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NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTIO, Exams of Nursing

NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+

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2022/2023

Available from 11/12/2022

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Download NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTIO and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ Section 1. Neurological Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about confusion is true? A. Confusion is a disease process. B. Confusion is always temporary. C. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion. D. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia? A. Onset after an infection B. Abrupt onset over a week C. Difficulty with long-term memory D. Hard time finding words NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: D PTS: 1 3. Which of the following aspects of the patient history is a hallmark of delirium? A. Patient has chronic kidney disease. B. Patient has had aphasia for a year. C. Patient has diabetes mellitus. D. Patient has been getting lost driving home. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. Which of the following may trigger migraines? A. Taking an ibuprofen for muscle pain B. A cup of coffee with regular sweetener C. A glass of merlot wine D. Drinking a cup of green tea ANS: C PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ recovery in between occurrences. Which MS classification fits their disease process? A. Clinically isolated syndrome B. Relapsing-remitting C. Primary progressive D. Secondary progressive ANS: B PTS: 1 10. A patient with MS is complaining of new-onset “electric tingling” in both their arms. Which medication specifically treats these acute exacerbations? A. Lemtrada B. Aubagio NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Zanaflex D. Depo-Medrol ANS: D PTS: 1 11. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease? A. Having a master’s or doctoral degree B. Patient is a physician C. Patient has Down’s syndrome D. History of neurological disease ANS: C PTS: 1 12. Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? A. Cholinesterase inhibitors B. Anxiolytics C. Antidepressants D. Atypical antipsychotics NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: A PTS: 1 13. The health-care provider is treating a patient who was hit in the head with a frying pan. Which of the following should the provider suspect? A. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Subarachnoid hematoma ANS: B PTS: 1 14. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery? A. Epidural hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hematoma D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage ANS: A PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ B. History of peripheral vascular occlusive disease C. History of seizure disorder D. History of sickle cell disease ANS: B PTS: 1 19. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? A. A female in her reproductive years B. A 40-year-old African American male C. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily D. A 45-year-old male awakened at night ANS: D PTS: 1 20. Which patient is most likely to have myasthenia gravis (MG)? A. A 75-year-old Caucasian woman B. A 31-year-old Hispanic woman C. A 55-year-old African American male D. A 10-year-old Middle Eastern male NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: B PTS: 1 21. Inattention and a sleep–wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of: A. Dementia B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Delirium ANS: D PTS: 1 22. Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus? A. Purulent meningitis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ B. Chronic meningitis C. Aseptic meningitis D. Herpes meningitis ANS: C PTS: 1 23. A patient has been diagnosed with meningitis caused by a Streptococcus pneumoniae infection. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate? A. Cefotaxime B. Isoniazid C. Acyclovir D. Amphotericin ANS: A PTS: 1 24. Which of the following should be started promptly if viral encephalitis is suspected? A. Oral amoxicillin NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 28. A patient is presenting with chorea (dance-like movements). Which of the following diseases might the patient have? A. Dementia B. Parkinson’s disease C. Wilson’s disease D. Huntington’s disease ANS: D PTS: 1 29. Which of the following signs would a health-care provider expect to see in a patient with Parkinson-plus disorder? A. Resting tremor B. Bradykinesia C. Rigidity D. Postural instability ANS: D PTS: 1 30. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a migraine? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. Light sensitivity B. Nonpulsatile pain C. Nasal stuffiness D. Bandlike pain ANS: A PTS: 1 31. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis? A. Greater than 25% B. Greater than 50% C. Greater than 75% D. Only for 100% occlusion ANS: B PTS: 1 32. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire? A. Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ B. Determining if the patient can drive on the highway C. Asking the patient about a news event from the current week D. Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean ANS: C PTS: 1 33. About 90% of all headaches are: A. Tension B. Migraine C. Cluster D. Without pathological cause ANS: D PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 38. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with a cognitive disturbance in either language, function, or perception? A. Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Parkinson’s disease C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Delirium ANS: C PTS: 1 39. A score of 12 to 24 on this test indicates intermediate Alzheimer’s disease: A. SLUMS B. MoCA C. FAST NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. MMSE ANS: D PTS: 1 40. IV thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset? A. 1 hour B. 3 hours C. 6 hours D. 12 hours ANS: B PTS: 1 41. When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache? A. Tension B. Migraine C. Cluster D. Stress NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: C PTS: 1 Section 2. Skin Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause? A. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.” B. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?” C. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunological mechanism.” D. “We’ll have to do some tests.” ANS: C PTS: 1 2. Gillian presents with a sudden onset of 102°F fever, emesis, tingling in NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 6. When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval-to-round shapes. What do you suspect they are? A. Spores B. Leukocytes C. Pseudohyphae D. Epithelial cells ANS: A PTS: 1 7. Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. Terbinafine 250 mg once daily × 12 weeks B. Noxafil 100 mg oral suspension × 2 daily C. Griseofulvin 500 mg once daily × 2 to 4 weeks D. Metronidazole 2% cream 5 g intravaginally × 7 days ANS: D PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 8. Tinea unguium is also known as: A. Onychomycosis B. Tinea versicolor C. Tinea manuum D. Tinea corporis ANS: A PTS: 1 9. Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this? A. Bullous impetigo B. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Nonbullous impetigo D. Ecthyma ANS: D PTS: 1 10. Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity. Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium perfringens C. S. pyogenes D. Streptococcus ANS: B PTS: 1 11. When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect? A. A piece of hair or a thread B. Hyphae C. Leukocytes NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. HPV 16 and 18 usually cause anogenital warts. B. Penetrative intercourse is necessary to transmit anogenital warts. C. Anogenital warts are transmitted genital to genital. D. OTC home-based cryotherapy is a good choice for treatment. ANS: C PTS: 1 16. Jeffrey has atopic dermatitis. You are prescribing a low-dose topical corticosteroid for him. Which would be a good choice? A. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% B. Hydrocortisone base 2.5% C. Halcinonide 0.1% D. Desonide 0.05% ANS: B PTS: 1 17. Harvey has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on his chest that is compressible and has a soft-to- very-firm texture. What do you diagnose this as? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. A lipoma B. A nevus C. A skin tag D. A possible adenoma ANS: A PTS: 1 18. Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using snip excision? A. Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding. B. Pinch the skin taut together. C. Use gel foam to control bleeding. D. This should be performed by a dermatologist only. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents: A. Biopsy B. Best practice NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Boundary D. Border irregularity ANS: D PTS: 1 20. Gary has been diagnosed with HSV-2 genital herpes and is wondering what to expect. Which of the following is a credible teaching point? A. HSV-1 genital herpes occurs more frequently than HSV-2 genital herpes. B. The HSV lesions will never occur near the initial infection site. C. Burning and tingling at the site of initial infection can signal recurrence. D. Each recurrent HSV infection will be worse than the initial infection. ANS: C PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back. B. Josh has red papules on his face. C. There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area. D. There are white streaks on his neck. ANS: A PTS: 1 26. Tori is on systemic antifungals for a bad tinea infection. You are aware that the antifungals may cause: A. Renal failure B. Skin discoloration C. Breathing difficulties D. Hepatotoxicity ANS: D PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 27. Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? A. Telogen effluvium (TE) B. Trichotillomania C. Psoriasis D. Alopecia areata ANS: A PTS: 1 28. Which of the following is a strong risk factor associated with increased melanoma risk? A. Patient had a 15 mm nevus. B. Patient has a history of multiple blistering sunburns in their teenage years. C. Patient’s uncle had melanoma. D. Patient is of African American descent. ANS: B PTS: 1 29. Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the “mask of pregnancy”? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy. B. This condition only occurs on the face. C. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration. D. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. A patient presents with xerosis. What do you tell the patient about this condition? A. Daily hot baths can help to soothe the skin. B. Using a strong deodorant can improve the condition. C. It can be a side effect of depigmentation creams. D. It is uncommon in the elderly. ANS: C PTS: 1 31. Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older? A. Permethrin cream NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 35. Which statement regarding necrotizing fasciitis is true? A. The hallmark of this infection is its slow and steady progression. B. Once the border of the infection is “established,” it does not spread. C. This is a medical emergency and gangrene can develop. D. The lesion is most dangerous, because it is painless. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the papillary dermis? A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV ANS: C PTS: 1 37. Which of these patients is most likely to have acne and resultant scarring? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. A 15-year-old Caucasian male B. A 17-year-old Hispanic female C. A 20-year-old Asian female D. A 21-year-old African American male ANS: B PTS: 1 38. A 20-year-old Hispanic male presents with multiple noninflammatory comedones on his chest and back with four small papules on his right upper arm. Which diagnosis is accurate? A. Mild acne B. Moderate acne C. Severe acne NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Nodulocystic acne ANS: A PTS: 1 39. A 40-year-old woman presents with inflammatory papules on her face, facial flushing when she drinks a glass of wine, telangiectasias, and dry eyes. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acne vulgaris B. Hot tub folliculitis C. Rosacea D. Perioral dermatitis ANS: C PTS: 1 40. Rachel is a patient complaining of a pruritic erythematous rash on her face and hands that became apparent this morning. Which of the following questions would help determine whether she has contact dermatitis? A. “Do you have a history of itchy rashes?” B. “Do you have any food allergies?” NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Digitate wart ANS: D PTS: 1 44. Maria had impetigo and is seeing her health-care provider for a follow-up visit. Which of the following teaching points should the provider discuss? A. Keeping fingernails short can prevent the spread of impetigo. B. Impetigo can be prevented in the future by wearing a face mask. C. If a patient has impetigo in the future, they should clean everything in their home with bleach. D. Impetigo is spread by blood, so the patient should avoid donating blood. ANS: A PTS: 1 45. Jill is a patient complaining of a “bumpy” rash on her neck that is nonpruritic. She was recently on a ski trip and went in a hot tub. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. HSV-2 B. Folliculitis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Acne vulgaris D. Actinic keratosis ANS: B PTS: 1 46. Graham has a single furuncle on his buttocks with no surrounding cellulitis. What is the best treatment option? A. Systemic antibiotics B. Cold compress to the site C. Incision and drainage D. Watchful waiting ANS: C PTS: 1 47. Jack is complaining of an extremely pruritic lesion that is round to a half circle in his genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tinea cruris B. Tinea pedis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Tinea versicolor D. Tinea manuum ANS: A PTS: 1 48. Which of the following is true of scabies? A. Scabies is more common in the Caucasian population. B. Scabies is transmitted through blood. C. Scabies is not associated with hygiene. D. Scabies is transmitted through close personal contact. ANS: D PTS: 1 49. Which of the following is true of pediculosis? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 2. A granulomatous infection of a meibomian gland that presents as a painless swelling on the eyelid is called a: A. Iritis B. Chalazion C. Viral conjunctivitis D. Nuclear cataracts ANS: B PTS: 1 3. Billy presents with edematous and erythematous lid margins and closer visual inspection with a Wood’s lamp reveals scaling. Which of the following conditions could be the diagnosis? A. Hordeolum B. Chalazion NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Blepharitis D. Iritis ANS: C PTS: 1 4. Which of the following is true about epiphora? A. It is uncommon that it’s a response to dry eye. B. It will lead to decreased tearing. C. It is common in infants. D. It will lead to increased irritation. ANS: D PTS: 1 5. The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis? A. Viral conjunctivitis B. Keratoconjunctivitis C. Bacterial conjunctivitis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Allergic conjunctivitis ANS: C PTS: 1 6. Which is appropriate patient education to provide regarding bacterial conjunctivitis? A. The patient should continue to go to his or her job as a day-care teacher. B. The patient should make sure to practice proper hand washing. C. The patient should touch his or her eyes to apply medication. D. The patient will be infectious for only 24 hours after diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. What of the following in the patient’s history would lead the provider to diagnose a corneal abrasion? A. Patient’s mother had a corneal abrasion. B. Patient wears glasses. C. Patient complains, “I feel like something is in my right eye.” NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ glaucoma? A. Myopia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hyperopia D. Small cornea ANS: A PTS: 1 12. A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open- angle glaucoma? A. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma. B. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient. NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist. D. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure? A. 0 to 7 mm Hg B. 12 to 22 mm Hg C. 22 to 40 mm Hg D. 40 to 80 mm Hg NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: B PTS: 1 14. Which of the following education points is essential to provide to the patient with glaucoma? A. Their medication may have adverse effects. B. Only the patient can instill eye drops. C. Eye infections are common and are not a concern. D. Eye exams must happen monthly. ANS: A PTS: 1 15. With regards to the relationship between diabetes and diabetic retinopathy, which of the following is TRUE? A. Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes. B. Diabetic retinopathy is always the first sign that a patient has diabetes. C. The longer the patient has had diabetes, the more likelihood that they will develop retinopathy. D. Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes. NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Macular degeneration D. Keratitis sicca ANS: D PTS: 1 20. A patient was diagnosed with gradual floaters that the provider determined did not require treatment. What is a common complaint when a patient has benign floaters? A. “In my right eye I see little dots when I stare in the direction of the sun.” B. “In both eyes I see bright white dots that block my vision when I am in a black room.” C. “I can’t see in my left eye when I look into a bright room.” D. “When I am in a dark room a big white dot blocks my field of vision in my left eye.” ANS: A PTS: 1 21. A patient is complaining of seeing “flashing lights.” What is the provider’s next step? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ A. Send the patient to ophthalmology immediately to evaluate for macular degeneration. B. Tell the patient that it is normal to see flashing lights occasionally. C. Send the patient to ophthalmology immediately to evaluate for a retinal tear or detachment. D. Tell the patient that they can wait to be seen by ophthalmology for 1 month. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. Robin presents with tearing in her right eye that started this morning. What is the most likely cause in the provider’s differential diagnosis? A. Dry eye B. Foreign body in the eye C. Diabetic retinopathy D. Cataract ANS: B PTS: 1 23. Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape? A. Pilocarpine B. Timolol C. Brinzolamide D. Acetazolamide ANS: A PTS: 1 Section 4. Ear, Nose, and Throat Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ continuous or intermittent otorrhea lasting for more than 1 month. D. Patient has had severe pain and continuous otorrhea lasting for 3 months. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. Which of the following is helpful in evaluating patients with otitis media with effusion? A. Lumbar puncture B. MRI C. Computed tomography (CT) scan D. Ultrasound ANS: C PTS: 1 6. Which of the following treatments is appropriate for a patient who has acute otitis media and has an allergy to penicillin? A. Augmentin 875 mg two times daily for 10 days NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ B. Suprax 400 mg daily for 7 days C. Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 10 days D. Zithromax 500 mg on day 1, and then 250 mg daily for 4 days ANS: D PTS: 1 7. Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM ANS: B PTS: 1 8. Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis? A. Vasomotor rhinitis B. Rhinitis medicamentosa NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Viral rhinitis ANS: A PTS: 1 9. Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than: A. 4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 16 weeks ANS: C PTS: 1 10. Which of the following antibiotics provides the best coverage in acute or chronic sinusitis when gram-negative organisms are suspected? A. Penicillin V B. Amoxicillin NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Pneumonia D. Syphilis ANS: B PTS: 1 15. Which of the following conditions leads to erythematous patches with bluish-white centers on the lingual and buccal mucosa (Koplik’s spots): A. Syphilis B. Roseola paramyxovirus infection C. Parotitis D. HIV ANS: B PTS: 1 16. Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens? A. Coxsackievirus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Francisella tularensis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Group A streptococcus ANS: D PTS: 1 17. Which of the following is a disorder of infectious etiology? A. Tonsillitis B. Kawasaki’s syndrome C. Pharyngitis related to allergies D. Pemphigus ANS: A PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 18. A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause? A. Gonorrhea B. Mononucleosis C. Influenza D. Herpes zoster ANS: B PTS: 1 19. A patient presents with nonvesicular lesions that are 2 to 10 mm, symmetrical, and scattered on the oropharynx and mouth. What is their most likely diagnosis? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Primary syphilis C. Candida infection D. Secondary syphilis NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. That his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed D. That he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection ANS: D PTS: 1 23. Which of the following medications is safe to use when an adult patient has a perforated tympanic membrane? A. Chloroxylenol 1 mg, 4 to 5 drops in the affected ear three times per day for 7 days B. Floxin otic 10 drops in affected ear for 7 days C. Pramoxine HCL 10 mg, 4 to 5 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days D. Hydrocortisone 10 mg/mL, 3 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days ANS: B PTS: 1 24. Betty presents with tenderness on traction of the pinna in her right ear and when the provider places pressure on her right tragus, she expresses she is in NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ pain. The clinician does not suspect a tympanic membrane rupture, but would like to make Betty more comfortable during the exam. Which of the following solutions should the clinician administer before attempting an examination? A. Normal saline B. Auralgan C. Lidocaine D. Distilled water ANS: B PTS: 1 25. Which of the following is the form of external otitis in which bacterial infection extends from the auditory canal into the skull? A. Otitis media B. Otitis externa C. Necrotizing otitis D. Swimmer’s ear ANS: C PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 26. Though common as people age, what concerning disease can dysphonia be a cardinal sign for? A. Laryngeal cancer B. Viral infection C. Bronchitis D. Lung cancer ANS: A PTS: 1 27. A patient has dysphonia ×3 days as a result of a viral illness. Which of the following educational points is correct? A. As smoking has no effect on dysphonia, the patient can continue to smoke. B. The patient should continue to use their voice to exercise it. C. The patient should take cough medication with antihistamines. D. Make sure the patient has adequate fluid intake. NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ ANS: D PTS: 1 32. What is the initial treatment for uncomplicated anterior epistaxis? A. Tilting the head back so the blood does not run out of the nose B. Applying firm and continuous pressure superior to the nasal alar cartilages for 10 to 15 minutes C. Applying firm and continuous pressure to the nostril for 5 minutes D. Letting the nose bleed clot and leaning the head forward ANS: B PTS: 1 33. A patient just had epistaxis and the provider is counseling them on what to do when they go home. Which of the following should be included? A. Make sure to talk during future nose bleeds to reassure the people around you. B. When nose bleeds occur, if you have blood in your mouth, spit it out. NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ C. Avoid hot liquids after a nose bleed. D. With future nose bleeds, drinking lukewarm beverages helps blood clot. ANS: C PTS: 1 34. Peter presents with complaints of right hearing loss that has been getting worse and a congruent headache. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acoustic neuroma B. Presbycusis C. Ménière’s disease D. Sensorineural hearing loss ANS: A PTS: 1 35. Which of the following complementary therapies can help a patient with tinnitus? A. Increase salt intake B. Stop smoking C. Not listening to music NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Increase caffeine intake ANS: B PTS: 1 Section 4. Ear, Nose, and Throat Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss? A. Perforation of the tympanic membrane B. Otosclerosis C. Cholesteatoma D. Presbycusis ANS: D PTS: 1 2. The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 5. Which of the following is helpful in evaluating patients with otitis media with effusion? A. Lumbar puncture B. MRI C. Computed tomography (CT) scan D. Ultrasound ANS: C PTS: 1 6. Which of the following treatments is appropriate for a patient who has acute otitis media and has an allergy to penicillin? A. Augmentin 875 mg two times daily for 10 days B. Suprax 400 mg daily for 7 days C. Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 10 days D. Zithromax 500 mg on day 1, and then 250 mg daily for 4 days ANS: D PTS: 1 7. Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ involved in allergic rhinitis? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM ANS: B PTS: 1 8. Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis? A. Vasomotor rhinitis B. Rhinitis medicamentosa C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Viral rhinitis ANS: A PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 9. Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than: A. 4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 16 weeks ANS: C PTS: 1 10. Which of the following antibiotics provides the best coverage in acute or chronic sinusitis when gram-negative organisms are suspected? A. Penicillin V B. Amoxicillin C. Levofloxacin D. Clindamycin ANS: C PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 15. Which of the following conditions leads to erythematous patches with bluish-white centers on the lingual and buccal mucosa (Koplik’s spots): A. Syphilis B. Roseola paramyxovirus infection C. Parotitis D. HIV ANS: B PTS: 1 16. Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens? A. Coxsackievirus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Francisella tularensis D. Group A streptococcus ANS: D PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 17. Which of the following is a disorder of infectious etiology? A. Tonsillitis B. Kawasaki’s syndrome C. Pharyngitis related to allergies D. Pemphigus ANS: A PTS: 1 18. A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause? A. Gonorrhea B. Mononucleosis C. Influenza D. Herpes zoster ANS: B PTS: 1 NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 19. A patient presents with nonvesicular lesions that are 2 to 10 mm, symmetrical, and scattered on the oropharynx and mouth. What is their most likely diagnosis? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Primary syphilis C. Candida infection D. Secondary syphilis ANS: D PTS: 1 20. A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7°F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be? NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ has a perforated tympanic membrane? A. Chloroxylenol 1 mg, 4 to 5 drops in the affected ear three times per day for 7 days B. Floxin otic 10 drops in affected ear for 7 days C. Pramoxine HCL 10 mg, 4 to 5 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days D. Hydrocortisone 10 mg/mL, 3 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days ANS: B PTS: 1 24. Betty presents with tenderness on traction of the pinna in her right ear and when the provider places pressure on her right tragus, she expresses she is in pain. The clinician does not suspect a tympanic membrane rupture, but would like to make Betty more comfortable during the exam. Which of the following solutions should the clinician administer before attempting an examination? A. Normal saline NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ B. Auralgan C. Lidocaine NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+ D. Distilled water ANS: B PTS: 1 25. Which of the following is the form of external otitis in which bacterial infection extends from the auditory canal into the skull? A. Otitis media B. Otitis externa C. Necrotizing otitis D. Swimmer’s ear ANS: C PTS: 1 26. Though common as people age, what concerning disease can dysphonia be a cardinal sign for? A. Laryngeal cancer B. Viral infection C. Bronchitis D. Lung cancer NSG6001 test bank (1) Q & As ALL ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY/VERIFIED ANSWERS BEST EXAM SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+
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