference. A low index is indicative of a narrowing or blockage in the arteries. Deep venous thrombosis, venous insufficiency, and thromboangiitis obliterans are related disorders of the NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct venous system. 117. The central nervous system extends from the medulla into the: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct spinal cord Explanation: Below the medulla, the central nervous system extends into the elongated spinal cord, encased within the bony vertebral column and terminating at the first or second lumbar vertebra. 118.The Weber test uses a tuning fork to test hearing. The frequency range closest to that of conversational speech would be one with a frequency of: 512 Hz Explanation: The Weber hearing test screens for unilateral conductive hearing loss with a tuning fork. The tuning fork is measured in frequencies of 256 Hz or 512 Hz. These frequencies fall within the range of conversational speech. The ideal frequency for the Weber test is 256 Hz. A frequency of 512 Hz is the ideal frequency for the Rinne hearing test. 119.The nurse practitioner holds the infant around the trunk. One sole touches the table. The hip and knee of the foot will flex and the other foot will step forward. Alternating stepping will occur. This maneuver assesses the: placing and stepping reflexes Explanation: The placing or stepping reflex (formerly known as the dancing reflex) is assessed by holding the infant around the trunk. One sole touches the table. The hip and knee of the foot will flex and the other foot will step forward. Alternating stepping will occur. To elicit the Landau reflex, the infant is suspended prone with one hand, and the infant's head will lift and the spine will straighten. Galant's reflex, or trunk incurvation reflex, is elicited when the infant is supported prone with one hand, and then one side of the back (one centimeter from the midline), is stroked from the shoulder to the buttocks. The spine curves toward the stimulus. To elicit the positive support reflex, hold the infant around the trunk, lower the infant until the feet touch a flat surface. Hips, knees, ankles extend and the infant stands up, partially bearing weight. 120.Which of the following findings in a preschooler would indicate the need for further evaluation? Responds to facial expressions and gestures rather than to verbal explanations Explanation: A child who responds to facial expressions and gestures rather than to verbal explanations is probably expressions rather than verbal clues. These children may have a hearing deficit that needs further evaluation. The other choices are normal behaviors for the preschooler. 121.Decreased spinal mobility in the lumbar region could be suggestive of: osteoarthritis NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct organs and their functions during times of stress and arousal. The parasympathetic nervous system conserves energy and resources during times of rest and relaxation. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 127.A patient presents with findings of pain, warmth, redness, and swelling below the inner canthus toward nose. Tearing is present and when pressure is applied to the lacrimal sac, purulent discharge from the puncta is noted. This is suggestive of: dacryocystitis Explanation: Dacryocystitis is an infection and blockage of lacrimal sac and duct. Symptoms include pain, warmth, redness, and swelling below the inner canthus toward the nose. Tearing is usually present and when pressure is applied to the lacrimal sac, a purulent discharge from the puncta can be noted. Red, scaly, greasy flakes and thickened, crusted lid margins are consistent with blepharitis. Symptoms include burning, itching, tearing, foreign body sensation, and some pain. Hordeolum is an infection usually secondary to localized Staphylococcal infection of the hair follicles at the lid margin. 128.A forty-year-old man presents with a slow growing lesion on the face. Further examination reveals a lesion with a depressed center, a firm elevated border, and visible telangiectatic vessels. This is most consistent with: basal cell carcinoma Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma typically presents with an initial translucent nodule that spreads, leaving a depressed center, a firm elevated border, and visible telangiectatic vessels. They usually appear in adults over forty and seldom metastasize. Squamous cell carcinoma appear on sun exposed skin of fair skinned adults over sixty and look like scaly red patches, open sores, elevated growths with a central depression, or warts; they may crust or bleed. Kaposi's sarcoma is seen in patients with AIDS and appears in many forms and on any part of the body. The abnormal cells form purple, red, or brown blotches or tumors on the skin and can become life threatening when the lesions are in the lungs, liver, or digestive tract. 129.Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory phase and a shortened and softer expiratory phase normally audible over the hilar region of the chest are termed: bronchovesicular Explanation: Bronchovesicular breath sounds consist of a full inspiratory phase with a shortened and softer expiratory phase. They are normally heard over the hilar region (center of the lungs near the heart). Vesicular breath sounds consist of a quiet, wispy inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. They are heard over the periphery of the lung field. Bronchial breath sounds consist of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder. They are normally heard over the trachea and larynx. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 130.A child sustained a "full-thickness" burn injury. This type injury involves tissue destruction down to the: subcutaneous tissue Explanation: A full-thickness burn involves all skin layers, including the epidermis, dermis, and the NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct chalazion is a nontender nodule usually on the underside of the eyelid. Episcleritis is an ocular inflammation of the episcleral vessels. 135.Congenital cysts located at the midline of the neck just above the thyroid cartilage and may open under the tongue are know as: thyroglossal duct cysts Explanation: Thyroglossal duct cysts are located at the midline of the neck just above the thyroid cartilage. They may open under the tongue. A preauricular cyst has pin-hole sized pits located anterior to the helix of the ear and may be associated with hearing loss. Small dimples appearing anterior to the midportion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle are known as brachial cleft cysts and may be associated with a sinus tract. Hypoglossal refers to the hypoglossal nerve and not to cysts. 136.The nurse practitioner places the infant lying supine on the exam table, and then makes a loud noise. The infant's arms abduct and extend with hands open and legs flexed. This maneuver assesses: Moro reflex Explanation: The maneuver described assesses the Moro or startle reflex. To elicit the asymmetric tonic neck reflex, with the infant supine, the nurse practitioner would turn the head to one side, holding the jaw over the shoulder. The arms and legs on the side to which the head is turned extend while the opposite arm and leg flex. To elicit the Landau reflex, the infant is suspended prone with one hand, and the infant's head will lift and the spine will straighten. Galant's reflex, or trunk incurvation reflex, is elicited when the infant is supported prone with one hand, and then one side of the back (one centimeter from the midline), is stroked from the shoulder to the buttocks. The spine should curve toward the stimulus. 137.According to the most recent recommendation from U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, an adult aged 65 should be screened for breast cancer: every 2 years Explanation: The Task Force recommends screening for breast cancer with mammography every 2 years for women ages 50-74 and cites insufficient evidence for women 75 years and older. 138.That portion of the ear that consists of the auricle and ear canal is the: external ear Explanation: The external ear consists of the auricle and ear canal. The auricle is made of cartilage covered by skin and has a firm, elastic consistency. The auricle has a prominent curved outer ridge known as NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct the helix. The antihelix is a curved prominence that is parallel and anterior to the helix. The auditory canal opens behind a nodular protuberance that points backward over the entrance to the canal, known as the tragus. 139. The cranial sutures are closed on the head of a 9 month old infant. This indicates: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct craniosynostosis Explanation: Craniosynostosis is defined as the premature closing of the sutures in young children. When this occurs, a bony ridge can be felt along the suture line. This is not a normal finding since the sutures usually fuse between 12 and 18 months. Hydrocephalus refers to fluid on the brain and would appear as an enlarged head with sutures remaining open. Opisthotonos is a state of severe hyperextension and spasticity in which an individual's head, neck and spinal column enter into a complete "bridging" or "arching" position. This abnormal posturing is an extrapyramidal effect and is caused by spasm of the axial muscles along the spinal column. 140.A decrease in the degree of density in a bone that results in fragile bones is referred to as: osteoporosis Explanation: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in the density of bone, decreasing its strength and resulting in fragile bones. Osteoporosis leads to abnormally porous bone that is compressible, like a sponge. Osteopenia is a condition of bone that makes it slightly less dense than normal bone, but not as severe as in osteoporosis. Osteomyelitis refers to an infection in the bone. Osteoarthritis is a term used to describe degenerative joint disease. 141.Pain or cramping of the legs that occurs during exertion and is relieved by rest is termed: intermittent claudication Explanation: Pain or cramping in the legs that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest is termed intermittent claudication. Atherosclerotic peripheral artery disease presents with symptomatic limb ischemia with exertion. Pain with walking or prolonged standing, radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, thighs, lower legs, or feet, may be seen with neurogenic claudication. Raynaud's disease usually presents with numbness or tingling in the distal portions of one or more fingers aggravated by cold or emotional stress. 142.A patient presents with a fiery red, slightly raised 2 cm lesion on the upper truck that blanches when pressure is applied. The body of the lesion is surrounded by erythema and radiating legs. This is most likely: a spider angioma Explanation: A spider angioma is fiery red, slightly raised and surrounded by erythema and radiating legs that blanch with pressure. These are usually seen in patients with liver disease, pregnancy, vitamin B deficiency, and sometimes patients with no disease. The spider vein is blue. Cherry angiomas are bright or ruby red and increase in size and number as one ages. Petechiae are deep red or reddish purple and are seen when blood is outside the vessels. This suggests a bleeding disorder or injury NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct hearing and the vestibular system is dedicated to balance. The labyrinth is part of the semicircular canals and the vestibular system and is responsible for balance. 147. An intermediate stage between the expected cognitive decline of normal aging and the more serious decline of dementia is known as: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct cognitive impairment Explanation: Cognitive impairment is an intermediate stage between the expected cognitive decline of normal aging and the more serious decline of dementia. Delirium is a serious disturbance in a person's mental abilities that results in a decreased awareness of one's environment and confused thinking. In the older adult, it is defined as a geriatric syndrome or condition occurring as a temporary state of confusion and may be the first clue to infection or problems with medications. Functional impairment is a health condition in which the normal function of a part of the body is less than full capacity. One of the defining characteristics of functional impairment is that the reduction in physical or mental capacity is sufficient to interfere with managing day-to-day tasks. A multifactorial geriatric condition or syndrome characterized by an age-related lack of adaptive physiological capacity occurring in the absence of identifiable illness is known as frailty. 148.Symptoms of a child suspected of having a diagnosis of mixed failure to thrive (FTT) are usually seen in children: who have cleft palates or lips and the caretaker is insecure in his/her feeding abilities. Correct Explanation: Children with cleft lips and/or palates are at risk for aspiration when feeding. This can cause concern or fear for the parent/caregiver. This is considered a type of mixed FTT. Children with CHD fall in the category of an organic type of FTT. Children of mothers with postpartal depression may have a non-organic type of FTT. Cerebral palsy children with feeding tubes have a non-organic type of FTT. Feeding through feeding tubes actually increases the nutritional intake and calories and improves FTT. 149.Which of the following is the most age appropriate play for an 8-year-old girl? A board game Explanation: School-age children like the competitiveness of board games. Dress up is a preschool activity, experimenting with make-up is an adolescent activity and school age children like small puzzle pieces where as preschoolers like large puzzle pieces. 150.Breath sounds auscultated over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and wispy during the inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. These breath sounds are considered: vesicular Explanation: The three normal breath sounds are vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial. Vesicular breath sounds consist of a quiet, wispy inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct phase. They are heard over the periphery of the lung field. Bronchial breath sounds consist of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder. They are normally heard over the trachea and larynx. Bronchovesicular breath sounds consist of a full inspiratory phase with a shortened and softer expiratory phase. They are normally heard over the NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient's relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as the straight leg raise and is used to evaluate sciatica. It is positive if there is pain down the back of the leg below the knee. Ipsilateral calf wasting and weak ankle dorsiflexion may be present. 156.The groove of the radiocarpal joint is located: On the dorsum of the wrist (between the radial and ulna) Explanation: The groove of the radiocarpal joint is located on the dorsum of the wrist. 157.Inspection of the hip begins with careful observation of a patient's gait. A patient's foot moves forward without bearing weight. This is known as the: swing phase of gait Explanation: Inspection of the hip begins with careful observation of a patient's gait. There are 2 phases of gait: stance and swing. The swing phase occurs when the foot moves forward and does not bear weight. The stance phase occurs when the foot is on the ground bearing weight. 158.When assessing a preschooler's mouth, the number of deciduous teeth seen should be: 16-20 Explanation: Children get their first 20 deciduous teeth between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Permanent teeth begin to erupt around 6 years of age when the deciduous teeth begin to fall out. All 32 permanent teeth usually erupt by late adolescence. 159.The most common cause of bacterial pharyngeal infections in children is: A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus Explanation: Pharyngitis is caused by swelling between the tonsils and the larynx. Most sore throats are caused by colds, the flu, Coxsackie virus or mononucleosis. Bacteria that cause pharyngitis include group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, and less commonly, Corynebacterium, gonorrhea, and Chlamydia can cause sore throat. 160.A buildup of excess fluid around the periphery of the eye orbits is known as: periorbital edema Explanation: An accumulation of fluid around the periphery of the eye orbits is known as periorbital edema. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 161.Symptoms of acrocyanosis in the newborn include: bluish color of the feet and the hands Explanation: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Shortly after birth, cyanosis of the hands, feet, and perioral area are common findings and typically resolve in 24 - 48 hours. A blue color around the lips and philtrum is a relatively common finding shortly after birth. The skin in the infant is usually well perfused, and the tongue and mucous membranes in the mouth are pink, a finding that assures that central cyanosis is not present. 162.The structure that creates a channel for the spinal nerve roots is known as the: intervertebral foramen Explanation: The intervertebral foramen creates a channel for the spinal nerve roots. The vertebral foramen encloses the spinal cord. The transverse foramen creates a channel for the vertebral artery. The articular processes are located on each side of the vertebra at the junction of the pedicles and the laminae, also referred to as the articular facets. 163.Retraction of the nipple and areola suggest: an underlying breast mass Explanation: Retraction of the nipple and areola suggest an underlying breast mass. This is not normal and never found in association with cystic breast disease or fibroadenoma. 164.If a patient presents with non-midline lumbar back pain, the nurse practitioner should assess for: muscle strain Explanation: For midline back pain, assess for musculoligamentous injury, disc herniation, vertebral collapse, spinal cord metastases, and, rarely, epidural abscess. Muscle strain, sacroiliitis, trochanteric bursitis, sciatica, and hip arthritis is suggestive of non-midline back pain. Pyelonephritis and renal stones may also be suggestive of non-midline back pain. 165.On examination of the foot, the nurse practitioner notes acute inflammation of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This finding could be consistent with: gout Explanation: Acute inflammation of the first metatarsophalangeal joint suggests gout. 166.When assessing a normal 5-year-old, the last site to assess would be the: throat Explanation: The throat and mouth are considered invasive sites and should be performed last. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct penetrating the dermis. Exfoliation refers to peeling skin. 172. A patient presents with midline, lumbar back pain. The nurse practitioner should assess for: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct disc herniation Explanation: For midline back pain, assess for musculoligamentous injury, disc herniation, vertebral collapse, spinal cord metastases, and, rarely, epidural abscess. Muscle strain, sacroiliitis, bursitis, and sciatica is suggestive of non-midline back pain. 173.Orthopnea is typically associated with all of the following conditions except: left ventricular hypertrophy: pulmonary embolus: mitral stenosis: obstructive lung disease. Explanation: Orthopnea is defined as dyspnea that occurs when the patient is lying down and improves when the patient sits or stands up. It is generally seen in patients with mitral stenosis, left ventricular hypertrophy, and in obstructive lung disease. With a pulmonary embolus, the dyspnea is sudden and uncomfortable in any position. 174. To assess the facial nerve (CN VII) for motor function in an infant, the nurse practitioner would: note facial symmetry while the infant cries or smiles Explanation: To access the facial nerve (CN VII) for motor function in an infant, the nurse practitioner would note facial symmetry while the infant cries or smiles. The other choices do not assess the facial nerve. 175.The nine to ten year old school aged child: is conscious of fairness Explanation: By nine to ten years of age, the school aged child is able to perform several of the following tasks: question the reason for things, demonstrate excessive concern with competition and performance, overestimates own abilities, consider clubs important, conscious of fairness, and usually likes reading and writing. The other choices are consistent with the development of a 11- 12 year-olds. 176.The forward slippage of one vertebrae resulting in spinal cord compression is referred to as: spondylolisthesis NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Explanation: The forward slippage of one vertebrae resulting in spinal cord compression is referred to as spondylolisthesis. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 180.The patient has had an internal pacemaker in place for five years. Pacemaker failure is being considered because over the past few days, the patient has been experiencing episodes of: hiccoughs Explanation: Pacemaker failure is uncommon. Most malfunctions are caused by electrode dislocation, electrode dislocation, poor contact or interference by other tissues. Symptoms include dizziness, lightheadedness, hiccoughs, sudden changes in heart rate, electric shock feeling in the chest. Chest pain is usually absent. Wheezing and hypertension are not specifically characteristic of pacemaker malfunction. 181.In an infant, a repetitive, short expiratory sound is known as: grunting Explanation: In an infant, a repetitive, short expiratory sound is known as grunting and is a sign of respiratory distress. The sound elicited with stridor would be a high-pitched, inspiratory noise. In an infant with nasal flaring, an enlargement of both nasal openings would flare during inspiration. Wheezing denotes a musical expiratory sound. All these conditions are signs of respiratory distress in an infant. 182.The patella rests on the: articulating surface of the femur Explanation: The patella rests on the anterior articulating surface of the femur midway between the epicondyles, embedded in the tendon of the quadriceps muscle. 183.A six-year-old child presents with a few small vesicles that are honey-colored and weeping around the left nare. These lesions are consistent with: impetigo Explanation: Impetigo usually appears as red crusty lesions on the face, especially around a child's nose and mouth. The lesions burst and develop honey-colored crusts. Varicella is characteristic of papules, vesicles, and crusted lesions occurring simultaneously. Herpes simplex on the lips and mouth appear as small vesicles or blisters and are termed "fever blisters" or "cold sores". Shingles appear as vesicles or blisters in clusters along the entire path of the nerve or in certain NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct areas supplied by the nerve. 184. To test the thumb for adduction, ask the patient to place the fingers and thumbs in the neutral position with the palm up and move the thumb anteriorly away from the palm and then: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct back to its neutral position Explanation: Placing the fingers and thumbs in the neutral position with the palm up and moving the thumb anteriorly away from the palm and then back to its neutral position assesses adduction. To test the thumb for flexion, ask the patient to move his thumb to touch the base of the fifth finger. To test extension, ask the patient to move his thumb from the base of the fifth finger, across the palm, and then as far away from the palm as possible. Touching the thumb to each of the other fingers tests opposition. Placing the fingers and thumbs in the neutral position with the palm up and moving the thumb anteriorly away from the palm assesses abduction. 185.A patient complains of an unpleasant abdominal fullness after a light meal. This complaint may be consistent with: diabetic gastroparesis Explanation: Complaints of an unpleasant abdominal fullness after a light or moderate meal, or the inability to eat a full meal is often seen in patients with diabetic gastroparesis, gastric outlet obstruction, gastric cancer, early satiety in hepatitis, or those taking anticholinergic medications. 186.Which technique would be least effective in gaining the cooperation of a toddler during a physical exam? Tell the child that another child the same age was not afraid Explanation: Telling the child that another child the same age was not afraid would not be an effective technique as a toddler is unable to process that concept. The other choices are appropriate techniques. 187.While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a: cranial nerve disorder Explanation: While assessing the trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a cranial nerve disorder, such as trigeminal neuralgia. 188.Contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle could result in lateral deviation and rotation of the head. This condition is suggestive of: torticollis NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct inspiration and sometimes expiration, medium crackles in the middle of inspiration, and fine crackles at the end of inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous, low-pitched and heard on expiration. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched and musical. A pleural friction rub produces a dry, grating sound. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 194.The term used to describe low back pain with nerve pain that radiates down the leg is: sciatica Explanation: The term used to describe low back pain with nerve pain that radiates down the leg is sciatica. Asterixis refers to an abnormal tremor consisting of involuntary jerking movements, especially in the hands, frequently occurring with impending hepatic coma and other forms of metabolic encephalopathy. This is also called flapping tremor. A dermatome is a band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve. Stereognosis refers to the ability to identify an object by feeling it. 195. When the term rubor is used in describing the skin, it means that the appearance is: dusky red Explanation: Rubor is a term used to describe the response of the skin to inflammation. Skin that appears dusky red is rubor. 196.Assessment findings in an infant with increased intracranial pressure would include: drowsiness Explanation: Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure in an infant include: drowsiness, separated sutures on the skull, bulging fontanel, and vomiting. Papilledema can be observed in people of any age, but is relatively uncommon in infants because the bones of the skull are not fully fused together at this age. 197.When suspecting pediculosis capitis, the chief complaint is: itching Explanation: With pediculosis capitis (lice), itching is the most common symptom and is caused by an allergic reaction. Lice will bite the skin in order to feed on the infected person's blood. Saliva from these bites causes the allergic reaction and itching. The lice lay eggs that eventually hatch which causes more irritation. Vesicles, fluid filled lesions, are not usually seen in this condition. Alopecia may be seen with tinea capitis. 198.What geriatric condition is characterized by reduction in physical or mental capacity sufficient to interfere with managing day to day tasks? Functional impairment Explanation: Functional impairment is a health condition in which the normal function of a part of the body is NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct less than full capacity. One of the defining characteristics of functional impairment is that the reduction in physical or mental capacity is sufficient to interfere with managing day-to-day tasks. Delirium is a serious disturbance in a person's mental abilities that results in a decreased awareness of one's environment and confused thinking. In the older adult, it is defined as a geriatric syndrome or condition occurring as a temporary state of confusion and may be the first NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 26 weeks Explanation: Uterine fundal height measured in centimeters correlates with gestational age between 18 and 34 weeks. Fundal height is measured in centimeters from symphysis pubis to top of uterus. This is know as McDonald's rule. 203.When assessing the patient's sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is: suggestive of ataxia related to dorsal column disease Explanation: When assessing the patient's sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is a positive Romberg test and suggestive of ataxia related to a dorsal column disease. In cerebellar ataxia, the patient has difficulty standing with feet together whether the eyes are open or closed. With corticospinal tract damage, the gait is affected and the patient is unable to heel-walk. 204.The group of muscles that lies medial and swings the thigh toward the body is known as the: adductor group Explanation: The group of muscles that lies medial and swings the thigh toward the body is known as the adductor group. The group of muscles that lies laterally and swings the thigh away from the body is known as the abductor group. The group of muscles that lies posteriorly and extends the thigh is known as the extensor group. The group of muscles that lies anteriorly and flexes the thigh is known as the flexor group. 205.In the older adult, the test for leg mobility is known as the: timed "get up and go test" Explanation: The test for leg mobility, also known as the timed “get up and go” test for gait and balance, is an excellent screen for risk of falling. Ask the patient to get up from a chair, walk 10 feet, turn, and return to the chair. Most older adults can complete this test in 10 seconds. 206.Examination of the nasolacrimal duct reveals a mucopurulent discharge from the puncta. This finding is suggestive of: an obstructed nasolacrimal duct Explanation: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct An obstructed nasolacrimal duct would present with a mucopurulent discharge from the puncta of the eye. Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva and findings include red, burning, and itchy eyes. Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of the lacrimal sac, the area between the lower eyelid and the nose. Dacryocystitis presents as a painful, red, and tender area around NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct the eye especially near the nose. A pinguecula refers to a harmless yellowish triangular nodule noted in the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the iris. This finding may be seen in aging or in patients who are exposed chronically to dust. 207.When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient: unarousable with eyes closed Explanation: A comatose patient remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli. A lethargic patient appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. An obtunded patient opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. A stuporous patient arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, verbal responses are slow, and lapses into an unresponsive state. 208.When performing an examination of the rectal area, a linear tear at the anal opening was observed. This could be indicative of: .an anal fissure Explanation: A linear crack or tear suggests an anal fissure from large, hard stools, inflammatory bowel disease, or sexually transmitted diseases. 209.When examining the prostate gland the examiner should inform the patient that this procedure may: prompt an urge to urinate Explanation: When examining the prostate gland on a male patient, the examiner should inform the patient that this procedure may prompt an urge to urinate but reassure him that he will not void on himself. 210.When administering ear drops to a 6-year-old, the pinna should be pulled: upward and back Explanation: To examine the ears of an infant it is usually necessary to pull the auricle backward and downward. In the older child, the external ear is pulled backward and upward. 211. A patient who is being evaluated for frequent headaches, mentions that the headache worsens with coughing, sneezing, or when changing positions. Increasing pain with these maneuvers may be suggestive of: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct Scleroderma presents as a thickened, taut, and shiny skin appearance. Systemic lupus erythematosus associated skin lesions include: malar (butterfly) rash, discoid rash, alopecia, vasculitis, oral ulcers, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Thrombocytopenia presents with generalized petechiae and ecchymosis. NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct 216.A 45-year-old patient complains of vertigo, tinnitus and pressure in the right ear. These symptoms are consistent with: Meniere's disease Explanation: Meniere's Disease begins with a episodic vertigo and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear along with fluctuating tinnitus. Dizziness associated with benign positional vertigo typically occurs when the patient rolls over onto the affected side or with tilting the head upward. Nausea and vomiting may be present. Cluster headaches are usually one sided and the patient often has a runny nose with reddening and tearing of the nose without mention of dizziness. In vestibular neuronitis, the dizziness is sudden followed by nausea and vomiting without tinnitus. 217.With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient's neck while observing the hips and knees. Flexion of both hips and knees was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski's sign Explanation: To elicit Brudzinski's sign, flex the neck. Flexion of both the hips and knees is positive for Brudzinski's sign. To test for Kernig's sign, flex the patient's leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten the knee. Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee are positive for Kernig's sign. With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient's head while flexing his neck forward so that his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is positive for nuchal rigidity and suggestive of meningeal inflammation from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage. To elicit the Babinski response, stroke the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick; plantar flexion is normal. Dorsiflexion of the big toe is a positive Babinski's sign. 218.Immediate treatment for a sprain includes: rest and cold applications Explanation: Resting the extremity and applying ice is the most immediate actions to relieve swelling of the injured joint. Rest and elevation are appropriate, but giving pain medication immediately may mask more serious problems. Compression is appropriate for sports injuries, but heat application should not be an immediate action. While rest is important after a sprain, early mobility hastens recovery. 219. The vertebral column angles sharply posteriorly and becomes immovable at the: NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct NSG 3370 STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct lumbosacral junction Explanation: The vertebral column angles sharply posteriorly and becomes immovable at the lumbosacral junction. The intervertebral discs cushion movement between vertebrae and allow the vertebral NSG 3370STUDY QUESTIONS & answers latest exam guide best exam solution upgraded/rated 100% correct