NUR 2513 Exam 1 Study Guide Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update Guaranteed Success, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR 2513 Exam 1 Study Guide Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update Guaranteed Success and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR 2513 Exam 1 Study Guide Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update Guaranteed Success. While the vital signs of a pregnant client in her third trimester are being assessed, the client complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Have the stand up and retake her blood pressure. b. Have client the client sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position. c. Have the client turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes. d. Have the client lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms. Blood pressure is affected by positions during pregnancy. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta. Turning the pregnant woman to a lateral recumbent position alleviates pressure on the blood vessels and quickly corrects supine hypotension. Pressures are significantly higher when the patient is standing. This would cause an increase in systolic and diastolic pressures. The arm should be supported at the same level of the heart. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta, creating hypotension. 2 A pregnant client has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. Which is the correct interpretation of these symptoms by the health care provider? a. Nasal stuffiness and nosebleeds are caused by a decrease in progesterone. b. These conditions are abnormal. Refer the client to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. c. Estrogen relaxes the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract, so congestion and epistaxis are within normal limits. d. Estrogen causes increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds. As capillaries become engorged, the upper respiratory tract is affected by the subsequent edema and hyperemia, which causes these conditions, seen commonly during pregnancy. Progesterone is responsible for the heightened awareness of the need to breathe in pregnancy. Progesterone levels increase during pregnancy. The client should be reassured that these symptoms are within normal limits. No referral is needed at this time. Relaxation of the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract is affected by progesterone. 3 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Which suggestion is appropriate for the pregnant client who is experiencing heartburn? a. Drink plenty of fluids at bedtime. b. Eat only three meals a day so the stomach is empty between meals. c. Drink coffee or orange juice immediately on arising in the morning. d. Use Tums or Alkamints to obtain relief, as directed by the health care provider. Antacids high in calcium (e.g., Tums, Alkamints) can provide temporary relief. Fluids overstretch the stomach and may precipitate reflux when lying down. Instruct the woman to eat five or six small meals per day rather than three full meals. Coffee and orange juice stimulate acid formation in the stomach. 4 While providing education to a primiparous client regarding the normal changes of pregnancy, what is important for the nurse to explain about Braxton Hicks contractions? a. These contractions may indicate preterm labor. b. These are contractions that never cause any discomfort. c. Braxton Hicks contractions only start during the third trimester. d. These occur throughout pregnancy, but you may not feel them until the third trimester. Throughout pregnancy, the uterus undergoes irregular contractions called Braxton Hicks contractions. During the first two trimesters, the contractions are infrequent and usually not felt by the woman until the third trimester. Braxton Hicks contractions do not indicate preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions can cause some discomfort, especially in the third trimester. Braxton Hicks contractions occur throughout the whole pregnancy. 5 What is the reason for vascular volume increasing by 40% to 60% during pregnancy? a. Prevents maternal and fetal dehydration b. Eliminates metabolic wastes of the mother c. Provides adequate perfusion of the placenta d. Compensates for decreased renal plasma flow The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Preventing maternal and fetal dehydration is not the primary reason for the [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. “It means the cervix is softening.” b. “That refers to a positive sign of pregnancy.” c. “It refers to the bluish color of the cervix in pregnancy.” d. “The doctor was able to flex the uterus against the cervix.” 12 Which is the gravida and para for a client who delivered triplets 2 years ago and is now pregnant again? a. 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 1 d. 1, 3 She has had two pregnancies (gravida 2); para refers to the outcome of the pregnancy rather than the number of infants from that pregnancy. She is pregnant now, so that would make her a gravida 2. She is para 1 because she had one pregnancy that progressed to the age of viability. 13 To relieve a leg cramp, what should the client be instructed to perform? a. Dorsiflex the foot. b. Apply a warm pack. c. Stretch and point the toe. d. Massage the affected muscle. 14 Which complaint made by a client at 35 weeks of gestation requires additional assessment? a. Abdominal pain b. Ankle edema in the afternoon c. Backache with prolonged standing d. Shortness of breath when climbing stairs Abdominal pain may indicate ectopic pregnancy (if early), worsening preeclampsia, or abruptio placentae. Ankle edema in the afternoon is a normal finding at this stage of the pregnancy. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Backaches while standing is a normal finding in the later stage of pregnancy. Shortness of breath is an expected finding at 35 weeks. 15 A pregnant woman is the mother of two children. Her first pregnancy ended in a stillbirth at 32 weeks of gestation, her second pregnancy with the birth of her daughter at 36 weeks, and her third pregnancy with the birth of her son at 41 weeks. Using the five-digit system to describe this woman’s current obstetric history, what should the nurse record? a. 4-1-2-0-2 b. 3-1-2-0-2 c. 4-2-1-0-1 d. 3-1-1-1-3 Gravida (the first number) is 4 because this woman is now pregnant and was pregnant three times before. Para (the next four numbers) represents the outcomes of the pregnancies and would be described as follows: • T: 1 = term birth at 41 weeks of gestation (son) • P: 2 = preterm birth at 32 weeks of gestation (stillbirth) and 36 weeks of gestation (daughter) • A: 0 = abortion; none • L: 2 = living children, her son and her daughter She is currently pregnant so she is a gravida 4. She had one term infant, two preterm infants, no abortion, and three living children. 16 Which laboratory result would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a client at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy? a. Rubella titer, 1:6 b. Platelets, 300,000/mm3 c. White blood cell count, 6000/mm3 d. Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, a viral infection that has the potential to cause teratogenic effects on fetal development. Arrangements should be made to administer the rubella vaccine after birth during the postpartum period because administration of rubella, a live vaccine, would be contraindicated during pregnancy. Women receiving the vaccine during the postpartum period should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for 3 months. The lab [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] values for WBCs, platelets, and hematocrit/hemoglobin are within the expected range for pregnant women. 17 A client in her third trimester of pregnancy is asking about safe travel. Which statement should the nurse give about safe travel during pregnancy? a. “Only travel by car during pregnancy.” b. “Avoid use of the seat belt during the third trimester.” c. “You can travel by plane until your 38th week of gestation.” d. “If you are traveling by car stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours.” Car travel is safe during normal pregnancies. Suggest that the woman stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours so she can empty her bladder. Walking also helps decrease the risk of thrombosis that is elevated during pregnancy. Seat belts should be worn throughout the pregnancy. Instruct the woman to fasten the seat belt snugly, with the lap belt under her abdomen and across her thighs and the shoulder belt in a diagonal position across her chest and above the bulge of her uterus. Travel by plane is generally safe up to 36 weeks if there are no complications of the pregnancy, so only travelling by car is an inaccurate statement. 18 The client has just learned she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick’s sign. When the client asks the nurse what this means, how should the nurse respond? a. “Chadwick’s sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood.” b. “That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy.” c. “This means that a mucous plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection.” d. “This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix.” Increasing levels of estrogen cause hyperemia (congestion with blood) of the cervix, resulting in the characteristic bluish purple color that extends to include the vagina and labia. This discoloration, referred to as Chadwick’s sign, is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy. Although [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] d. Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition. Providing factual information based on physiologic mechanisms is the best option. Although having the client write down her concerns is reasonable, the nurse should not refer this conversation to the physician but rather address the client’s specific concerns. Switching to a high-iron diet will not correct this condition. This physiologic pattern occurs during pregnancy as a result of hemodilution from excess blood volume. Iron medication is not indicated for correction of this condition. There is no need to contact the physician for a prescription. 24 Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy? a. Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases. b. Cardiac output increases during pregnancy. c. Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes. d. Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism. Cardiac output increases during pregnancy as a result of increased stroke volume and heart rate. Systemic vascular resistance decreases while blood pressure remains the same. Maternal blood pressure changes in response to client positioning. In response to increased metabolism, maternal vasodilation is seen during pregnancy. 25 A pregnant client complains that since she has been pregnant, her nose is always stuffed and she feels like she has a cold. Past medical history is negative for respiratory problems such as hay fever, sinusitis, or other allergies. What is the most likely cause for the client’s presentation? a. Increased effects of progesterone to maintain the pregnancy b. Effects of estrogen on the respiratory tract [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] c. Development of allergies as a result of pregnancy because of altered immunity d. Increase in fluid consumption during pregnancy leading to overhydration Increasing estrogen levels during pregnancy can affect the respiratory tract passages, leading to increased vascular responses that manifest as coldlike symptoms. Progesterone, as the hormone of pregnancy, maintains the pregnancy and does not have any direct effects on the maternal respiratory passages. Although it is possible for a client to develop allergies based on exposure to antigen triggers, it is not typically associated with pregnancy states. An increase in fluid may lead to potential edema, but it is not associated with coldlike symptoms. 26 A pregnant client complains of frequent heartburn. The client states that she has never had these symptoms before and wonders why this is occurring now. The best response that the nurse can provide is: a. examine her dietary intake pattern and tell her to avoid certain foods. b. tell her that this is a normal finding during early pregnancy and will resolve as she gets closer to term. c. explain to the client that physiologic changes caused by the pregnancy make her more likely to experience these types of symptoms. d. refer her to her health care provider for additional testing because this is an abnormal finding. The presentation of heartburn is a normal abnormal finding that can occur in pregnant woman because of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter as a result of the physiologic effects of pregnancy. Although foods may contribute to the heartburn, the client is asking why this presentation is occurring, so the nurse should address the cause first. It is independent of gestation. There is no need to refer to the physician at this time because this is a normal abnormal finding. There is no evidence of complications ensuing from this presentation. 27 Which physiologic event may lead to increased constipation during pregnancy? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Increased emptying time in the intestines b. Abdominal distention and bloating c. Decreased absorption of water d. Decreased motility in the intestines Decreased motility in the intestines leading to increased water absorption would cause constipation. Increased emptying time in the intestines leads to increased nutrient absorption. Abdominal distention and bloating are a result of increased emptying time in the intestines. Decreased absorption of water would not cause constipation. 28 Which physiologic findings are seen with respect to gallbladder function that might lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy? a. Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women b. Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution c. Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue d. Prolonged emptying time Prolonged emptying time is seen during pregnancy and may lead to the development of gallstones. In pregnancy, there is a twofold to fourfold time increase in alkaline phosphatase levels as compared with those in nonpregnant woman. During pregnancy, a decrease in albumin level and total protein are seen as a result of hemodilution. Gallbladder tissue becomes hypotonic during pregnancy. 29 Which of these findings would indicate a potential complication related to renal function during pregnancy? a. Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. Increase in serum creatinine level c. Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. Mild proteinuria [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] acceptable as long as the woman is not continually on her feet or exposed to environmental toxins and industrial hazards. 34 A client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition? a. Congenital anomalies b. Death before or after birth c. Neonatal hypoglycemia d. Neonatal withdrawal syndrome Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk for spontaneous abortion, low birth weight, abruptio placentae, placenta previa, preterm birth, perinatal mortality, and SIDS. Smoking does not appear to cause congenital anomalies, hypoglycemia, or withdrawal syndrome. 35 The patient reports that the first day of her last normal menstrual period was December 8. Using Nägele’s rule, what date will the nurse identify as the estimated date of birth? a. March 1 b. March 15 c. September 1 d. September 15 Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the EDD. This method involves subtracting 3 months from the date the LNMP began and adding 7 days. The incorrect responses add months instead of subtracting months and subtract days instead of adding days. 36 The client with an IUD has a positive pregnancy test. When planning care, the nurse will base decisions on which anticipated action? a. A therapeutic abortion will need to be scheduled because fetal damage is inevitable. b. Hormonal analyses will be done to determine the underlying cause of the false-positive test result. c. The IUD will need to be removed to avoid complications such as miscarriage or infection. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] d. The IUD will need to remain in place to avoid injuring the fetus. Pregnancy with an intrauterine device (IUD) in place is unusual but it can occur and cause complications such as spontaneous abortion and infection. A therapeutic abortion is not indicated unless infection occurs. 37 The health care provider reports that the primigravida’s fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus. Which priority question will the nurse include in the client’s assessment? a. “Have you noticed that it is easier for you to breathe now?” b. “Would you like to hear the baby’s heartbeat for the first time?” c. “Have you felt a fluttering sensation in your lower pelvic area yet?” d. “Have you recently developed any unusual cravings, such as for chalk or dirt?” Quickening is the first maternal sensation of fetal movement and is often described as a fluttering sensation. Quickening is detected at approximately 20 weeks in the primigravida and as early as 16 weeks in the multigravida. The fundus is at the umbilicus at 20 weeks’ gestation. Lightening is associated with descent of the fetal head into the maternal pelvis and is associated with improved lung expansion. Lightening occurs approximately 2 weeks before birth in the primipara. Fetal heart tones can be detected by Doppler as early as 9 to 12 weeks of gestation. Pica is the craving for non-nutritive substances such as chalk, dirt, clay, or sand. It can develop at any time during pregnancy. It can be associated with malnutrition and the health care provider should monitor the client’s hematocrit/hemoglobin, zinc, and iron levels. 38 A patient at 24 week’ gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is tired all the time. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “Everyone has chronic anemia at this time in pregnancy.” b. “I’ll make sure your health care provider is informed of your concern.” [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] c. “Your urine is clean of protein and sugar. You are doing well at this time.” d. “Make sure you are drinking enough fluid to keep up with the demands of your body.” The patient is experiencing classic signs of physiologic anemia, or an increase in the amount of plasma resulting in a dilution of circulating red blood cells (RBCs). Red blood cell production will continue to increase throughout pregnancy, with a resulting resolution in physiologic anemia. The health care provider will likely order a complete blood count to verify this. The anemia is physiologic and not chronic because there is no decrease in circulating RBCs. The absence of proteinuria and glucosuria is reassuring, but these findings are not correlated with fatigue. Adequate fluid volume intake is essential in pregnancy but is not responsible for the development of physiologic anemia or the corresponding fatigue. 39 A patient reports to the clinic nurse that she has not had a period in over 12 weeks, she is tired, and her breasts are sore all of the time. The patient’s urine test is positive for hCG. What is the best nursing action related to this information? a. Ask the patient if she has had any nausea or vomiting in the morning. b. Schedule the patient to be seen by a health care provider within the next 4 weeks. c. Send the patient to the maternity screening area of the clinic for a routine ultrasound. d. Determine if there are any factors that might prohibit her from seeking medical care. The patient has presumptive and probable indications of pregnancy. However, she has not sought out health care until late in the first or early in the second trimester. The nurse must assess for barriers to seeking health care, physical or emotional, because regular prenatal care is key to a positive pregnancy outcome. Asking if the patient has nausea or vomiting will only add to the list of presumptive signs of pregnancy, and this information will not add to the assessment data to determine whether the client is pregnant. The patient needs to see a health care provider before the next 4 weeks because she is late in seeking early prenatal care. Ultrasounds must be prescribed by a health care provider and ordering one is not in the nurse’s scope of practice. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Report watery vaginal discharge. b. Report puffiness of the face or around the eyes. c. Report any bloody show when you go into labor. d. Report visual disturbances, such as spots before the eyes. e. Report any dependent edema that occurs at the end of the day. Watery vaginal discharge could mean that the membranes have ruptured. Puffiness of the face or around the eyes and visual disturbances may indicate preeclampsia or eclampsia. These three signs should be reported. Bloody show as labor starts may mean the mucous plug has been expelled. One of the earliest signs of labor may be bloody show, which consists of the mucous plug and a small amount of blood. This is a normal occurrence. Up to 70% of women have dependent edema during pregnancy. This is not a sign of a pregnancy complication. 46 The nurse is planning care for a client in her first trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which interventions should the nurse plan to teach this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Suck on hard candy. b. Take prenatal vitamins in the morning. c. Try some herbal tea to relieve the nausea. d. Drink fluids frequently but separate from meals. e. Eat crackers or dry cereal before arising in the morning.. A client experiencing nausea and vomiting should be taught to suck on hard candy, drink fluids frequently but separately from meals, and eat crackers, dry toast, or dry cereal before arising in the morning. Prenatal vitamins should be taken at bedtime because they may increase nausea if taken in the morning. Before taking herbal tea, the client should check with her health care provider. 47 Which are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.) a. Quickening b. Amenorrhea c. Ballottement d. Goodell’s sign e. Chadwick’s sign Quickening, amenorrhea, and Chadwick’s sign are presumptive signs of pregnancy. Ballottement and Goodell’s sign are probable signs of pregnancy. 48 Which factors contribute to the presence of edema in the pregnant client? (Select all that apply.) [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Diet consisting of processed foods b. Hemoconcentration c. Increase in colloid osmotic pressure d. Last trimester of pregnancy e. Decreased venous return Processed foods, which are high in sodium content, can contribute to edema formation. As the pregnancy progresses, because of the weight of the uterus, compression takes place, leading to decreased venous return and an increase in edema formation. A decrease in colloid osmotic pressure would contribute to edema formation and fluid shifting. Hemodilution would also lead to edema formation. 49 When planning a diet with a pregnant client, what should the nurse’s first action be? a. Teach the client about MyPlate. b. Review the client’s current dietary intake. c. Instruct the client to limit the intake of fatty foods. d. Caution the client to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble. The first action should be to assess the client’s current dietary pattern and practices because instruction should be geared to what she already knows and does. Teaching the food guide MyPlate is important but not the first action when planning a diet with a pregnant client. Limiting intake of fatty foods is important in a pregnant client’s diet but not the first action. Cautioning about excessive fat-soluble vitamins is important but not the first action. 50 A nurse is teaching a nutrition class to a group of pregnant clients. The nurse should include that the major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of which? a. Fats b. Fiber c. Simple sugars d. Complex carbohydrates Complex carbohydrates supply the pregnant woman with vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Fats provide 9 calories in each gram, in contrast to carbohydrates and proteins, which provide only 4 calories in each gram. Fiber is supplied mainly by the complex carbohydrates. The most common simple carbohydrate is table sugar, which is a source of energy but does not provide any nutrients. 51 To increase the absorption of iron in a pregnant client, with what should an iron preparation be given? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Tea b. Milk c. Coffee d. Orange juice A vitamin C source may increase the absorption of iron. Tannin in the tea reduces the absorption of iron. The calcium and phosphorus in milk decrease iron absorption. Decreased intake of caffeine is recommended during pregnancy. 52When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin? a. Before pregnancy b. In the first trimester c. In the third trimester d. In the second trimester Vitamin supplements should be prescribed in the second trimester, when the need for iron is increased. Healthy young women do not usually need iron supplementation for their diets. Morning sickness in the first trimester increases the routine side effects of iron supplements. The iron supplements may continue to be prescribed in the third trimester and during the postpartum period. 53 What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a client who begins pregnancy at a normal weight? a. 10 to 15 lb b. 15 to 20 lb c. 20 to 25 lb d. 25 to 35 lb A weight gain of 25 to 35 lb is believed to reduce intrauterine growth restriction that may result from inadequate nutrition, and also allows for variations in individual needs. There is no precise weight gain appropriate for all women. A 10-lb weight gain is not sufficient to meet the needs of the pregnancy. A 15- to 20-lb weight gain is recommended for women who are overweight before the pregnancy. A 20- to 25-lb weight gain is recommended for women who are overweight before the pregnancy. 54A client in her fifth month of pregnancy asks the nurse, “How many more calories should I be eating daily?” What should the nurse’s response be? a. 180 more calories a day b. 340 more calories a day [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] the reason for monitoring the weight gain pattern. The pattern of weight gain is not affected by cultural influences. It is important to monitor the pattern of weight gain for the developing complications. 61 A pregnant client would like to know a good food source of calcium other than dairy products. Which is the best answer that the nurse should give? a. Legumes b. Lean meat c. Whole grains d. Yellow vegetables Although dairy products contain the greatest amount of calcium, it can also be found in legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and some dark green leafy vegetables. Lean meats are rich in protein and phosphorus. Whole grains are rich in zinc and magnesium. Yellow vegetables are rich in vitamin A. 62 To determine cultural influences on a client’s diet, what should the nurse do first? a. Evaluate the client’s weight gain during pregnancy. b. Assess the socioeconomic status of the client. c. Discuss the four food groups with the client. d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the client’s culture. Understanding the client’s food preferences and how she prepares food will assist the nurse in determining whether the client’s culture is adversely affecting her nutritional intake. Evaluating a client’s weight gain during pregnancy should be included for all clients, not just for those who are culturally different. The socioeconomic status of the clients may alter the nutritional intake, but not the cultural influence. Teaching the food groups to the client should come after assessing food preferences. 63 Which pregnant adolescent is most at risk for a nutritional deficit during pregnancy? a. A 16-year-old who is 10 lb overweight b. A 17-year-old who is 10 lb underweight c. A 15-year-old of normal height and weight d. A 16-year-old of normal height and weight The adolescent who is pregnant and underweight is most at risk because she is already deficient in nutrition and must now supply the nutritional intake for both herself and her fetus. An [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] overweight pregnant teen is at risk for deficiency but is not at the highest risk. Being underweight is the most risky because she is already deficient. A 15-year-old has special nutritional needs during pregnancy, but she is not at the highest risk for deficiency. A 16-year-old has special nutritional needs during pregnancy, but she is not at the highest risk for deficiency. 64 What should be the goal of a client with the nursing diagnosis “Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements” (related to diet choices inadequate to meet the nutrient requirements of pregnancy)? a. Gain a total of 30 lb. b. Decrease intake of snack foods. c. Take daily supplements consistently. d. Increase intake of complex carbohydrates. A weight gain of 30 lb is one indication that the client has gained a sufficient amount for the nutritional needs of pregnancy. Decreasing snack food may be the problem and should be assessed. However, assessing the weight gain is the best method of monitoring intake for this pregnancy. A daily supplement is not the best goal for this client. It does not meet the basic need of proper nutrition during pregnancy. Increasing the intake of complex carbohydrates is important for this client, but monitoring the weight gain should be the end goal. 65 A client who is in week 28 of gestation is concerned about her weight gain of 17 lb. Which is the nurse’s best response? a. “You should not gain any more weight until you reach the third trimester.” b. “You should try to decrease your amount of weight gain for the next 12 weeks.” c. “You have not gained enough weight for the number of weeks of your pregnancy.” d. “You have gained an appropriate amount for the number of weeks of your pregnancy.” A woman in her 28th week of gestation should have gained between 17 and 20 lb. The normal pattern of weight gain is about 3.5 lb total in the first trimester (by 13 weeks) and 1 lb per week after that. The client has gained the appropriate amount of weight. It would be inappropriate to have her decrease her weight gain. She has gained an appropriate amount of weight and should not increase the weight gain. Weight gain needs to be consistent during the last part of the pregnancy and should not be suppressed. 66 In teaching a pregnant adolescent about nutrition, what should the nurse plan to do? a. Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth and add 35 lb. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] b. Suggest that she not eat at fast food restaurants to avoid foods of poor nutritional value. c. Realize that most adolescents are unwilling to make dietary changes during pregnancy. d. Emphasize the need to eliminate common teen snack foods because they are too high in fat and sodium. Adolescents should gain in the upper range of the recommended weight gain. They also need to gain weight that would be expected for their own normal growth. Adolescents are willing to make changes; however, they still need to be like their peers. Eliminating fast foods will make her appear different from her peers. She should be taught to choose foods that add needed nutrients. Changes in the diet should be kept at a minimum and snacks should be included. Snack foods can be included in moderation and other foods added to make up for the lost nutrients 67 The traditional diet of Asian women includes little meat and few dairy products and may be low in calcium and iron. The nurse can help a client increase her intake of these foods by which action? a. Suggest that she eat more tofu, bok choy, and broccoli. b. Suggest that she eat more hot foods during pregnancy. c. Emphasize the need for increased milk intake during pregnancy. d. Tell her husband that she must increase her intake of fruits and vegetables for the baby’s sake. The diet should be improved by increasing foods acceptable to the woman. These foods are common in the Asian diet and are good sources of calcium and iron. Pregnancy is considered hot; therefore, the woman would eat cold foods. Because milk products are not part of this woman’s diet, it should be respected and other alternatives offered. Also, lactose intolerance is common. Fruits and vegetables are cold foods and should be included in the diet. In regard to the family dynamics, however, the husband does not dictate to the wife in this culture. 68 When planning a diet for a pregnant client, which nutritional interventions should be implemented? a. Fluids should be restricted to 6 glasses a day to minimize fluid retention and occurrence of edema. b. Protein in the diet should be increased to meet growth and development needs c. Nutrient density should be used only if there are problems with weight gain during the course of the pregnancy. d. Advise the client that the pattern of weight gain is not as important as the overall weight gained during the pregnancy. An increase in protein consumption is recommended as compared with prepregnancy diet [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] low-fat diet during pregnancy. BMI measurements indicate a BMI of 22.7. What would be the best nursing response to this client’s stated plan? a. Tell the client that as long as she maintains a varied diet with regard to the other nutrients, there should be no problems. b. Refer the client to a dietician for assistance in planning the low-fat diet. c. Advise the client that it is important to maintain the intake of essential fatty acids during pregnancy. d. Schedule the client for more frequent visits during the next few months to evaluate her weight pattern. t is important to teach the client that essential fatty acids are needed in the diet to assist fetal development (visual and cognitive). Dieting during pregnancy is not advised. Clients should maintain a regular diet that has a varied intake of nutrient sources. There is no need for referral at this time because dieting is not recommended during pregnancy. The client’s BMI indicates that she is within the normal weight range. There is no need to add additional appointments at this time. 75 A pregnant client arrives for her first prenatal visit at the clinic. She tells you that she has been taking an additional 400 mcg of folic acid prior to her pregnancy. Based on information obtained, she is at 8 weeks’ gestation. What recommendation would you give regarding folic acid supplementation? a. Have the client continue to take 400 mcg folic acid throughout her pregnancy. b. Tell the client that she no longer has to take additional folic acid because it will be included in her prenatal vitamins. c. Have the client increase her folic acid intake to 1000 mcg throughout the rest of her pregnancy. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] d. Schedule the client to go for an AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) test. Prenatal vitamins include adequate folic acid supplementation, so clients should not take additional supplementation as long they continue their prenatal vitamins. During pregnancy, the recommendation is to increase the folic acid intake to 600 mcg. 1000 mcg of folic acid would be an excessive dose. The AFP test should be done at 15 to 18 weeks’ gestation. This is not clinically indicated because the client is at 8 weeks’ gestation. 76 Which food selections would lead to enhanced iron absorption during pregnancy? a. Eating additional fiber and grains in the diet b. Drinking coffee with meals c. Drinking orange juice d. Including spinach in the diet two to three times a week which contains ascorbic acid, acts to enhance iron absorption. Foods that are high in fiber and grains contain phytates, which can decrease iron absorption. Coffee intake can affect iron binding and therefore decrease absorption. Spinach contains oxalates, which can interfere with iron absorption 77 Which client is most at risk for a low-birth-weight infant? a. 22-year-old, 60 inches tall, normal prepregnant weight b. 18-year-old, 64 inches tall, body mass index is <18.5 c. 30-year-old, 78 inches tall, prepregnant weight is 15 lb above the norm d. 35-year-old, 75 inches tall, total weight gain in previous pregnancies was 33 lb The client who has a low prepregnancy weight is associated with preterm labor and low- birth- weight infants. Women who are underweight should gain more during pregnancy to meet the needs of pregnancy as well as their own need to gain weight; clients who have a normal prepregnancy weight, who start pregnancy overweight, or who have a history of excessive weight gain in pregnancy are not at risk for low-birth-weight infants. 78 Changes in the diet of the pregnant client who has phenylketonuria would include: [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. adding foods high in vitamin C. b. eliminating drinks containing aspartame. c. restricting protein intake to <20 g a day. d. increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day. Use of aspartame by women with phenylketonuria can result in fetal brain damage because these women lack the enzyme to metabolize aspartame. Adding vitamin C, restricting protein, and increasing caloric intake are not necessary for the pregnant client with phenylketonuria. 79 When explaining the recommended weight gain to your client, the nurse’s teaching should include which statement? a. “All pregnant women need to gain a minimum of 25 to 35 pounds.” b. “The fetus, amniotic fluid, and placenta require 15 pounds of weight gain.” c. “Weigh gain in pregnancy is based on the client’s prepregnant body mass index.” d. “More weight should be gained in the first and second trimesters and less in the third.” Recommendations for weight gain in pregnancy are based on the woman’s prepregnancy weight for her height (body mass index). Depending on the prepregnant weight, recommendation for weight gain may be more or less than 25 to 35 pounds. The combination of the fetus, amniotic fluid, and placenta averages about 11 pounds in the client who has a normal BMI. Less weight should be gained in the first trimester, when the fetus needs fewer nutrients for growth, and more in the third trimester, when fetal growth is accelerated. 80 Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks’ gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy. a. 10 pounds b. 19 pounds c. 25 pounds d. 30 pounds The woman with a normal BMI before pregnancy will gain approximately 4.4 pounds during the first trimester and 1 pound per week during the second and third trimesters. At 28 weeks, normal weight gain would be 4 pounds during the first trimester and 15 pounds in the second trimester. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Protein sources include meat, poultry, fish, eggs, legumes (e.g., beans, peas, lentils), nuts, and soybean products such as tofu. Pregnant women need 6 to 6.5 oz of protein daily. Vitamin A can cause fetal anomalies of the bones, urinary tract, and central nervous system when taken in high doses. Pregnant women should avoid raw fish and foods such as cold deli salads and raw sprouts. Supplements do not generally contain protein and calories and may lack many necessary nutrients; therefore, they cannot serve as food substitutes. 86 For the pregnant client who is a vegan, what combination of foods will the nurse advise to meet the nutritional needs for all essential amino acids? a. Eggs and beans b. Fruits and vegetables c. Grains and legumes d. Vitamin and mineral supplements Combining incomplete plant proteins with other plant foods that have complementary amino acids allows intake of all essential amino acids. Dishes that contain grains (e.g., wheat, rice, corn) and legumes (e.g., garbanzo, navy, kidney, or pinto beans, peas, peanuts) are combinations that provide complete proteins. Eggs are not eaten by vegans. Fruits and vegetables alone will not provide the essential amino acids. Vitamin and mineral supplements do not provide amino acids. 87 A pregnant client has lactose intolerance. What recommendation will the nurse provide to best help the client meet dietary needs for calcium? a. Add foods such as nuts, dried fruit, and broccoli to the diet. b. Consume dairy products but take an over-the-counter anti-gas product. c. Increase the intake of dark leafy vegetables, such as spinach and chard. d. Use powdered milk instead of liquid forms of milk. Calcium is present in legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and broccoli, so these foods can be added to increase calcium intake. Although dark leafy vegetables contain calcium, they also contain oxalates that decrease the availability of calcium. Powdered milk contains lactase, just like the [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] nondehydrated varieties. Milk products can be avoided by those with lactose intolerance because adequate calcium may be obtained from food and supplements. 88 The nurse is reviewing the changes in nutrition related to pregnancy with a 17-year-old who is 12 weeks pregnant. They are specifically focusing on the dairy requirements. What is the nurse’s next action? a. Ask, “Do you like milk, yogurt and cheese?” b. Ask, “How many servings from the dairy group do you eat each day?” c. Tell her, “You need to add no less than 3 cups of dairy-based foods each day.” d. Inform her, “If you do not like to drink milk, you can eat a spinach salad every day” To individualize the patient’s teaching plan, the nurse must first assess the patient’s calcium intake. Then the nurse can modify the instructions for adequate calcium intake, based on the patient’s actual needs. Milk, yogurt, and cheese are calcium-rich foods but are inappropriate for the lactose-intolerant patient. The adolescent pregnant patient requires more daily calcium than the recommendation of 3 cups per day for the adult woman. Spinach is a source of calcium but it also contains oxalates, which decrease calcium availability. 89 The health care provider has recommended an iron supplement for the patient who is 20 weeks pregnant. The nurse is reviewing the recommendation with the patient. What fluid is best for the nurse to recommend when taking an iron supplement? a. 8 ounces of milk b. 8 ounces of water c. 4 ounces of orange juice d. 4 ounces of apple juice Iron absorption is enhanced when taken with a source of vitamin C. Calcium can block the absorption of vitamin C. Water and apple juice to not facilitate or block the absorption of iron. 90 The nurse is reviewing a list of foods high in folic acid with a patient who is considering becoming pregnant. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when the patient states she will include which list of foods in her diet? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Peaches, yogurt, and tofu b. Strawberries, milk, and tuna c. Asparagus, lemonade, and chicken breast d. Spinach, orange juice, and fortified bran flakes Prepregnant, the recommendation for folic acid is 800 mcg. Foods high in folic acid are dark green leafy vegetables, legumes (beans, peanuts), orange juice, asparagus, spinach, and fortified cereal and pasta. In the United States, folic acid is added to orange juice and wheat-based products. 91 A patient at 8 weeks’ gestation complains to the nurse, “I feel sick almost every morning. And I throw up at least two or three times a week.” What is the nurse’s best advice to the patient? a. “Do you like cheese?” b. “Try eating four meals a day instead of three meals a day.” c. “Try eating peanut butter on whole wheat bread right before going to bed.” d. “If you can eat enough throughout the day, you don’t have to worry about being sick.” Eating a bedtime protein snack helps maintain glucose levels throughout the night. Cheese is high in fat and can aggravate nausea. Small and frequent meals is the recommendation; four meals a day is not frequent enough. Consumption is not the patient’s stated concern—it is the nausea and vomiting. 92 The nurse is teaching a client taking prenatal vitamins how to avoid constipation. Which should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Advise taking a daily laxative for constipation. b. Recommend a diet high in fruits and vegetables. c. Encourage an increase in fluid consumption during the day. d. Increase the intake of whole grains and whole grain products. e. Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products, especially cheeses. Common sources of dietary fiber include fruits and vegetables (with skins when possible— apples, strawberries, pears, carrots, corn, potatoes with skins, and broccoli), whole grains, and [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] delayed if fetal well-being is an issue. Scores less than 4 would be investigated, and birth could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed. 97 Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Biophysical profile b. Multiple-marker screening c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), inhibin A, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The biophysical profile is used to evaluate fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none are concerned with chromosomal problems. The lecithin-to- sphingomyelin ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. The blood type and crossmatch will not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. 98 The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant client. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history? a. Maternal diabetes b. Weight gain of 25 lb c. Maternal age older than 30 d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth Diabetes is a risk factor in pregnancy because of possible impairment of placental perfusion. Excessive weight gain is an indication for testing. Normal weight gain is 25 to 35 lb. A maternal age older than 35 years is an indication for testing. Having had another infant weighing more than 4000 g is an indication for testing. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 99 When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound? a. First trimester b. Second trimester c. Third trimester d. No difference in accuracy among the trimesters Gestational age determination by ultrasonography is increasingly less accurate after the first trimester. Gestational age determination is best done in the first trimester. There is a difference in trimesters when doing a gestational age ultrasonography. 100 The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which? a. Hemophilia b. Sickle cell anemia c. A neural tube defect d. A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio An open neural tube allows a high level of AFP to seep into the amniotic fluid and enter the maternal serum. Hemophilia is a genetic defect and is best detected with chromosomal studies, such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic defect and is best detected with chromosomal studies such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. L/S ratios are determined with an amniocentesis and are usually done in the third trimester. 101 When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy? a. 4 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Fetal villus tissue can be obtained as early as 10 weeks of gestation and can be analyzed directly for chromosomal or genetic abnormalities. It is too early to be performed at 4 weeks. It is too early to be performed at 8 weeks. The test should be performed at 12 weeks, but it can be done as early as 10 weeks. 102 On which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing do parents usually place the most importance? a. Safety of the fetus b. Duration of the test c. Cost of the procedure d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure Although all these are considerations, parents are usually most concerned about the safety of the fetus. Parents are concerned about the duration, but it is not the greatest concern. The cost of the procedure is important to parents, especially those without third-party payers, but is not the greatest concern. Discomfort of the procedure is important, especially for the mother, but is not the greatest concern. 103 The nurse’s role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following? a. Advice to the couple b. Information about the tests c. Reassurance about fetal safety d. Assistance with decision making The nurse should provide the couple with all necessary information about a procedure so that the couple can make an informed decision. The nurse’s role is to inform, not to advise. Ensuring fetal safety is not possible with all the diagnostic tests. To offer this is to give false reassurance to the parents. The nurse can inform the couple about potential problems so they can make an informed decision. Decision making should always lie with the couple involved. The nurse should provide information so that the couple can make an informed decision. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Positive b. Negative c. Reactive d. Nonreactive The non–stress test (NST) is reactive (normal) when there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 bpm (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) in a 20-minute period. A positive result is not used with an NST. The contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with an NST. The CST uses negative as a result term. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. 110 What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)? a. Increase placental blood flow. b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns. c. Determine the degree of fetal activity. d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus. The CST involves recording the response of the fetal heart rate to stress induced by uterine contractions. The CST records the fetal response to stress. It does not increase placental blood flow. The NST looks at fetal heart accelerations with fetal movements. The NST and biophysical profiles look at fetal movements. 111 What does a score of 9 on a biophysical profile signify? a. Normal b. Abnormal c. Equivocal d. Nonreactive Five parameters of fetal activity—fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, gross fetal movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume—are used to determine the biophysical profile. The maximum score is 2 points for each parameter. A score falling between 8 and 10 is considered normal. A score of 4 or less is considered abnormal. Equivocal and nonreactive are not terms used to describe the results of a biophysical profile. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 112 Which response by the nurse is most appropriate to the statement, “This test isn’t my idea, but my husband insists?” a. “It’s your decision.” b. “Don’t worry. Everything will be fine.” c. “Why don’t you want to have this test?” d. “You’re concerned about having this test?” The nurse should clarify the statement and assist the client in exploring her feelings about the test. “It’s your decision” is a closed statement and does not encourage the woman to express her feelings. “Don’t worry” is false reassurance and does not deal with the concerns expressed by the woman. The woman may not be able to answer “why” questions. It may also make her defensive. 113 A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant client. The following assessments are noted: nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. What would be the correct interpretation of this test result? a. A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal. b. A score of 8 would indicate normal results. c. A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option. d. A score of 9 would indicate reassurance. The biophysical profile is used to assess fetal well-being. Five categories of assessment are used in this combination test: fetal monitoring NST, evaluation of FBMs, gross movements, fetal tone, and calculation of the amniotic fluid index (AFI). A maximum of 2 points is used if criteria are met successfully in each category; thus a score in the range of 8 to 10 indicates a normal or reassuring finding. A score of 6 provides equivocal results and further testing or observation is necessary. A score of 4 or less requires immediate intervention, and birth may be warranted. The provided assessments indicate a score of 8 as the only area that has not met the stated criteria in the NST. 114 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] In preparing a pregnant client for a non–stress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care? a. Have the client void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results. b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing. c. Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate. d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation. The nurse must adjust the tocotransducer to find the best location to pick up and record the fetal heart rate. Positioning the client for comfort during testing is a prime concern. Although a full bladder may affect client comfort, it will not interfere with testing results. NPO status is not required for an NST. Instead, a pregnant client should maintain her normal nutritional intake to provide energy to herself and the fetus. An infusion pump with oxytocin is required for a contraction stress test (CST). 115 The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary based on this test result? a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline result. b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client. c. Send the client out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are valid. d. Ask the client to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and then reassess the client. A positive CST test is an abnormal finding, and the physician should be notified so that birth options can be initiated. A positive CST indicates possible fetal compromise. Intervention should not be delayed by 1 week and results do not have to be trended. Because this is an abnormal result, there is no need to repeat the test. Sending the client out for a meal will delay treatment options and may interfere with possible birth interventions if anesthesia is needed. Fetal kick count assessment is not needed at this time and will further delay treatment interventions for this abnormal result, which indicates fetal compromise. 116 A pregnant client has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] An embryo can be seen about 5 to 6 weeks after the last menstrual period. At this time the crown- rump length (CRL) of the embryo is the most reliable measure of gestational age. Fetal viability is confirmed by observation of fetal heartbeat, which is visible when the CRL of the embryo is 5 mm. 122 The nurse is reviewing the procedure for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening with a patient at 16 weeks’ gestation. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she mentions that which fluid will be collected for the initial screening process? a. Urine b. Blood c. Saliva d. Amniotic Initial screening is completed with blood. AFP can be detected in amniotic fluid; however, that procedure is more costly and invasive. Procedures progress from least invasive to most invasive. 123 A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a non–stress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings? a. NST positive, nonreassuring b. NST negative, reassuring c. NST reactive, reassuring d. NST nonreactive, nonreassuring The presence of at least three accelerations of at least 15 beats, over at least 15 seconds, over a duration of at least 20 minutes, is considered reactive and reassuring. Nonreactive testing reveals no or fewer accelerations over the same or longer period. The NST test is not recorded as positive or negative. 124 Which clinical conditions are associated with increased levels of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)? (Select all that apply.) [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Down syndrome b. Molar pregnancy c. Twin gestation d. Incorrect gestational age assessment of a normal fetus—estimation is earlier in the pregnancy e. Threatened abortion Elevated APF levels are seen in multiple gestations, underestimation of fetal age, and threatened abortion. Decreased levels are seen in Down syndrome and a molar pregnancy. 125 Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. A 6-week-gestation client expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be necessary to determine which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Multifetal gestation b. Bicornuate uterus c. Presence and location of pregnancy d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Presence of ovarian cysts A bicornuate uterus, multifetal gestation, presence of ovarian cysts, and presence and location of pregnancy can be determined by transvaginal ultrasound in the first trimester of pregnancy. This procedure is also used for estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, identifying fetal abnormalities or chromosomal defects, and identifying the maternal abnormalities mentioned, as well as fibroids. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimesters. Conventional ultrasound would be used. 126 A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant asks the nurse to explain the vibroacoustic stimulator (VAS) test. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.) [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. The test is invasive. b. The test uses sound to elicit fetal movements. c. The test may confirm nonreactive non–stress test results. d. The test can only be performed if contractions are present. e. Vibroacoustic stimulation can be repeated at 1-minute intervals up to three times. Also referred to as VAS or acoustic stimulation, the vibroacoustic stimulator (similar to an electronic larynx) is applied to the maternal abdomen over the area of the fetal head. Vibration and sound are emitted for up to 3 seconds and may be repeated. A fetus near term responds by increasing the number of gross body movements, which can be easily seen and felt. The procedure can confirm reassuring NST findings and shorten the length of time necessary to obtain NST data. The test is noninvasive and contractions do not need to be present to perform the test. 127 The nurse is instructing a client on how to perform kick counts. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Use a clock or timer when performing kick counts. b. Your bladder should be full before performing kick counts. c. Notify your health care provider if you have not felt movement in 24 hours. d. Protocols can provide a structured timetable for concentrating on fetal movements. e. You should lie on your side, place your hands on the largest part of the abdomen, and concentrate on the number of movements felt. The nurse should instruct the client to lie on her side, place her hands on the largest part of her abdomen, and concentrate on fetal movements. She should use a clock or timer and record the number of movements felt during that time. Protocols are not essential but may give the client a more structured timetable for when to concentrate on fetal movements. The bladder does not need to be full for kick counts; it is better to have the client empty her bladder before beginning the assessment of fetal movements. Further evaluation is recommended if the client feels no movements in 12 hours; 24 hours is too long before notifying the health care provider. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] b. During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rate is the priority. c. Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions. d. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions. During uterine contractions, blood flow to the placenta temporarily stops, causing a relative increase in the mother’s blood volume, which in turn temporarily increases blood pressure and slows the pulse. Vital signs are altered by contractions but are considered accurate for a period of time. It is important to monitor the fetal response to contractions, but the question is concerned with the maternal vital signs. Maternal blood flow is increased during a contraction. 133 Uncontrolled maternal hyperventilation during labor results in: a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis. Rapid deep respirations cause the laboring woman to lose carbon dioxide through exhalation, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation does not cause respiratory acidosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis. 134 Which mechanism of labor occurs when the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part passes the pelvic inlet? a. Extension b. Engagement c. Internal rotation d. External rotation Engagement occurs when the presenting part fully enters the pelvic inlet. Extension occurs when the fetal head meets resistance from the tissues of the pelvic floor and the fetal neck stops under the symphysis. This causes the fetal head to extend. Internal rotation occurs when the fetus enters the pelvic inlet. The rotation allows the longest fetal head diameter to conform to the longest diameter of the maternal pelvis. External rotation occurs after the birth of the head. The head [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] then turns to the side so the shoulders can internally rotate and are positioned with their transverse diameter in the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic outlet. 135 The laboring client asks the nurse how the labor contractions work to dilate the cervix. The best response by the nurse is that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by: a. promoting blood flow to the cervix. b. contracting the lower uterine segment. c. enlarging the internal size of the uterus. d. pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac. Effective uterine contractions pull the cervix upward at the same time the fetus and amniotic sac are pushed downward. Blood flow decreases to the uterus during a contraction. The contractions are stronger at the fundus. The internal size becomes smaller with the contractions; this helps push the fetus down. 136 Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have: a. a higher hematocrit. b. increased leukocytes. c. increased blood volume. d. a lower fibrinogen level Women have a significant increase in blood volume during pregnancy. After birth, the additional circulating volume is no longer necessary. The hematocrit decreases with pregnancy because of the high fluid volume. Leukocyte levels increase during labor, but that is not the reason for the toleration of blood loss. Fibrinogen levels increase with pregnancy. 137 The nurse is assessing the duration of a client’s labor contractions. Which action does the nurse implement to assess the duration of labor contractions? a. Assess the strongest intensity of each contraction. b. Assess uterine relaxation between two contractions. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] c. Assess from the beginning to the end of each contraction. d. Assess from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next. Duration of labor contractions is the average length of contractions from beginning to end. Assessing the strongest intensity of each contraction assesses the strength or intensity of the contractions. Assessing uterine relaxation between two contractions is the interval of the contraction phase. Assessing from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next is the frequency of the contractions. 138 Which event is the best indicator of true labor? a. Bloody show b. Cervical dilation and effacement c. Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet d. Uterine contractions every 7 minutes The conclusive distinction between true and false labor is that contractions of true labor cause progressive change in the cervix. Bloody show can occur before true labor. Fetal descent can occur before true labor. False labor may have contractions that occur this frequently but is usually inconsistent 139 Which factor ensures that the smallest anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head enters the pelvis? a. Station b. Flexion c. Descent d. Engagement The anterior-posterior diameter of the head varies with how much it is flexed. In the most favorable situation, the head is fully flexed and the anterior-posterior diameter is the suboccipitobregmatic, averaging 9.5 cm. The station is the relationship of the fetal presenting part to the level of the ischial spine. Descent is the moving of the fetus through the birth canal. Engagement occurs when the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part has passed the pelvic outlet. 140 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] d. The decrement The acme is the peak or period of greatest strength during the middle of a contraction cycle. The interval is the period between the end of the contraction and the beginning of the next. The increment is the beginning of the contraction until it reaches the peak. The decrement occurs after the peak until the contraction ends 146 A client in labor presents with a breech presentation. The nurse understands that a breech presentation is associated with: a. more rapid labor. b. a high risk of infection. c. maternal perineal trauma. d. umbilical cord compression. The umbilical cord can compress between the fetal body and maternal pelvis when the body has been born but the head remains within the pelvis. Breech presentation is not associated with a more rapid labor. There is no higher risk of infection with a breech birth. There is no higher risk for perineal trauma with a breech birth. 147 The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is: a. total duration of labor. b. level of pain experienced. c. amount of cervical dilation. d. sequence of labor mechanisms. Multiparas usually labor more quickly than nulliparas, making the total duration of their labor shorter. The level of pain is individual to the woman, not the number of labors she has experienced. Cervical dilation is the same for all labors. The sequence of labor mechanisms is the same with all labors. 148 Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent? a. A full bladder b. Decreased peristalsis [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] c. Rupture of membranes d. Reduction in internal uterine size A full bladder may inhibit fetal descent because it occupies space in the pelvis needed by the fetal presenting part. Peristalsis does not influence fetal descent. Rupture of membranes will assist in the fetal descent. Contractions will reduce the internal uterine size to assist fetal descent. 149 Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a client who had delivered vaginally? a. Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process b. White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth c. Client complains of fingers tingling d. Client complains of thirst A client’s complaint of fingers tingling may represent respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation breathing patterns during labor. As such it requires intervention by the nurse to have the client slow breathing down and restore normal carbon dioxide levels. 150 Which clinical findings would be considered to be normal for a preterm fetus during the labor period? a. Baseline tachycardia b. Baseline bradycardia c. Fetal anemia d. Acidosis Because the nervous system is immature, it is expected that the preterm fetus will have a baseline tachycardia because of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Baseline bradycardia, fetal anemia, and acidosis would indicate abnormal findings and fetal compromise. 151 On admission to the labor and birth unit, a 38-year-old female, gravida 4, para 3, at term in early labor is found to have a transverse lie on vaginal examination. What is the priority intervention at this time? a. Perform a vaginal exam to denote progress. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] b. Notify the health care provider. c. Initiate parenteral therapy. d. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 8 L/min. A transverse lie is considered to be an abnormal presentation so the physician should be notified and the process of a C section as the birth method should be initiated. The information provided relative to transverse lie was found on vaginal exam. At this point, the priority is to prepare for a surgical birth because assessment data also indicate that the client is in early labor; thus, a vaginal birth is not imminent. Although initiating parenteral therapy will be required, it is not the priority at this time. Application of oxygen is not required because there is no evidence of fetal or maternal distress. 152 An assessment finding that would indicate to the nurse that cervical dilation and/or effacement has occurred is: a. onset of irregular contractions. b. cephalic presentation at 0 station. c. bloody mucus drainage from vagina. d. fetal heart tones (FHTs) present in the lower right quadrant. Cervical dilation and/or effacement results in loss of the mucous plug as well as rupture of small capillaries in the cervix; irregular contractions, cephalic presentation, and FHTs in the lower right quadrant do not indicate the onset of cervical ripening. 153 If a notation on the client’s health record states that the fetal position is LSP, this means that the: a. head is in the right posterior quadrant of the pelvis b. head is in the left anterior quadrant of the pelvis. c. buttocks are in the left posterior quadrant of the pelvis. d. buttocks are in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen LSP explains the position of the fetus in the maternal pelvis. L = left side of the pelvis, S = sacrum (fetus is in breech presentation), P = posterior quadrants of the pelvis. When the head is in the right posterior quadrant of the pelvis, the position is ROP. When the head is in the left [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] labor. Instructions for labor, although correct, do not address the patient’s statement of being able to breathe easier. Fetal movement continues throughout the final weeks of gestation. A decrease in fetal movement is a concerning sign and the health care provider must be notified. 159 The nurse assess a laboring patient’s contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 sections, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern? a. Stage 1, latent phase b. Stage 2, latent phase c. Stage 1, active phase d. Stage 2, active phase In the active phase of stage 1, contractions are about 2 to 5 minutes apart, with a duration of about 40 to 60 seconds and an intensity that ranges from moderate to strong. During the latent phase of stage 1, the interval between contractions shortens until contractions are about 5 minutes apart. Duration increases to 30 to 40 seconds by the end of the latent phase. During stage 2, latent phase, the woman is resting and preparing to push; she likely has not experienced the Ferguson reflex. She is actively bearing down during the active phase of the second stage. 160 A laboring patient states to the nurse, “I have to push!” What is the next nursing action? a. Contact the health care provider. b. Examine the patient’s cervix for dilation. c. Review with her how to bear down with contractions. d. Ask her partner to support her head with each push. When the cervix is completely dilated, the head can descend through the pelvis and stimulate the Ferguson, or pushing, reflex. Cervical dilation must first be confirmed because premature pushing efforts may result in cervical edema and corresponding delay in dilation. Once complete dilation has been confirmed, the nurse can notify the health care provider. Teaching positioning and pushing efforts is accomplished once complete dilation has been confirmed. 161 After birth of the placenta the patient states, “All of a sudden I feel very cold.” What is the best nursing action in response to this statement? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. Place a warm blanket over the patient. b. Place the baby on the patient’s abdomen. c. Tell the patient that chills are expected after birth. d. “What do you mean by your words ‘very cold’?” Many women are chilled after birth. The cause of this reaction is unknown but probably relates to the sudden decrease in effort, loss of the heat produced by the fetus, decrease in intraabdominal pressure, and fetal blood cells entering the maternal circulation. The chill lasts for about 20 minutes and subsides spontaneously. A warm blanket, hot drink, or soup may help relieve the chill and make the woman more comfortable. Placing the baby on her abdomen may result in transfer of heat and make her feel even colder. Reassurance is appropriate after the blanket is provided. Validation of an expected physical response to the birthing process results in a delay of care and is unnecessary. 162 A 28-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client who is at term calls the labor and birth unit stating that she thinks she is in labor. She states that she does have some vaginal discharge and feels wet but it is not bloody in nature. She relates a contraction pattern that is irregular, ranging from 5 to 7 minutes and lasting 30 seconds. What questions would be used during the process of phone triage by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask her if her if she thinks that her membranes have ruptured. b. Ask her if she has any evidence of bloody show. c. Have her keep monitoring her contraction pattern and call you back if they become more regular. d. Ask her when her she has her next scheduled visit with her health care provider. e. Tell her to come into the hospital for evaluation. The cornerstone of obstetric triage is reassurance of maternal-fetal well-being. Thus, in view of the assessment data that the client provided, the nurse should ascertain membrane status and ask the client to come in for evaluation. The client has already indicated that the vaginal discharge was not bloody in nature. Having the client continue to monitor at home would not provide assurance of maternal-fetal well- being. Asking the client about the next scheduled physician visit does not address current health concerns of impending labor. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 163 A client asks the nurse how she can tell if labor is real? What should the nurse give as an explanation? (Select all that apply.) a. In true labor, the cervix begins to dilate. b. In true labor, the contractions are felt in the abdomen and groin. c. In true labor, contractions often resemble menstrual cramps during early labor. d. In true labor, contractions are inconsistent in frequency, duration, and intensity in the early stages. e. In true labor your contractions tend to increase in frequency, duration, and intensity with walking. In true labor, the cervix begins to dilate, contractions often resemble menstrual cramps in the early stage, and labor contractions increase in frequency, duration, and intensity with walking. False labor contractions are felt in the abdomen and groin and the contractions are inconsistent in frequency, duration, and intensity. 164 The nurse who elects to practice in the area of obstetrics often hears discussion regarding the four Ps. What are the four Ps that interact during childbirth? (Select all that apply.) a. Powers b. Passage c. Position d. Passenger e. Psyche • Powers: The two powers of labor are uterine contractions and pushing efforts. During the first stage of labor, through full cervical dilation, uterine contractions are the primary force moving the fetus through the maternal pelvis. At some point after full dilation, the woman adds her voluntary pushing efforts to propel the fetus through the pelvis. • Passage: The passage for birth of the fetus consists of the maternal pelvis and its soft tissues. The bony pelvis is more important to the successful outcome of labor because bones and joints do not yield as readily to the forces of labor. • Passenger: This is the fetus plus the membranes and placenta. Fetal lie, attitude, presentation, and position are all factors that affect the fetus as passenger. • Psyche: [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 169 Which comfort measure should a nurse use to assist a laboring woman to relax? a. Recommend frequent position changes. b. Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes. c. Offer warm wet cloths to use on the client’s face and neck. d. Keep the room lights lit so the client and her coach can see everything. Frequent maternal position changes reduce the discomfort from constant pressure and promote fetal descent. A full bladder intensifies labor pain. The bladder should be emptied every 2 hours. Women in labor get hot and perspire. Cool cloths are much better. Soft indirect lighting is more soothing than irritating bright lights. 170 Which assessment finding could indicate hemorrhage in the postpartum patient? a. Elevated pulse rate b. Elevated blood pressure c. Firm fundus at the midline d. Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss. If the blood volume were diminishing, the blood pressure would decrease. A firm fundus indicates that the uterus is contracting and compressing the open blood vessels at the placental site. Saturation of one pad within the first hour is the maximum normal amount of lochial flow. Two pads within 4 hours is within normal limits. 171 Which is an essential part of nursing care for a laboring client? a. Helping the woman manage the pain b. Eliminating the pain associated with labor c. Feeling comfortable with the predictable nature of intrapartal care d. Sharing personal experiences regarding labor and birth to decrease her anxiety [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Helping a client manage the pain is an essential part of nursing care because pain is an expected part of normal labor and cannot be fully relieved. Labor pain cannot be fully relieved. The labor nurse should always be assessing for unpredictable occurrences. Decreasing anxiety is important, but managing pain is a top priority. 172 A client at 40 weeks’ gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences: a. fetal movement. b. irregular contractions for 1 hour. c. a trickle of fluid from the vagina. d. thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus. A trickle of fluid from the vagina may indicate rupture of the membranes, requiring evaluation for infection or cord compression. The lack of fetal movement needs further assessment. Irregular contractions are a sign of false labor and do not require further assessment. Bloody show may occur before the onset of true labor. It does not require professional assessment unless the bleeding is pronounced. 173 Which client at term should go to the hospital or birth center the soonest after labor begins? a. Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away b. Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away c. Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours d. Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours Multiparous women usually have shorter labors than do nulliparous women. The woman described in option D is multiparous with a history of rapid labors, increasing the likelihood that her infant might be born in uncontrolled circumstances. A gravida 2 would be expected to have a longer labor than the gravida in option C. The fact that she lives close to the hospital allows her to stay home for a longer period of time. A gravida 1 will be expected to have the longest labor. The gravida 2 would be expected to have a longer labor than the gravida 3, especially because her first labor was 16 hours. 174 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] A woman who is gravida 3, para 2, enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history b. fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman’s nearness to birth. c. last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires. d. identification of ruptured membranes, the woman’s gravida and para, and her support person. All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments, but the focus assessment has priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history are important nursing assessments but do not take priority if the birth is imminent. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires is an assessment that can occur later in the admission process, if time permits. Identification of ruptured membranes, the woman’s gravida and para, and her support person are assessments that can occur later in the admission process if time permits. 175 A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the client to be: a. discharged home with a sedative. b. admitted for extended observation. c. admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. d. discharged home to await the onset of true labor. The situation describes a client with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will probably not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. The client will probably be discharged, but there is no indication that a sedative is needed. These are all indications of false labor; there is no indication that further assessment or observations are indicated. These are all indications of false labor without fetal distress. There is no indication that a cesarean birth is indicated. 176 The nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate and determines a rate of 152 bpm. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. abnormal labor. b. a sign that she needs analgesia. c. normal and related to hyperventilation. d. common during the transition phase of labor. The transition phase of labor is often associated with an abrupt change in behavior, including increased anxiety and irritability. This change of behavior is an expected occurrence during the transition phase. If she is in the transitional phase of labor, analgesia may not be appropriate if the birth is near. Hyperventilation will produce signs of respiratory alkalosis. 182 At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant’s trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. The Apgar score for this infant is: a. 7. b. 8. c. 9. d. 10. The Apgar score is 9 because 1 point is deducted from the total score of 10 for the infant’s blue hands and feet. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infant’s hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infant’s hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1. The infant had 1 point deducted because of the blue color of the hands and feet. 183 If a woman’s fundus is soft 30 minutes after birth, the nurse’s first response should be to: a. massage the fundus. b. take the blood pressure. c. notify the physician or nurse-midwife. d. place the woman in Trendelenburg position. The nurse’s first response should be to massage the fundus to stimulate contraction of the uterus to compress open blood vessels at the placental site, limiting blood loss. The blood pressure is an [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] important assessment to determine the extent of blood loss but is not the top priority. Notification should occur after all nursing measures have been attempted with no favorable results. The Trendelenburg position is contraindicated for this woman at this point. This position would not allow for appropriate vaginal drainage of lochia. The lochia remaining in the uterus would clot and produce further bleeding. 184 The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to: a. reduce heat loss from evaporation. b. stimulate crying and lung expansion. c. increase blood supply to the hands and feet. d. remove maternal blood from the skin surface. Infants are wet with amniotic fluid and blood at birth, which accelerates evaporative heat loss. Rubbing the infant does stimulate crying but is not the main reason for drying the infant. The main purpose of drying the infant is to prevent heat loss. Drying the infant after birth does not remove all of the maternal blood. 185 The nurse notes that a client who has given birth 1 hour ago is touching her infant with her fingertips and talking to him softly in high-pitched tones. Based on this observation, which action should the nurse take? a. Request a social service consult for psychosocial support. b. Observe for other signs that the mother may not be accepting of the infant. c. Document this evidence of normal early maternal-infant attachment behavior. d. Determine whether the mother is too fatigued to interact normally with her infant. Normal early maternal-infant behaviors are tentative and include fingertip touch, eye contact, and using a high-pitched voice when talking to the infant. There is no indication at this point that a social service consult is necessary. The signs are of normal attachment behavior. These are signs of normal attachment behavior; no other assessment is necessary at this point. The mother may be fatigued but is interacting with the infant in an expected manner. 186 Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara client with no visible support person in attendance who has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] lasting 4 hours? a. Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process b. Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure c. Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions d. Anxiety related to imminent birth process A primipara is experiencing the birthing event for the first time and may experience anxiety because of fear of the unknown. It would be important to recognize this because the client is alone in the labor-birth room and will need additional support and reassurance. Although FVD may occur as a result of fluid loss, prospective management of labor clients includes the use of parenteral fluid therapy; the client should be monitored for FVD and, if symptoms warrant, receive intervention. Because the client has been in labor for 4 hours, this is not considered to be a prolonged labor pattern for a primipara client. Although the client may be tired, this nursing diagnosis would not be a priority unless there were other symptoms manifested. Because the client is entering the second stage of labor, she will be allowed to push with contractions. Thus, in terms of pain management, medication will not be administered at this time because of imminent birth. 187 Which of the following behaviors would be applicable to a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury in a client who is in labor? a. Length of second-stage labor is 2 hours. b. Client has received an epidural for pain control during the labor process. c. Client is using breathing techniques during contractions to maximize pain relief. d. Client is receiving parenteral fluids during the course of labor to maintain hydration. A client who has received medication during labor is at risk for injury as a result of altered sensorium, so this presentation is applicable to the diagnosis. A length of 2 hours for the second stage of labor is within the range of normal. Breathing techniques help maintain control over the labor process. Fluids administered during the labor process are used to prevent potential fluid volume deficit. 188 A gravida 1, para 0, 38 weeks’ gestation is in the transition phase of labor with SROM and is very anxious. Vaginal exam, 8 cm, 100% effaced, -1 station vertex presentation. She wants the [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 193 At 5 minutes after birth, the nurse assesses that the neonate’s heart rate is 96 bpm, respirations are spontaneous, with a strong cry, body posture is flexed with vigorous movement, reflexes are brisk, and there is cyanosis of the hands and feet. What Apgar score will the nurse assign? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 The neonate is assigned a score of 1 for heart rate and color and a score of 2 for respiratory effort, muscle tone, and reflex response, for a combined total of 8. 194 The gynecologist performs an amniotomy. What will the nurse’s role include immediately following the procedure? a. Assessing for ballottement b. Conducting a pH and/or fern test c. Labeling of specimens for chromosomal analysis d. Recording the character and amount of amniotic fluid An amniotomy is a procedure in which the amniotic sac is deliberately ruptured. It is important to note and record the character and amount of amniotic fluid following this procedure. Assessing for ballottement is not indicated. Conducting a pH or fern test is not needed because an amniotomy releases amniotic fluid. An amniocentesis, not an amniotomy, is used to collect a specimen for chromosomal analysis. 195 The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk of fetal complications? a. Bloody b. Clear with bits of vernix caseosa c. Green and thick d. Yellow and cloudy with foul odor [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix caseosa, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. The newborn may need extra respiratory suctioning at birth if the fluid is heavily stained with meconium. Cloudy, yellowish, strong-smelling, or foul-smelling fluid suggests infection. Bloody fluid may indicate partial placental separation. 196 The nurse assists the midwife during a vaginal examination of the client in labor. What does the nurse recognize as the primary reason that a vaginal exam is done at this time? a. To apply internal monitoring electrodes b. To assess for Goodell’s sign c. To determine cervical dilation and effacement d. To determine strength of contractions The primary purpose of a vaginal exam during labor is to determine cervical dilation and effacement and fetal descent. Goodell’s sign is assessed in early pregnancy, not during labor. Although application of monitoring electrodes is done by entering the vagina, it is not the primary purpose of a vaginal exam. Vaginal exams are not done to determine the strength of contractions. 197 A woman arrives to the labor and birth unit at term. She is greeted by a staff nurse and a nursing student. The student reviews the initial intake assessment with the staff nurse. Which action will the staff nurse have to correct? a. Obtain a fetal heart rate. b. Determine the estimated due date. c. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds. d. Ask the client when she last had something to eat. On admission to the labor and birth unit, a focused assessment is performed. This includes the following: names of mother and support person(s); name of her physician or nurse-midwife if she had prenatal care; number of pregnancies and prior births, including whether the birth was vaginal or cesarean; status of membranes; expected date of birth; problems during this or other pregnancies; allergies to medications, foods, or other substances; time and type of last oral intake; maternal vital signs and FHR; and pain—location, intensity, factors that intensify or [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] relieve, duration, whether constant or intermittent, and whether the pain is acceptable to the woman. Generally, women of childbearing years are healthy and auscultation of lung sounds can be delayed until the initial intake assessment has been completed. 198 The health care provider has asked the nurse to prepare for an amniotomy. What is the nurse’s priority action with this procedure? a. Perform Leopold’s maneuvers. b. Determine the color of the amniotic fluid. c. Assess the fetal heart rate immediately after the procedure. d. Prepare the patient for a change in her pain level after the procedure. An amniotomy is the artificial rupture of the membranes performed with an AmniHook inserted through the cervix. The FHR is assessed for at least 1 minute when the membranes rupture. The umbilical cord could be displaced in a large fluid gush, resulting in compression and interruption of blood flow through the cord. Leopold’s maneuvers should be performed before the amniotomy, which will give an indication of fetal position and station. Color of the fluid can indicate fetal status; however, circulatory assessment is the priority. If the patient is in active labor, a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid will result in increased intensity of contractions. There is no information in the stem to indicate that the patient is in labor. 199 The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient? a. 18-gauge b. 20-gauge c. 22-gauge d. 24-gauge The larger the number, the smaller the diameter of the cannula. The nurse should select the largest bore cannula possible. IV access is initiated for hydration prior to epidural placement and for use in an emergency. Both require the rapid administration of fluid, which is most easily accomplished with a large bore cannula [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] d. Bathe the newborn within 30 minutes of birth. e. Remove wet linen as needed. Following birth, the newborn is at risk for hypothermia. Therefore, nursing interventions are aimed at maintaining warmth. Drying the infant off, in addition to maintaining warmth, helps stimulate crying and lung expansion, which helps in the transition period following birth. Placing a cap on the infant’s head helps prevent heat loss. Removal of wet linens helps minimize further heat loss caused by exposure. Newborns should not be covered while in a radiant warmer with blankets because this will impede birth of heat transfer. Bathing a newborn should be delayed for at least a few hours so that the newborn temperature can stabilize during the transition period. 205 When taking care of a client in labor who is not considered to be at risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Check the DTR each shift. b. Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor. c. Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns. d. Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done. e. Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor. Nursing care of the normal laboring client would include monitoring and documentation of vital signs as part of the labor assessment, documentation the FHR, checking patterns to look for assurance of fetal well-being by evaluating baseline and the fetal response to contraction patterns, and noting any position changes on the monitor tracing to evaluate the fetal response. Providing dietary offerings during the course of labor is not part of the nursing care plan because the introduction of food may lead to nausea and vomiting in response to the labor process and might affect the mode of birth. 206 Which interventions are required following an amniotomy procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Notation related to amount of fluid expelled b. Color and consistency of fluid c. Fetal heart rate d. Maternal blood pressure e. Maternal heart rate [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] Following amniotomy (AROM), observation and documentation of the amount of fluid, color and consistency, and fetal heart rate should be done. Maternal assessments related to blood pressure and heart rate are not required. 207 The nurse is monitoring a client in the active stage of labor. Which conditions associated with fetal compromise should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.) a. Maternal hypotension b. Fetal heart rate of 140 to 150 bpm c. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid d. Maternal fever—38° C (100.4° F) or higher e. Complete uterine relaxation of more than 30 seconds between contractions Conditions associated with fetal compromise include maternal hypotension (may divert blood flow away from the placenta to ensure adequate perfusion of the maternal brain and heart), meconium- stained (greenish) amniotic fluid, and maternal fever (38° C [100.4° F] or higher). Fetal heart rate of 110 to 160 bpm for a term fetus is normal. Complete uterine relaxation is a normal finding. 208 The nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as a potential complication? (Select all that apply.) a. Soft boggy uterus b. Maternal temperature of 99° F c. High uterine fundus displaced to the right d. Intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics e. Half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth Assessment findings that may indicate a potential complication in the fourth stage include a soft boggy uterus, high uterine fundus displaced to the right, and intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics. The maternal temperature may be slightly elevated after birth because of the inflammation to tissues, and half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth is within expected amounts. 209 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] The nurse sees a pattern on the fetal monitor that looks similar to early decelerations, but the deceleration begins near the acme of the contraction and continues well beyond the end of the contraction. Which nursing action indicates the proper evaluation of this situation? a. This pattern reflects variable decelerations. No interventions are necessary at this time. b. Document this reassuring fetal heart rate pattern but decrease the rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid. c. Continue to monitor these early decelerations, which occur as the fetal head is compressed during a contraction. d. This deceleration pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, so the nurse acts quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply. A pattern similar to early decelerations, but the deceleration begins near the acme of the contraction and continues well beyond the end of the contraction, describes a late deceleration. Oxygen should be given via a snug face mask. Position the client on her left side to increase placental blood flow. Variable decelerations are caused by cord compression. A vaginal examination should be performed to identify this potential emergency. This is not a reassuring pattern, so the IV rate should be increased to increase the mother’s blood volume. These are late decelerations, not early; therefore, interventions are necessary. 210 Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. Fetus has known heart defect d. External monitors currently being used To apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm would permit the insertion of fetal scalp electrodes and an intrauterine catheter. A compromised fetus should be monitored with the most accurate monitoring devices. The external monitor can be discontinued after the internal ones are applied. 211 The nurse is instructing a nursing student on the application of fetal monitoring devices. Which method of assessing the fetal heart rate requires the use of a gel? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] The uterus may contract more firmly and the resting tone may be increased with oxytocin use. This response reduces the entrance of freshly oxygenated maternal blood into the intervillous spaces, depleting fetal oxygen reserves. Oxytocin affects the uterine muscles. Hypotension is not a common side effect of oxytocin. All laboring women are at risk for fluid volume deficit; oxytocin administration does not increase the risk. 217 The nurse is concerned that a client’s uterine activity is too intense and that her obesity is preventing accurate assessment of the actual intrauterine pressure. Based on this information, which action should the nurse take? a. Reposition the tocotransducer. b. Reposition the Doppler transducer. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider for a spiral electrode. d. Obtain an order from the health care provider for an intrauterine pressure catheter. An intrauterine pressure catheter can measure actual intrauterine pressure. The tocotransducer measures the uterine pressure externally; this would not be accurate with an obese client, even with repositioning. A Doppler auscultates the FHR. A scalp electrode (or spiral electrode) measures the fetal heart rate (FHR). 218 If the position of a fetus in a cephalic presentation is right occiput anterior, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate in which quadrant of the maternal abdomen? a. Right upper b. Left upper c. Right lower d. Left lower If the fetus is in a right occiput anterior position, the fetal spine will be on the mother’s right side. The best location to hear the fetal heart rate is through the fetal shoulder, which would be in the right lower quadrant. The right upper, left upper, and left lower areas are not the best locations for assessing the fetal heart rate in this case. 219 In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding? [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] a. The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation. b. The mother has a history of fast labors. c. The mother has been given an epidural block. d. The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor. The normal preterm fetus may have a baseline rate slightly higher than the term fetus because of an immature parasympathetic nervous system that does not yet exert a slowing effect on the fetal heart rate (FHR). Fast labors should not alter the FHR normally. Any change in the FHR with an epidural is not considered an expected outcome. Preeclampsia should not cause a normal elevation of the FHR. 220 When the deceleration pattern of the fetal heart rate mirrors the uterine contraction, which nursing action is indicated? a. Reposition the client. b. Apply a fetal scalp electrode. c. Record this reassuring pattern. d. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula. The periodic pattern described is early deceleration that is not associated with fetal compromise and requires no intervention. It is a reassuring pattern. Repositioning the client, applying a fetal scalp electrode, or administering oxygen would be interventions done for nonreassuring patterns. 221 When the mother’s membranes rupture during active labor, the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern? a. Early decelerations b. Variable decelerations c. Nonperiodic accelerations d. Increase in baseline variability When the membranes rupture, amniotic fluid may carry the umbilical cord to a position where it will be compressed between the maternal pelvis and the fetal presenting part, resulting in a variable deceleration pattern. Early declarations are considered reassuring; they are not a concern after rupture of membranes. Accelerations are considered reassuring; they are not a concern after [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] rupture of membranes. Increase in baseline variability is not an expected occurrence after the rupture of membranes. 222 In which situation would it be appropriate to obtain a fetal scalp blood sample to establish fetal well- being? a. The fetus has developed tachycardia related to maternal fever. b. The mother has vaginal bleeding, and the baseline fetal heart rate is decreasing. c. The fetal heart tracing on a preterm fetus shows decreased baseline variability. d. The fetal heart tracing shows a persistent pattern of late decelerations, with normal baseline variability. The tracing is nonreassuring, and additional assessment is needed regarding the acid-base status of the fetus. Fetal scalp blood sampling is contraindicated with vaginal bleeding, maternal fever, and a preterm fetus. 223 The fetal heart rate baseline increases 20 bpm after vibroacoustic stimulation. The best interpretation of this is that the fetus is showing: a. a worsening hypoxia. b. progressive acidosis. c. a reassuring response. d. parasympathetic stimulation The fetus with adequate reserve for the stress of labor will usually respond to vibroacoustic stimulation with a temporary increase in the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline. An increase in the FHR with stimulation does not indicate hypoxia. An increase in the FHR after stimulation is reassuring and does not indicate acidosis. An increase in the FHR after stimulation is a reassuring pattern and does not indicate problems with the parasympathetic nervous system. 224 When a nonreassuring pattern of the fetal heart rate is noted and the client is lying on her left side, which nursing action is indicated? a. Lower the head of the bed. b. Place a wedge under the left hip. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] b. Internal fetal monitoring c. Intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) d. Maternal comments based on perception IUPC is a clinical tool that provides an accurate assessment of uterine contraction strength. EFM provides evidence of contraction pattern and fetal heart rate but only estimates uterine contraction strength. Internal fetal monitoring provides direct evidence of fetal heart rate and contraction pattern. It only estimates uterine contraction strength. Maternal comments related to pain may not be related to uterine contraction strength and thus are influenced by the client’s own pain perception. 230 The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring client. What data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure? a. Presenting part not engaged b. +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) c. Breech position of fetus d. Twin gestation Amnioinfusion is a procedure used during labor when cord compression or the detection of gross meconium staining is found in the amniotic fluid. A saline solution is used as an irrigation method through the IUPC (intrauterine pressure catheter). 231 Which of the following is the priority intervention for a supine client whose monitor strip shows decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends? a. Increase IV infusion. b. Elevate lower extremities. c. Reposition to left side-lying position. d. Administer oxygen per face mask at 4 to 6 L/min. Decelerations that begin at the peak of the contractions and recover after the contractions end are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. When the client is in the supine position, the weight of the uterus partially occludes the vena cava and descending aorta, resulting in hypotension and [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] decreased placental perfusion. Increasing the IV infusion, elevating the lower extremities, and administering O2 will not be effective as long as the client is in a supine position. 232 Decelerations that mirror the contractions are present with each contraction on the monitor strip of a multipara who received epidural anesthesia 20 minutes ago. The nurse should: a. maintain the normal assessment routine. b. administer O2 at 8 to 10 L/min by face mask. c. increase the IV flow rate from 125 to 150 mL/hr. d. assess the maternal blood pressure for a systolic pressure below 100 mm Hg. Decelerations that mirror the contraction are early decelerations caused by fetal head compression. Early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise and require no intervention. Administering O2, increasing the IV flow rate, and assessing for hypotension are not necessary in early decelerations. 233 To clarify the fetal condition when baseline variability is absent, the nurse should first: a. monitor fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry. b. notify the physician so that a fetal scalp blood sample can be obtained. c. apply pressure to the fetal scalp with a glove finger using a circular motion. d. increase the rate of nonadditive IV fluid to expand the mother’s blood volume. Fetal scalp stimulation helps identify whether the fetus responds to gentle massage. An acceleration in response to the massage suggests that the fetus is in normal oxygen and acid-base balance. Monitoring fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry is no longer available in the United States. Obtaining a fetal scalp blood sample is invasive and the results are not immediately available. Increasing the rate of nonadditive IV fluid would not clarify the fetal condition. 234 Which client is a candidate for internal monitoring with an intrauterine pressure catheter? a. Obese client whose contractions are 3 to 6 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 50 seconds b. Gravida 1, para 0, whose contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] c. Multigravida whose contractions are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 to 70 seconds d. Gravida 2, para 1, in latent phase whose contractions are irregular and mild A thick layer of abdominal fat absorbs energy from uterine contractions, reducing their apparent intensity on the monitor strip. Contraction patterns of 2 to 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds and every 2 minutes lasting 60 to 70 seconds indicate accurate measurement of uterine activity. Irregular and mild contractions are common in the latent phase. 235 Which client has the priority need for fetal monitoring? a. Primigravida at 38 weeks with spontaneous ROM b. Multigravida at 40 weeks with history of 10-hour labors c. Multigravida admitted for repeat elective cesarean section d. Primigravida at 39 weeks with meconium-stained amniotic fluid Meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicates a potential risk factor during labor. Primigravida at 38 weeks with spontaneous ROM, multigravida with a history of 10-hour labors, and multigravida admitted for repeat elective cesarean section do not have potential maternal or fetal risk factors. 236 Which of the following is the priority intervention for the client in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction? a. Administer O2 at 8 to 10 L/min. b. Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hr. c. Reposition the ultrasound transducer. d. Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse. A deceleration that returns to baseline after the end of the contraction is a late deceleration caused by placental perfusion problems. Administering oxygen will increase the client’s blood oxygen saturation, making more oxygen available to the fetus. Decreasing the IV rate, repositioning the ultrasound transducer, and performing a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse are not effective interventions to improve fetal oxygenation. 237 [Type here] [Type here] [Type here]