Clinical Case Analysis: Various Medical Conditions and Treatments, Exams of Nursing

Download Clinical Case Analysis: Various Medical Conditions and Treatments and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 Questions 1 When performing a visual acuity test, the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/60 in the right eye. The next step is to A- Have the patient return in 2 weeks for a follow-up vision screen B- Dilate the eyes and retest C- Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist D- Document this as a normal finding. Question 2 The American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual Disorder fifth edition (DMS-5) describes Munchausen Syndrome by proxy as A- A self-inflicted injury to gain attention B- A caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care C- An abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver D- A situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim Question 3 Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication? A- Dopamine B- Gabapentin C- Mu 2 D- Cortisol Question 4 The right lymphatic ducts drain into what part of the circulatory system? A- Arterial B- Venous C- Arteriovenous system D- Capillary bed Question 9 Which condition is caused by an insufficient production of intrinsic factor by the gastric mucosa and vitamin B insufficiency? A- Diarrhea B- Pernicious anemia C- Osteoporosis D- Muscle weakness Question 10 A 32-year old woman presents with dull puffiness of the eyes with pronounced non-pitting periorbital edema. This finding is suggestive of what condition? A- Nephrotic syndrome B- Myxedema C- Cushing’s syndrome D- Sinusitis Question 11 A 52-year-old woman ii inquiring about estrogen replacement therapy for symptoms of menopause. Which of the following is a contraindication? A- History of phlebitis B- Prior or present migraine headaches C- Family history of lung cancer D- Prior breast or uterine carcinoma Question 9 Question 12 Patient with asthma have a pathological finding of: A- Necrosis of small airways B- Absence of goblet cells C- Absence of ciliary regeneration D- Hypertrophy of smooth muscle Question 13 A 65-year-old patient with a history of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated for a dental abscess. Which antibiotics is safe to use with warfarin (Coumadin). A- Amoxicillin (Amoxil) B- Trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) C- Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D- Clarithromycin (Biaxin) Question 14 Primary syphilis is characterized by what type of lesion A- A cluster of scattered vesicles B- Chancre C- Papule of many shapes D- Nontender indurated penile nodule Question 15 What is the area of fundal height palpation on a woman who is 12 weeks pregnant? A- At the level of the umbilicus B- At the level of the symphysis pubis C- Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus D- Below the symphysis pubis Question 16 Question 20 Based on the mechanism of hearing, sensorineural loss in an adult involves the A- Cochlea and the cochlea nerve B- External ear canal and the middle ear C- Ossicles and the inner ear D- Transfer of sounds from the external environment into the external auditory canal Question 21 Which of the appropriate medication choice for a 31-year-old pregnant patient diagnosed with a urinary tract infection? A- Cefuroxime (Zinacef) or Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) B- Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) or Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C- Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) or Tetracycline (Sumycin) D- Tetracycline (Sumycin) or Amoxicillin (Amoxil) Question22 Pregnant women are evaluated for syphilis with serology testing because A- Syphilis during pregnancy predisposes the fetus to spontaneously abort or the newborn to have congenital syphilis. B- Hormonal changes associated with pregnancy may trigger activation of talent syphilis C- Syphilis may be passed to the fetus beginning in the third trimester D- Untreated syphilis can cause neonatal respiratory distress Question 23 Which of the following is a typical finding in a patient with a meniscal tear? A- A positive McMurray’s test B- Positive anterior drawer test C- Audible click at the joint line D- Fixed patellar subluxation Question 24 Hyperkalemia is associated with: A- Increased blood pressure B- Alpha blockers C- Diminished renal function D- Loop diuretics Question 25 Short bands of tough, flexible, ropelike, collagen fibrils that connect two bones is called: A- Tendons B- Fibrous connective tissue C- Ligaments D- Cartilage Question 30 A prostate gland that is found to be tender, swollen, boggy, and warm on a digital rectal exam is consistent with: A- A normal prostate gland B- Acute bacterial prostatitis C- Benign prostatic hyperplasia D- Carcinoma of the prostate Question 31 Which medication can cause a false positive result for amphetamines in a urine drug screen? A- Metformin B- Lisinopril C- Glyburide D- Bupropion Question 32 Fine, silky appearance of the hair is a common finding in: A- Hypothyroidism B- Hyperthyroidism C- Type 2 diabetes D- Celiac disease Question 30 Question 33 Which of the following is commonly associated with increased risk for prostatic hypertrophy? A- Constipation B- Fecal incontinence C- Urinary tract infections D- Prostate cancer Question 34 Patients with bacterial meningitis experience headache symptoms due to: A- Meningeal erythema B- Increased intracranial pressure C- Meningeal irritation D- Swelling of the spinal cord Question 35 A 42-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should not be … A- Sumatriptan (Limitrex) B- Amitriptyline (Elavil) C- Verapamil (Verelan) D- Metoprolol (Lopressor) Question 36 What diagnostic test is performed to diagnose acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? A- A complete blood count with differential B- Magnetic resonance imaging C- A nuclear bone scan D- A bone marrow examination Question 38 Question 41 Which of the following is the single dose treatment for a patient with diagnose chlamydia? A- Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 200mg orally B- Azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 gram orally C- Metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 gram orally D- Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg intramuscular Question 42 The nurse practitioner prescribes deferoxamine (Desferal) for a pediatric patient with beta thalassemia and hemosiderosis because the medication: A- Prevent blood transfusion reactions B- Stimulates red blood cell production C- Improves the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs D- Eliminates excessive iron and prevent organ damage. Question 43 The combination of benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin is prescribed for acne because benzoyl peroxide: A- Improves the efficacy of erythromycin B- Decreases the risk of desquamation C- Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin D- Increases the time patient can be exposed to sunlight. Question 44 Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with the symptom of hemoptysis? A- Pulmonary emboli B- Chronic bronchitis C- Viral pneumonia D- Neoplasm of the lung Question 42 Question 45 Rh-negative women should receive Rho (D) immune globulin at what gestational time? A- 6 weeks B- 12 weeks C- S28 weeks D- 35 weeks Question 50 Which of the following is the single-dose treatment for a patient with diagnosis of Chlamydia? A- Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 200 mg orally B- Azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 gram orally C- Metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams orally D- Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg intramuscular Question 51 What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headache? A- Sumatriptan (Imitrex) B- Propranolol (Inderal) C- Ibuprofen (Motrin) D- Dihydroergotamine (DHE) Question 52 The combination of benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin is prescribed for acne because benzoyl peroxide: A- Improve the efficacity of erythromycin B- Decreases the risk of desquamation C- Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin D- Increases the time patient can be exposed to sunlight Question 50 Question 53 Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with the symptom of hemoptysis? A- Pulmonary emboli B- Chronic bronchitis C- Viral pneumonia D- Neoplasm of the lung Question 54 Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old patient with a past medical history of Type 2 diabetes, obesity, current smoking and sedentary lifestyle? A- She is obese B- She has Type 2 diabetes mellitus C- Her age and tobacco use D- She leads a sedentary lifestyle Question 55 During an abdominal examination, the nurse practitioner percusses the bulging area of the abdomen. Which sound suggest the presence of ascitic fluid? A- Tympany B- Dullness C- Hyperresonance D- Normal resonance Question 56 What is the drug of choice for the pediatric patient diagnosed with scabies? A- Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) lotion B- Permethrin (Nix) cream C- Lindane (Kwell) D- Selenium sulfide (Selsun) Question 58 Question 61 What medication should be avoided when prescribing prophylactic therapy for headache in a patient with a past history of asthma and chronic migraines? A- Verapamil B- Propranolol C- Venlafaxine D- Nimodipine Question 62 A nonpregnant woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis should be treated with: A- Metronidazole (Flagyl) B- Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C- Clindamycin (Cleocin) D- Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) Question 63 A 17-year-old is diagnosed with mild bronchospasm. Which of the following would provide relief? A- Inhaled mometasone (Asmanex) B- Inhaled levalbuterol (Xopenex) C- Oral Montelukast (Singulair) D- Oral dextromethorphan/ guaifenesin product Question 64 What is the mechanism of action for prostaglandin E1 (PG1) in a patient with transposition of the great arteries? A- To maintain equal pressure in the ventricles B- To maintain patency of the great arteries C- To produce vasodilation and adequate oxygen saturation D- To prevent cyanotic episodes by trapping blood in the extremities. Question 65 Which patient causes the greatest concern for complication related to scoliosis? A- 13-year-old girl with a 10 degree curve B- 17-year-old girl with a 10 degree curve C- 12-year-old boy with a 5 degree curve D- 18-year-old boy with a 5 degree curve Question 70 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of late-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) infection? A- Night sweats B- Lymphadenopathy C- Persistent vomiting D- Extreme unexplained fatigue Question 71 A 75-year-old man who recently lost his spouse of 50 year in an auto accident tells the nurse practitioner that he “has no purpose in this life”. The next most appropriate question for the nurse practitioner to ask is: A- “Have you told your family how you feel?’ B- “Have you thought about hurting yourself?” C- “Are you taking your medications?” D- “Do have any friends?” Question 72 Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman? A- Hirsutism B- Gynecomastia C- Oligomenorrhea Question 70 D- Acne Question 73 When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing which medication should be given to relieve the symptom? A- Short-acting bronchodilator B- Long-acting bronchodilator C- Inhaled corticosteroid D- Combination of methylxanthine and long-acting bronchodilator Question 74 Before the nurse practitioner prescribes metronidazole (Flagyl) for a patient with giardiasis, it is important to inquire about: A- The presence of an allergy to sulfa B- A past medical history of peptic ulcer disease C- Whether the patient is at least 18 years old D- Whether the patient drinks alcohol Question 75 The most common chief complaint of a woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis is: A- A painless ulcerated vulval lesion with vaginal discharge. B- Fever, papules, and vaginal discharge with burning C- A vaginal discharge. D- Dyspareunia and upper abdominal pain. Question 76 Which structure in the eye is affected by cataract disease? A- The retina B- The cornea C- The lens D- The optic nerve Question 77 Finding of a firm, nodular hypertrophic mass of scar tissue on the posterior surface of a pierced ear lobe is documented as: A- A keloid B- A tophi C- A cutaneous cyst