NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest updat, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest updat and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Hypodipsia in elderly Ch 8 p. 146-147 1. Recognizing the prevalence and incidence of dehydration among older adults, a care aide at a long-term care facility is in the habit of encouraging residents to drink even though they may not feel thirsty at the time. Which of the following facts underlies the care aide's advice? A)Older adults often experience a decrease in the sensation of thirst, even when serum sodium levels are high. B)The metabolic needs for both fluid and sodium in older adults differ from those of younger individuals. C)Regulation and maintenance of effective circulating volume by the kidneys is less effective in the elderly. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ D)The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS) is less able to facilitate sodium clearance in older adults. Ans: A Feedback: The elderly are prone to hypodipsia even when osmolality and serum sodium levels are elevated, a fact that is compounded by sensory and/or neurological deficits. Hypodipsia in the elderly is not related to differing metabolic needs, ineffective kidney function, or compromise of the RAAS. 2.Indicators of fluid volume overload. p. 150 A client is brought to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath. Assessment reveals a full, bounding pulse, severe edema, and audible crackles in lower lung fields bilaterally. What is the client's most likely diagnosis? A)Hyponatremia B)Fluid volume excess NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ the urine (promoting the development of kidney stones) and is evident in the plasma. In primary hyperparathyroidism, antibody binding assays of intact PTH would reveal either normal or elevated parathyroid hormone in the face of hypercalcemia, whereas in hypercalcemia of malignancy, levels of intact PTH are suppressed. Metabolic alkalosis is manifested ..pg 183-184 Tutoring info: increase PH, increase bicarbonate and increase carbon dioxide levels. Role of neutrophils in inflammation Ch 9 pg. 192 A patient presented to the emergency department of the hospital with a swollen, reddened, painful leg wound and has been diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) cellulitis. The patient's physician has ordered a complete blood count and white cell differential. Which of the following blood NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ components would the physician most likely anticipate to be elevated? D) Neutrop hils Ans: D Feedbac k Increased neutrophils are associated with inflammation in general and bacterial infections in particular. Platelets play a role in inflammation, but their levels would not rise to the same extent as would neutrophils'. Eosinophils are not strongly associated with bacterial infection, and basophils would not increase to the same degree as neutrophils. Role of histamine Pg 198-199 A deficiency in which of the following would result in an inhibition of the inflammatory response? A) Histamine B) Helper T cells NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ C) B cells D) Vitamin K Ans: A Feedback: Histamine is a key mediator in the inflammatory system, unlike helper T cells, B cells, or vitamin K. Diabetic patients /wound healing p. 208 Diabetes have negative effects on patients Micro : retinopathy micro aneurysms in the back of the retina Macro: kidney nephropathy, renal insufficient impaired wound healing. Occurs due to vasoconstriction. Can lead to things like erectile dysfunction or impaired wound healing. Which of the following patients is most likely to have impairments to the wound- healing process? A patient with A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. B) a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and consequent impaired mobility. C) poorly controlled blood sugars with small blood vessel disease. D) congenital heart defects and anemia. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ A hospital client was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is present in his groin. The client has a normal core temperature and white blood cell count. This client is experiencing Ans: Colonization -Staphylococcus aureus commonly found in the skin, nares, and other body sites of patients without any signs and symptoms of infection is known as which of the following conditions listed below? A) An opportunistic infection B) A parasitic infestation C) Bacterial colonization D) A saprophytic infection Ans: C Feedback: NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ The ongoing presence of bacteria in the body that do not cause infection is called colonization. Opportunistic infection by ordinarily nonpathogenic organisms can occur in immunosuppressed hosts. Parasitism is a condition in which the organism exists at the expense of, and without benefiting, the host. Saprophytes do not cause infection. Viruses capability to cause diseases /ch 10 Prions p. 217 Note from tutoring: Viruses such as HPV can cause cancer NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Which of the following statements is an accurate descriptor of the role of viruses in human infections? A) Viruses have no genetic material of their own. B) Some viruses are capable of transforming normal host cells into malignant cells. C) Viruses are often implicated in cases of transmissible neurodegenerative diseases. D) Viruses require stimulation after a latent period before they are able to produce symptoms. Ans: B NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ A) Wiping down common areas with buffered bleach on a regular basis B) Wearing gloves when contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated C) Disposing of soiled clothing and bed linens in a dedicated receptacle D) Isolating patients who have antibiotic-resistant infections Ans: B Feedback: Wearing gloves specifically blocks the portal of entry to the health care worker through the use of a physical barrier. Bleaching and cleaning, as well as disposing of soiled linen, eliminate the source of infection by killing microorganisms, and isolating patients similarly addresses a source by minimizing contact with uninfected persons. Fomites/ role in infection transmission . P. 223 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ A clients arterial blood gases reveal normal oxygen level, pH 7.50, PCO2 level of 50 mmHg and HCO3 level of 30. The clients respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min and all other vital signs within normal range. What is this client's most likely diagnosis: ANS: Metabolica Alkalosis H. pylori ability to survive in the stomach p. 226 A patient diagnosed with H pylori asks the nurse, “How an infection can occur in the stomach since it is an acid environment?” The nurse responds, A) “We have many infectious agents that can live in an acidic environment with a pH more than 8.0.” B) “H. pylori is a virus and is still being researched as to how it is able to survive in the stomach acids.” C) “H. pylori produces an enzyme called urease that converts gastric juices into ammonia, which neutralizes the acidic stomach environment.” D) “This parasite secretes an enzyme called coagulase, which protects the pathogen from the antibodies.” NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Ans: C Feedback: H. pylori, the infectious cause of gastritis and gastric ulcers, produces the urease enzyme on the outer cell wall. The urease converts gastric urea into ammonia, thus neutralizing the acidic environment of the stomach and allowing the organism to survive in this hostile environment. Treatment: use 2 Antibiotics PPI Clostridium botulinum/bioterrorism category p. 232 The nurse in the emergency department knows that clients exposed to Clostridium botulinum, an agent of bioterrorism, would likely be exhibiting which of the following clinical manifestations listed below? A) Blindness and respiratory distress B) Hemorrhage from all orifices resulting in signs of shock and coma C) Frothy, odiferous diarrhea and dehydration D) Muscle weakness in extremities eventually leading to paralysis of respiratory muscles Ans: D Feedback: NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ lobe Ans: D Feedback: While intentional movement involves input from various components of the nervous system including the cerebellum, thalamus, and basal ganglia, primary control and coordination are controlled by the motor cortex in the frontal lobe. UMNs lesions vs LMNs lesions…p. 385 ch 15 A clinician is conducting an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function. Which of the following assessment findings would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion? A) The client has decreased deep tendon reflexes. B) The client displays increased muscle tone. C) The client's muscles appear atrophied. D) The client displays weakness in the distal portions of his limbs. Ans: B NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Feedback: UMNs typically produce increased muscle tone, while hyporeflexia, muscle atrophy, and weakness in the distal portion of limbs are more commonly indicative of LMN lesions. Botulism in infants /etiology of p. 389-390 The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis? A) “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?” B) “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?” C) “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?” D) “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?” Ans: A Feedback: Botulism in infants is frequently attributable to honey. Family history is not a relevant consideration given the bacterial etiology, and mold and NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ chemical cleaning products are not known to predispose to botulism toxicity. Cerebellar damage /…effects p. 395-398 A middle-aged woman is brought to the emergency room after a minor auto accident. Her gait is staggering and unsteady; her speech is slurred; and she displays slight nystagmus. The police officer who brought her in says she has not been drinking. Her blood pressure is very high. Which of the following health problems most likely underlies her present state? A) Multiple sclerosis B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Myasthenia crisis D) Cerebellar damage caused by a cerebrovascular accident Ans: D Feedback: Cerebellar damage can resemble the effects of alcohol, because alcohol affects the cerebellum. This woman has not been drinking, but her high blood pressure puts her at risk for cerebrovascular accident. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ A) BP 180/98 B) Skin covered with macular rash C) Pulse rate 49 D) Complains of a pounding headache E) Cold, cyanotic lower legs Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Autonomic dysreflexia represents an acute episode of exaggerated sympathetic reflex responses that occur in people with injuries at T6 and above, in which CNS control of spinal reflexes is lost. It is characterized by hypertension (BP 180/98), skin pallor, vagal slowing of the heart rate (pulse 49), and headache ranging from dull to severe and pounding. Administering meds to Parkinson patients/Nursing action p. 399 NOT SURE ABOUT QUESTIONS A client's recent diagnosis of Parkinson disease has prompted his care provider to promptly begin pharmacologic therapy. The drugs that are NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ selected will likely influence the client’s levels of Answer: Dopamine The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client's medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man's health problem? A) Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions B) Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways C) Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system D) Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons Ans: C Feedback: Antiparkinson drugs act by increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system. The cerebellar pathways, acetylcholine levels, and axonal degradation are not components of the etiology of Parkinson disease. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Subdural hematoma /epidural hematomas sites/effects of p. 424 Ch 16 Following a collision while mountain biking, the diagnostic workup of a 22-year-old male has indicated the presence of an acute subdural hematoma. Which of the following pathophysiological processes most likely underlies his diagnosis? A) Blood has accumulated between the man's dura and subarachnoid space. B) Vessels have burst between the client's skull and his dura. C) A traumatic lesion in the frontal or temporal lobe has resulted in increased ICP. D) Blood has displaced CSF in the ventricles as a consequence of his coup– contrecoup injury. Ans: A Feedback: A subdural hematoma develops in the area between the dura and the arachnoid space, while epidural hematomas exist between the skull and dura. Intracerebral hematomas are located most often in the frontal or temporal lobe, and the ventricles are not directly involved in a subdural hematoma. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Brainstem (pons) stroke effects of p. 319 ch 16 Which of the following clients' signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult A) has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days. B) has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech. C) has vomited and complained of a severe headache. D) states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady. Ans: A Feedback: A cardinal trait of the manifestations of stroke is that the onset is sudden, and a gradual onset of symptoms over 2 days would suggest an alternative etiology. Ataxia, slurred speech, and unilateral numbness are associated with stroke, with sudden vomiting and headache being particularly indicative of a hemorrhagic CVA. Corneal transplants..pt education p. 489 Ch 19 Which of the following preoperative teaching points related to corneal NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ transplantation is most justified? A) “You should know that there is a significant risk that your body will reject the transplant.” B) “The cornea is highly vascular, and therefore you will be at risk for hemorrhage.” C) “Your new cornea would come from someone who has recently died.” D) “You run a risk of developing a major inflammatory response post-op and will need frequent follow-up appointments.” Ans: C Feedback: Advances in ophthalmologic surgery permit corneal transplantation using a cadaver cornea. The low rejection rate is due to several factors: the cornea is avascular, which limits perfusion by immune elements; major histocompatibility complexes are virtually absent in the cornea; antigen- presenting cells are not present in great numbers; the cornea secretes immunosuppressive factors; and corneal cells secrete substances that protect against apoptosis, thereby minimizing inflammation. Attacks of increased intraocular pressure p. 492 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Anterior-posterior dimension of the eyeball p. 494 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Tympanic membrane normal/ anbormal. P 520 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding when the nurse practitioner uses an otoscope to look at a toddler's ear? The tympanic membrane is described as A) “transparent.” B) “a shallow, oval cone pointing inward toward apex.” C) “small, whitish cord seen traversing the middle ear from back to front.” D) “yellow, amber discoloration noted.” Ans: D Feedback: Otoscopic signs of middle ear effusion will be seen in the tympanic membrane as a yellow, amber discoloration. All of the other distracters are normal findings. Otosclerosis p. 521 Ch 20 A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with otosclerosis after several years of progressive hearing loss. What pathophysiological process has characterized her diagnosis? A) New spongy bone has been formed around her stapes and oval window. B) Her incus, malleus, and stapes have become disconnected from her normal neural pathways. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ C) Her temporal bone is experiencing unusually rapid resorption. D) Her tympanic cavity is becoming filled with bone due to inappropriate osteogenesis. Ans: A Feedback: Otosclerosis begins with resorption of bone in one or more foci. During active bone resorption, the bone structure appears spongy and softer than normal (i.e., osteospongiosis). The resorbed bone is replaced by an overgrowth of new, hard, sclerotic bone. Distortion of neural pathways, resorption of the temporal bone, and filling of the tympanic cavity do not occur with otosclerosis. hemolytic reactions/ signs of../nursing actions p. 577 ch 23 RBCs A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction? NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ : Feedback: An immediate hemolytic reaction usually is caused by ABO incompatibility. The signs include flushing of the face, urticaria (hives), headache, pain in the lumbar area, chills, fever, chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, and dyspnea. If any of these actions occur, the transfusion should be stopped immediately. Access to a vein should be maintained because it may be necessary to infuse IV solutions to ensure diuresis. Slowing the rate of the blood infusion will not correct this hemolytic reaction and will only worsen the patient's condition. Of course, documentation after the above interventions are performed is vital. Rechecking the blood type infusing will not stop the hemolytic reaction. After corrective actions/interventions are taken, the blood bag is returned to the blood bank for further testing. serum marker for systemic inflammation p. 641 ch 26 When a 55-year-old patient's routine blood work returns, the nurse notes that his C- reactive protein (CRP) is elevated. The patient asks what that NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ means. The nurse responds, A) “You must eat a lot of red meat since this means you have a lot of fat floating in your vessels.” B) “You are consuming high levels of folate, which works with the B vitamins and riboflavin to metabolize animal protein.” NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ C) “This means you have high levels of HDL to balance the LDL found in animal proteins.” D) “This means you have elevated serum markers for systemic inflammation that has been associated with vascular disease.” Ans: D Feedback: CRP is a serum marker for systemic inflammation. Elevated levels are associated with vascular disease. The normal metabolism of homocysteine requires adequate levels of folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and riboflavin. CRP is not associated with red meat consumption. LDL is an independent risk factor for the development of premature coronary heart disease. signs/symptoms of acute viral rhinosinusitis p. 782 Ch 30 Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? A) A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F B) A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ penile cancer p. 1098 Ch 43 Two nursing students are debating the merits and demerits of infant circumcision. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) “Circumcised men tend to have a lower incidence of penile cancer.” B) “Getting circumcised basically rules out the possibility of getting Peyronie disease later in life.” C) “Circumcision reduces pressure on the deep dorsal vein and the dorsal artery, making erection easier later in life.” D) “The odds of getting infant priapism fall with circumcision.” Ans: A Feedback: A correlation between circumcision and lower incidence of penile cancer has been noted. Circumcision is unlikely to affect the development of Peyronie disease or priapism, and is not noted to influence the ease of attaining or maintaining erection. HSV transmission p. 1162 Ch 46 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ 3. A 31-year-old male was diagnosed with genital herpes of the HSV-2 type 5 years ago. He is now broaching the subject with a woman he has recently formed a relationship with. Which of his statements is most accurate? A) “If you've been exposed to the herpes virus in the past, then there's no significant risk of reinfection.” B) “The worst case scenario is that you'll develop cold sores, since this is the type of herpes virus that I've got.” C) “If you've had cold sores when you were younger, it means that you've got antibodies against this type of herpes virus.” D) “Even when I'm not having a recurrence, I could still pass the virus on to you.” Ans: D Feedback: HSV transmission can occur both during and between recurrences. HSV-2 is associated more with genital herpes than cold sores, and cold sores do not provide antibody protection. Prior contact with the virus does not confer immunity. risk factors for the overgrowth of C. albicans p. 1165 SATA Which of the following factors are known to contribute to vaginal yeast infections? Select all that apply. A) Inflammation of the Skene and Bartholin glands. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ B) Poorly controlled diabetes C) Recent antibiotic therapy D) Excessive physical exercise E) Use of oral contraceptives F) High hormone levels during pregnancy Ans: B, C, E, F Feedback: Reported risk factors for the overgrowth of C. albicans include recent antibiotic therapy, which suppresses the normal protective bacterial flora; high hormone levels owing to pregnancy or the use of oral contraceptives, which cause an increase in vaginal glycogen stores; and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or HIV infection, because they compromise the immune system. Exercise and glandular inflammation are not noted risk factors for yeast infections. 20% potassium hydroxide/uses for p. 1165 A patient with a yeast infection asks the nurse how they diagnose this infection. The nurse will base her response knowing this is primarily diagnosed by NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ D) A 32-year-old woman who fell awkwardly on her arm while skiing Ans: B Feedback: A greenstick fracture is seen almost exclusively in children under age 10. Compartment syndrome. Assessment of p. 1199 Ch 48 A nurse is providing care for a client who has had a cast applied to her fractured arm 6 hours prior. The client is now complaining of severe pain that she describes as “even worse than when I broke my arm.” What would be the nurse's best course of action? A) Administration of analgesics and teaching the client about the normal course of pain after a fracture B) Teaching the client simple range of motion exercises to promote circulation and perfusion C) Taking the client's temperature due to the possibility of infection D) Assessment of motor and sensory function with the goal of identifying compartment syndrome Ans: D NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Feedback: Severe pain in the site of a fracture that is out of proportion to the original injury is a hallmark of compartment syndrome. Assessment of sensory and motor function would be an appropriate first action. Analgesia alone and exercises would be insufficient to diagnose or address compartment syndrome, and infection would be an unlikely etiology of sudden pain after cast application. SLE p. 1251 Ch 50 A physician is attempting a differential diagnosis of a 30-year-old female who is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following aspects of the physician's assessment and the client's history would be considered potentially indicative of SLE? Select all that apply. A) The client has a “butterfly rash” on her nose and cheeks. B) She complains of intermittent joint pain. C) The woman states that she has numerous environmental allergies. D) The client has been hospitalized twice in the past for pleural effusions. NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ E) Blood work indicates low red cells, white cells, and platelets. Ans: A, B, D, E Feedback: A butterfly rash, joint pain, pleural effusion, and low levels of blood cellular components are all associated with SLE. Environmental allergies are not noted to be risk factors or associated symptoms of the disease. A new patient arrives at the clinic. The physician is suspecting that the patient may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) given the clinical manifestations related to joint pain, skin changes, and a history of pleural effusions. The nurse should anticipate which of the following diagnostic test will be a priority to facilitate with the diagnosis? A) Anti-DNA antibody test B) Routine hemoglobin C) C-reactive protein D) B-cell lymphocytes Ans: A NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ transcription? Messenger RNA NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Phagocytosis.. Tissue Regeneration and Repair… NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ ROLES OF MACROPHAGES NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Genetic and Congenital Disorders/PKU require dietary.. / ch 5 Risk of ? electrolyte imbalance Ch 8. Diabetes Insipidus NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Manifestations of hypokalemia Ch 8 SATA Causes of hypoCalcemia..SATA NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Stages of..Infections Ch 10 Disease Course/mechanisms of Infections 222 Raynaud phenomenon p. 647 Ch 26 Disorders of Blood Flow and Blood Pressure NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ DVT clinical manifestations of..SATA Ch 26 NOT SURE ABOUT QUESTION NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ Ch 27 (triad of )Acute Pericarditis..all of it.SATA Clinical Manifestations (Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy Ch 27 p.681) NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ The Common Cold/transmission etc.. Ch 30 pg 780 Non–Small Cell Lung Cancers/prognosis and Tx Ch 30 795 NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ TX for Leukemia/ Allopurinol NOT SURE about this one NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+ signs and symptoms of pituitary adenomas Ch 41 p. 1048-1054 SATA NUR 3129 Patho Finals study guide Questions & answers 100 all answers correct latest update 2021/2022 rated A+