NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCES, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCES and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ *Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers* Module 1a – RX Authority QUIZ #1: 1. Which of the following components is/are legally required on a written prescription for a controlled substance, in order to be dispensed in NYS? (select all that apply) a. Indication of no refills b. Patient sex c. Patient address d. MDD 2. Which of the following statements does NOT coincide with the prescriptive authority of a NP in NYS? a. The ability for an NP to prescribe comes with licensure and does not require physician oversight b. Schedule II controlled substances must be prescribed under the collaborating physician’s DEA number c. NPs can prescribe all schedule classes for controlled substances d. NPs are required to have a written practice agreement or be approved to practice with a collaborative physician relationship 3. A patient comes to the clinic for their routine follow-up. Their controlled medications include: alprazolam, carisoprodol, pregabalin, & hydrocodone. The patient states he will be visiting family in another state and expresses the concern of running out before next month’s appointment. The record indicates compliance and no suspected abuse. Without ordering an excess of 30-day supply, a NYS prescriber can legally address this concern by: a. Carisoprodol: ordering the 30-day supply and up to 5 refills b. Pregabalin: ordering an emergency supply up to 30 days when needed c. Alprazolam: ordering the 30-day supply 1 refill d. Hydrocodone: ordering an emergency supply up to 10 days when needed 4. Which of the following scenarios does NOT describe a situation for which a NYS prescriber can issue a written prescription in place of e-scribing? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. The prescription is in response to a non-patient specific standing order b. The prescription will be dispensed at a pharmacy outside of NYS c. The prescription is for a patient who does not have a preferred pharmacy on file d. The prescription is for a medication that is commonly backordered as per current drug shortage 5. Which of the following statements is true in regards to the NYS Prescription Monitoring Program and I-Stop platform? a. I-Stop is a platform that is only valuable from a dispensing perspective NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ transmission, the provider realizes the software is down. To resolve such issues, a NYS prescriber can call-in or fax the order: a. Up to a 6-month supply, regardless of the medication b. Up to a 1-year supply, if the medication is a non-controlled substance c. For an emergency supply, regardless of the medication d. Up to 6-month supply, if the medication is a non-controlled substance 12. Simvastatin is generic medication used for hyperlipidemia. The drug is also available as brand, under the trade name Zocor. If the brand is desired the prescriber can/will order the drug: a. As “simvastatin”, but needs to indicate “DAW” b. Under any name, the pharmacy can fill the brand when requested by the patient c. As “Zocor”, indicating “DAW” is not necessary if the trade name is ordered d. None of these 13. Which of the following scenarios describes inappropriate prescribing when issuing a written prescription in NYS? a. A prescriber post-dates a prescription for a schedule CV medication b. A prescriber signs a prescription using an electronically generated signature c. A prescriber issues a single prescription listing multiple drugs to be compounded for topical administration d. A prescriber issues a prescription for a medication that is available OTC 14. A practitioner is issuing a prescription for clonazepam to a patient with established panic disorder. The patient states she will be traveling outside of the country and expresses the concern of running out before next month’s appointment. The record indicates compliance and no suspected abuse. A NYS prescriber can legally address this concern by a. Indicating “CODE E” and ordering up to a 90-day supply with no refills b. Indicating “CODE A” and ordering up to a 30-day supply with 3 refills c. Indicating “CODE A” and ordering up to a 90-day supply with no refills d. Indicating “CODE B” and ordering up to a 30-day supply with 3 refills 15. Which of the following actions by a practitioner addresses a potential issue when prescribing a controlled substance? a. Issuing a prescription for an anticholinergic medication to counteract constipation when also prescribing an opioid b. Instructing a patient with insomnia to use their medication nightly to prevent rebound NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Suggesting a parent considers “drug holidays” for a child prescribed ADHD medication d. Educating a patient to take ADHD medication immediately upon waking up before breakfast NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ Module 1 – Basics QUIZ #2: 1. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: a. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little, if any, desired action b. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only c. Bypass the hepatic circulation d. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms 2. Two different pain medications are given together for pain relief. The drug- drug interaction is: a. Additive b. Antagonistic c. Potentiative d. Synergistic 3. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: a. Chronic renal disease b. Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney c. Competition for a transport site by another drug d. Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins 4. A first-dose reaction may include: a. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use b. Contact dermatitis from neomycin use c. Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses d. Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use 5. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: a. Onset of action b. Minimum adverse effect level c. Peak of action d. Therapeutic range 6. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause: a. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs b. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ steady state: a. One hour after IV administration b. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug c. After the second dose d. After four to five half-lives 15. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: a. Age-related decrease in renal function b. The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect d. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution 16. The nurse practitioner (NP) chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s: a. Pharmacodynamics b. Safety and side effects c. Propensity to go to the target receptor d. Biological half-life 17. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: a. Duration of action of the drug is too long b. Time between doses must be shortened c. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects d. Concentration will produce an adverse response 18. Malignant hyperthermia after administration of anesthesia is an example of: a. A drug-drug reaction b. A genetic receptor abnormality c. A late-onset reaction d. A hypersensitivity reaction 19. Digoxin may cause a type A ADR due to: a. Being a carcinogen b. Its narrow therapeutic index c. Idiosyncratic effects d. Being a teratogen 20. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage is twice that of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: a. Is influenced by renal function b. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range c. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues d. Requires four to five half-lives to attain 21. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system is activated when: a. An adverse event or serious problem that is not already identified on the label occurs NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. A patient has a severe reaction that is noted in the “Severe Reaction” section on the medication label c. There is an adverse event to a vaccine d. A lactating woman takes a medication that is potentially toxic to the breastfeeding infant 22. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body may: a. Up-regulate the total number of receptors b. Block the receptor with a partial agonist NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 4. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to: a. Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen b. Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen c. Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment d. Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen 5. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have: a. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to an accumulation of prodrug b. Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure c. Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug d. To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation 6. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to: a. Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination b. Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine c. Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination d. Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine 7. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: a. Poor metabolizers, who lack a working enzyme b. Extensive metabolizers, with two normally functioning alleles c. All of the above d. Intermediate metabolizers, who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele 8. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may: a. Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure b. Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered c. Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and so must be monitored closely d. Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism 9. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: a. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ accumulation of prodrug b. Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs c. A need for increased dosages of medications d. Increased elimination of an active drug 10. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with a VKORC1 mutation, leading to: a. Toxic levels of warfarin building up b. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin c. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin d. Decreased response to warfarin NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ QUIZ #4: 1. To increase adherence in pediatric patients a prescription medication should: a. Have a short half-life b. Be the best testing of the effective drugs c. Be administered three or four times a day d. Be the least concentrated form of the medication 2. Sadie is a 90-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie? a. Decreased plasma proteins b. Increased volume of distribution c. Increased muscle-to-fat ratio d. Decreased lipid solubility 3. Topical mediation efficacy may be impacted by which common aging change? a. Increased ratio of water to fat in the skin b. Loss of vellus hair c. Dropping renal clearance d. Decreased peripheral vascular flow 4. A patient on seizure medication has become pregnant, the practitioner is aware this patient may need a/an dose because physiologic changes in pregnancy result in . a. Decreased, slowed hepatic metabolism b. Increased; accelerated renal excretion c. Decreased, slowed renal excretion d. Increased; accelerated hepatic metabolism 5. You are reviewing the data from several meta-analyses that addressed the most common causes of adverse drug reactions in the older adult. A decrease in which of the following is the most common cause of adverse drug reactions in older adults? a. Renal function/clearance b. Plasma albumin levels c. Liver function d. Body fat content 6. Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ be preferable in lactation? a. A patient using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for seasonal allergies b. A patient taking tetracycline for acne c. A patient taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for depression d. A patient using acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain 15. A patient who has just learned she is pregnant wants to stop using her asthma medication because she “does not want to harm the baby”. How should a practitioner appropriately address this concern? a. Explain that the baby’s health is dependent on the patient’s own health b. Assure the patient her medication cannot affect the fetus NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Instruct the patient to temporarily discontinue her medication, and resume in the 2nd trimester d. Instruct the patient to avoid the medication throughout pregnancy 16. Treatment for fever in a 5-month-old infant may include: a. Alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen b. Ibuprofen suppository c. “Baby” aspirin d. Acetaminophen suppository 17. The Pediatric Research Equity Act says that: a. All children must be given equal access to drug research trials b. Children of multiple ethnic groups must be included in pediatric drug trials c. Children must be included in the planning phase of new drug development. d. All applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies. 18. Topical corticosteroids are prescribed cautiously in young children because: a. Young children may accumulate corticosteroids, leading to toxic levels b. Of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression c. They may cause an intense hypersensitivity reaction d. Corticosteroids are less effective in young children 19. A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy expresses concern for taking a medication that was “recently reported in the news as being teratogenic”. What action is priority in order for the practitioner address this concern? a. Elicit from the patient when pregnancy began and when exposure occurred b. Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy c. Suggest the patient go for a single ultrasound to rule out complications d. Counsel the patient to anticipate functional and behavioral effects in the child 20. Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children? a. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months b. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing c. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed because of increased renal excretion d. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not 21. Robert is a 72-year-old patient who has hypertension and angina. He is at risk NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ for common medication practices seen in the elderly including: a. Changing his medication regimen without telling his provider b. All of the above c. Hoarding medications d. Use of another person’s medications 22. Which of the following drug classes is associated with significant differences in metabolism based on gender? a. Beta blockers b. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Infants who are HIV infected 4. Immune globulin serums: a. Are derived from pooled plasma of adults and contain specific antibodies in proportion to the donor population b. Are heated to above body temperature to kill most hepatitis, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and other viruses such as parvovirus c. Are contraindicated during pregnancy d. Provide active immunity against infectious disease 5. The reason that two measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: a. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too closely together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine b. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR c. Two vaccines one month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines d. The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose 6. Attenuated vaccines are also known as: a. Booster vaccines b. Inactivated vaccines c. Live vaccines d. Killed vaccines 7. If the measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) combined vaccine is ordered to be given as the first MMR and varicella dose to a child the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends: a. Patients should not be around pregnant women for the first 48 hours after the vaccine is given b. Patients must also receive MMRV as the second dose of MMR and varicella in order to build adequate immunity c. Parents be informed of the increased risk of fever and febrile seizures over the MMR plus varicella two-shot regimen d. Patients be premedicated with acetaminophen 15 minutes before the vaccine is given 8. Tuberculin purified protein derivative: a. Is administered to patients who are known tuberculin-positive reactors NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Should be administered two to three weeks after an MMR or varicella vaccine c. May be administered to patients who are on immunosuppressives d. May be administered the same day as the MMR and/or varicella vaccine 9. Pregnant women should receive the Tdap vaccine: a. Tdap is contraindicated in pregnancy b. In the third trimester of every pregnancy c. Once every 10 years d. In the first trimester 10. Who should receive a third dose of MMR vaccine: a. Pregnant women who are exposed to measles NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. People who have had two doses of MMR and are at risk during a mumps outbreak c. No one; a third dose is never recommended d. Children traveling internationally who have had two doses of MMR 11. A two-year-old child r4evently immigrated and has presented for immunization review. Their immunization record indicates they have received three doses of bivalent oral polio (bOPV). What polio vaccine(s) does the child need? a. Three doses of inactivated poliovirus (IPV) b. One dose of trivalent oral polio virus (tOPV) c. One dose of IPV after four years of age d. None, they are fully vaccinated for polio as recommended 12. Zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is: a. Administered at the same time as other live vaccines, as long as they are given the same day b. Effective in preventing varicella zoster in patients of all ages c. Recommended for patients age 40 to 80 who have had chickenpox d. A live varicella zoster vaccine from the same strain used to develop the varicella vaccine 13. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine (Gardasil): a. Should not be given to males younger than age 12 years b. Is a live virus vaccine that provides immunity to six strains of HPV virus c. Has a common adverse effect of syncope within 15 minutes of giving the vaccine d. May be given to pregnant women 14. Immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to: a. Infants born to women who are Rh positive b. Rh-negative women at 36 weeks gestation c. Sexual partners of Rh-positive women d. Rh-negative women after a birth, miscarriage, or abortion 15. The MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because: a. There is a risk of pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy b. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome c. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine d. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine 16. Meningococcal B vaccine is administered to: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 3. A patient is having hip replacement surgery and would like to self-donate blood for the surgery. In addition to being prescribed epogen alfa he should also be prescribed: a. Iron, to start when the epogen starts b. An antihypertensive to counter the adverse effects of epogen c. Vitamin B12 to prevent pernicious anemia d. Folic acid to prevent megaloblastic anemia 4. A patient has been prescribed aspirin 320 mg per day for their atrial fibrillation. They also take aspirin four or more times a day for arthritis pain. What are the symptoms of aspirin toxicity for which they would need to be evaluated? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. Photosensitivity b. Tinnitus c. Diarrhea d. Hearing loss 5. Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes: a. Take the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach b. Double the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels c. Antacids such as Tums may help an upset stomach cause by iron therapy d. Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice 6. When writing a prescription for warfarin it is common to write on the prescription. a. “Refills for 1 year” b. The brand name of warfarin and “do not substitute” c. “OK to substitute for generic” d. “PRN refills” 7. Patients who are beginning therapy with vitamin B12 need to be monitored for: a. Thrombocytopenia that may occur at any time in therapy b. Leukopenia that occurs at one to three weeks of therapy c. Hypertensive crisis that may occur in the first 36 hours d. Hypokalemia that occurs in the first 48 hours 8. A patient is taking warfarin and is asking about what they can take for minor aches and pains. The best recommendation is: a. Ibuprofen 400 mg three times a day b. Prescription acetaminophen with codeine c. Aspirin 640 mg three times a day d. Acetaminophen, not to exceed 4 grams per day 9. Monitoring for a patient prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes: a. Hemoglobin level at one week of therapy b. Reticulocyte count one week after therapy is started c. Complete blood count every two weeks throughout therapy d. INR weekly throughout therapy 10. The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is: a. Aspirin, 325 mg daily b. Low-molecular-weight heparin NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Warfarin, tapered monthly d. Direct factor Xa inhibitor 11. A 51-year-old male has been told by his PCP to take an aspirin a day. Why would this be recommended? a. Aspirin has antiplatelet activity and prevents clots that cause strokes b. He has arthritis and this will help with the inflammation and pain c. He has a history of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, and one aspirin a day is a safe dosage d. Aspirin acidifies the urine and he needs this for prostate health NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. Folic acid b. Epogen alfa c. Iron d. Vitamin B12 19. Patient education when prescribing clopidogrel includes: a. Monitor urine output closely and contact the provider if it decreases b. Clopidogrel can be constipating; use a stool softener if needed c. The patient will need regular anticoagulant studies while on clopidogrel d. Do not take any herbal products without first discussing this with the provider 20. The average starting dose of warfarin is 5 mg daily. Higher doses of 7.5 mg daily should be considered in which patients? a. Elderly men b. Overweight or obese patients c. Patients with multiple comorbidities d. Pregnant women QUIZ #7: 1. Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia includes: a. Reticulocyte count four weeks after treatment is started b. Complete blood count every four weeks throughout treatment c. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin four weeks after treatment is started d. Annual complete blood count 2. A 15-month-old male has a screening hemoglobin of 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for anemia in toddlers is: a. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation b. 325 mg ferrous sulfate TID c. 6 mg/kg per day of elemental iron d. 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day 3. Anemia due to chronic renal failure is treated with: a. Hydroxyurea b. Ferrous sulfate c. Vitamin B12 d. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) 4. Patients who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ of: a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin at one week and then at eight weeks b. Reticulocyte count at one week c. Folate levels every four weeks until hemoglobin stabilizes d. Complete blood count every four weeks 5. The treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency is: a. 2 g per day of oral cobalamin b. 1000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin c. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week d. Vitamin B12 100 mcg/day IM NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 6. A patient has just had her pregnancy confirmed and is asking about how to ensure a healthy baby. What is the folic acid requirement during pregnancy? a. 40 mcg/day b. 600 mcg/day c. 200 mcg/day d. 2 g/day 7. Breastfed infants should receive iron supplementation of: a. 3 mg/kg per day b. 1 mg/kg per day c. Breastfed babies do not need iron supplementation d. 6 mg/kg per day 8. Premature infants require iron supplementation with: a. 7 mg/day in their diet b. 1 mg/kg per day until they are receiving adequate intake of iron from foods c. 10 mg/day of iron d. 2 mg/kg per day until age 12 months 9. What should be monitored when vitamin B12 therapy is started? a. Serum potassium b. Ferritin c. Serum calcium d. C-reactive protein 10. The dosage of vitamin B12 to initially treat pernicious anemia is: a. Vitamin B12 1000 mcg IM weekly for one month, then 1000 mcg IM monthly b. Nasal cyanocobalamin 1 g spray in each nostril daily for one week then weekly for one month c. Oral cobalamin 1000 mcg daily d. Vitamin B12 IM monthly 11. Pernicious anemia is treated with: a. Thiamine supplements b. Iron c. Folic acid supplements d. Vitamin B12 12. An adult female presents to the clinic with menorrhagia. Her hemoglobin is 10.2 and her ferritin is 15 ng/mL. initial treatment for her anemia is: a. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. Liver function tests with the drug dosage stopped for alanine aminotransferase values twice that of normal b. Serum glucose levels with the drug dosage increased for levels greater than 120 mg/dL c. White blood cell counts with the drug dosage increased for elevations above 10,000 feet d. Serum creatinine levels with the drug dosage reduced for values greater than 2.5 mg/dL NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 5. Rodrigo has been pre4scribed procainamide after myocardial infarction. He is monitored for dyspnea, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema because they may indicate: a. An electrolyte imbalance involving potassium b. Onset of congestive heart failure c. Renal dysfunction d. Widening of the area of infarction 6. How is diabetic renal protection affected by ACE medications? Diabetes mellitus patients: a. Who have early renal dysfunction will see it reverse when on ACE medications b. Have a reduced rate of renal progression, but ACE medications still need to be discontinued when advanced renal issues are present c. Who start these medications never progress to renal nephropathy d. Without renal issues are the only ones who benefit from ACE protection 7. ACE inhibitors are useful in a variety of disorders. Which of the following statements is true about both their usefulness in a particular disorder and the reason for their use? a. They are useful to prevent stable angina because they decrease the thickening of vascular walls due to decreased modified release b. They are useful to prevent heart failure because they reduce remodeling of injured myocardial tissues c. Both 1 and 2 are true d. Neither 1 nor 2 are true 8. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can be life threatening. Patients at highest risk for serious consequences of rapid withdrawal are those with: a. Angina b. Coronary artery disease c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 9. Richard is 70 years old and has a history of cardiac dysrhythmias. He has been prescribed nadolol. You do his annual laboratory work and find a CrCl of 25 mL/min. what action should you take related to his nadolol? a. Take no action because this value is expected in an older adult b. Decrease the dos by 75% c. Extend the dosage interval NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Schedule a serum creatinine level to validate the CrCl value 10. What formulation of nitrate is appropriate for acute anginal pain? a. Oral extended release b. Ointment c. Transdermal d. Sublingual 11. Direct renin inhibitors have the following properties. They: a. Are primarily generic drugs b. Can be used with ACE and ARB medications for stronger impact NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 19. Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it: a. Lowers supine blood pressure more than standing pressure b. Decreases detrusor muscle contractility c. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck d. Increases peripheral vasoconstriction 20. The NP orders a thyroid panel for a patient on amiodarone. The patient tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test has been ordered. Which is a correct response? a. Amiodarone is a broad spectrum drug with many adverse effects. Many different tests need to be done before it is given. b. Amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism c. Amiodarone damages the thyroid gland and can result in inflammation of that gland, causing hyperthyroidism d. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits in up to 25% of patients 21. To prevent life-threatening events resulting from rapid withdrawal of a beta blocker: a. The dosage should be decreased by one-half every four days b. An alpha blocker should be added to the treatment regimen before withdrawal c. The dosage should be tapered over a period of weeks d. The dosage interval should be increased by one hour each day 22. John has been prescribed clonidine, a centrally acting adrenergic blocker, for his hypertension. He should: a. Reduce fluid intake to less than 2 L per day to prevent fluid retention b. Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension c. Avoid sitting for long periods, as this can lead to deep vein thrombosis d. Increase fiber in his diet to treat any diarrhea that may occur 23. Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily b. Use sunscreen on exposed body surfaces c. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy d. Notify your health-care provider immediately if you have change in vision NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 24. Patient teaching related to amlodipine includes: a. Rise slowly from a supine position to reduce orthostatic hypotension b. Do not crush the tablet; it must be given in liquid form if the patient has trouble swallowing it. c. Increase calcium intake to prevent osteoporosis from a calcium blockade d. Avoid grapefruit juice as it affects metabolism of this drug 25. While taking an ARB, patients need to avoid certain over-the-counter drugs without first consulting the provider because: a. Potassium supplements may increase the risk for hyperkalemia b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs reduce prostaglandin levels NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 26. Serum digoxin levels are monitored for potential toxicity. Monitoring should occur: a. Within six hours of the last dose b. Because a reference point is needed to adjust dosage c. When a patient has stable renal function d. After three half-lives from the starting of the drug 27. Jacob has hypertension, for which a calcium channel blocker has been prescribed. This drug helps control blood pressure because it: a. Increases the activity of the Na+/K+/ATPase pump indirectly b. Decreases heart rate c. Reduces stroke volume d. Decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell 28. Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct. a. Digoxin given with aldosterone antagonist diuretics because of decreased potassium levels b. Taking an antacid for gastroesophageal reflux disease because it increases the absorption of digoxin c. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day d. Administration to older adults because of reduced renal function 29. Vera, age 70, has isolated systolic hypertension. Calcium channel blocker dosages for her should be: a. Given once daily because of memory issues in the older adult b. Withheld if she experiences gastroesophageal reflux c. Not increased over the usual dosage for an adult d. Started at about half the usual dosage 30. Beta blockers are prescribed with cation for diabetics because they may block the common symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms of hypoglycemia is not blocked by these drugs and so can be used to warn diabetics of possible decreased blood glucose? a. Dizziness b. Diaphoresis c. Increased heart rate d. Nervousness and shakiness NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 38. Carvedilol is heavily metabolized by CYP2D6 and 2C9, resulting in drug interactions with which of the following drug classes? a. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors b. Histamine 2 blockers c. All of the above d. Quinolones 39. Jim is being treated for hypertension. Because he has a history of heart attack, the drug prescribed is atenolol. Beta blockers treat hypertension by: a. Increasing aldosterone-mediated volume activity b. Reducing vascular smooth muscle tone NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Reducing aqueous humor production d. Increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output 40. What dermatological issue is linked to Amiodarone use? a. Increased risk of basal cell carcinoma b. Progressive change of skin tone toward a blue spectrum c. Development of plantar warts d. Flare up of any prior psoriasis problems 41. Which precautions are shared with family members who will be assisting the patient with application of nitro patches? a. If you cut the patch for a lower dose, glue the open end b. Soak the patch in warm water to get the glue to come off c. Keep replacing the patch on the same place daily to keep a steady titer d. Wear gloves to prevent getting a headache 42. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the drug of choice in treating hypertension in diabetic patients because they: a. Improve insulin sensitivity b. Improve renal hemodynamics c. Reduce the production of angiotensin II d. All of the above 43. Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes: a. Serum potassium b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Hemoglobin d. Serum glucose 44. Commercials on TV for erectile dysfunction (ED) medications warn about mixing them with nitrates. Why? a. Development of blue discoloration to the visual field b. Inactivation of the ED medication effect c. Profound hypotension d. Increased risk of priapism QUIZ #9: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 1. When is ASA used in angina patients? a. ASA is best used at the time of an angina attack b. All angina patients should be taking ASA unless it is contraindicated for allergy or other medical reasons c. ASA should only be used in men d. ASA has no role in angina, but is useful in MI prevention 2. The most common cause of angina is: a. Atherosclerosis b. Platelet aggregation NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Nitrates c. Beta blockers d. Calcium channel blockers 11. Combinations of a long-acting nitrate and a beta blocker are especially effective in treating angina because: a. They address the pathology of patients with exertional angina who have fixed atherosclerotic coronary heart disease b. Their additive effects permit lower doses of both drugs and their adverse reactions cancel each other out c. All of the above d. Nitrates increase MOS and beta blockers increase MOD 12. Angina can cause changes in ECG patterns. Which of the following is true? a. Occlusive angina normally does not have ECG changes b. Mild classic angina is associated with an injury ECG pattern c. Vasospastic angina typically shows an ischemic pattern d. Vasospastic angina is linked with elevated ST segments 13. Your patient reports he could walk up two flights of stairs last year without pain. Earlier this year this fell to one flight of stairs without pain. He is concerned because now he can only go six steps without pain. What is this called? a. Variant angina b. Crescendo angina c. Exertional angina d. Prinzmetal angina 14. Management of all types and grades of angina includes the use of lifestyle medication to reduce risk factors. Which of these modifications are appropriate for which reason? Both the modification and the reason for it must be true for the answer to be correct. a. Intake only a moderate amount of alcohol. Research shows that too much alcohol is detrimental to cardiac function b. Increase potassium intake to at least 100 mEq/day. High levels of potassium improve the hart’s contractility and oxygen supply c. Lose at least 10 pounds of body weight. Excessive weight increases cardiac workload d. Reduce sodium intake to no more than 2,400 mg of sodium per day. Sodium increases blood volume and cardiac workload 15. Drug choices to treat angina in older adults differ from those in younger adults only in: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. The need for at least three drugs in the treatment regimen because of the complexity of angina in the older adult b. The placement of drug therapy as a treatment choice before lifestyle changes are tried c. Those with higher risk for silent myocardial infarction (MI) d. Consideration of risk factors for diseases associated with older adults 16. Isosorbide dinitrate is a long-acting nitrate given twice daily. The schedule for administration is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because: a. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Long-acting forms have a higher risk for toxicity c. Nitrate tolerance can develop d. It must be taken with milk or food 17. Beta blockers are especially helpful for patients with exertional angina who also have: a. Atherosclerosis b. Hyperlipidemia c. Arrhythmias d. Hypothyroidism 18. Rapid-acting nitrates are important for all angina patients. Which of the following is a true statement about their use? a. These drugs are useful for immediate symptom relief when the patient is certain it is angina b. All of the above c. The dose is one sublingual tablet or spray every five minutes until the chest pain goes away d. Take one nitroglycerine tablet or spray at the first sign of angina; repeat every five minutes for no more than two doses. If chest pain is still not relieved after 1st dose, call 911 19. To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on: a. Digoxin b. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers c. ASA 81 to 162 mg/day d. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain 20. Nitrates are especially helpful for patients with angina who also have: a. Heart failure b. Hypertension c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 QUIZ #10: 1. Diagnosis of HF cannot be made by symptoms alone because many disorders share the same symptoms. The most specific and sensitive diagnostic test for HF is: a. Complete blood count, blood urea nitrogen, and serum electrolytes that facilitate staging for end-organ damage NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ uncontrolled hypertension c. Myocardial ischemia and injury secondary to myocardial infarction (MI) d. Inadequate relaxation and loss of muscle fiber secondary to valvular dysfunction 9. Digoxin has a very limited role in treatment of HF. It Is used mainly for patients with: a. An audible S3 b. Renal insufficiency c. Mitral stenosis as a primary cause for HF d. Ejection fractions above 40% 10. Once the fluid overload of a HF flare is corrected, what is the proper role of diuretics? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. Only the aldosterone agonist class should be used b. They should only to be used intermittently when fluid becomes an issue c. To maintain a baseline level of therapy d. The dosing should be increased aggressively to ensure maintenance of a dry weight status 11. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are a central part of the treatment of heart failure (HF) because they have more than one action to address the pathological changes in this disorder. Which of the following pathological changes that take place in HF is NOT addressed by ACE inhibitors? a. Changes in the structure of the left ventricle so that it dilates, hypertrophies, and uses energy less efficiently b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system that increases heart rate and preload c. Decreased renal blood flow that decreases oxygen supply to the kidneys d. Reduced formation of cross-bridges so that contractile force decreases 12. In the later part of the 20th century, increased life expectancy for patients with HF has been associated with the use of: a. Thiazide and loop diuretics b. All beta blockers regardless of selectivity c. Cardiac glycosides d. ACE inhibitors, especially when started early in the disease process 13. The American Heart Association (AHA) and the American College of Cardiology (ACC) have devised a classification system for HF that can be used to direct treatment. Patients with symptoms and underlying disease are classified as stage: a. D b. C c. B d. A 14. Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their HF. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is NOT true? a. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) b. Diuretics can be used earlier than stage C when the goal is hypertension control c. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention 15. ACE inhibitors are a foundational medication in HF. Which group of patients cannot take them safely? a. Elderly patients with reduced renal clearance b. Pregnant women c. Women under age 30 d. A and b NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 2. Joanne is a 60-year-old patient with an LDL of 132 and a family history of coronary artery disease. She has already tried diet changes (increasing fiber and plant sterols) to lower her LDL but after six months her LDL is slightly higher. The next step in her treatment would be: a. A fibric acid derivative b. Sterols c. A statin d. Niacin 3. Sharlene is a 65-year-old patient who has been on a lipid-lowering diet and using plant sterol margarine daily for the past three months. Her LDL is 135 mg/dL. An appropriate treatment for her would be: a. Refer her to a specialist in managing patients with recalcitrant hyperlipidemia. b. Niacin c. A statin d. Determined by her risk factors e. A fibric acid derivative 4. The most recent treatment guidelines strongly recommend dosing primarily based on: a. Twenty-year risk of CV event b. Personal CV risk c. Family history d. Specific lipid levels 5. Fiber supplements are great options for elderly patiently who have the concurrent problem of: a. Recurrent episodes of diarrhea several times a day b. Needing to take multiple medications around the clock every two hours c. Long-term issues of constipation d. End-stage renal failure on fluid restriction 6. Which of the following patients should not have a statin medication ordered? a. Premenopausal woman who have had a recent hysterectomy b. Someone with high lipids low body mass index (BMI) c. Someone with three first- or second-degree family members with history of muscle issues when started on statins d. A prediabetic male with known metabolic syndrome 7. When considering which cholesterol-lowering drug to prescribe, which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. Coronary artery disease risk level b. Fasting high-density lipoprotein (HDL) c. Total LDL d. Fasting total cholesterol 8. Before starting therapy with a statin, the following baseline laboratory values should be evaluated: a. Complete blood count b. Liver function [alanine aminotransferase/aspartate aminotransferase (ALT/AST)] and creatinine kinase NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. C-reactive protein d. All of the above 9. What is considered the order of statin strength from lowest effect to highest? a. Atorvastatin, rosuvastatin, simvastatin b. Rosuvastatin, lovastatin, atorvastatin c. Lovastatin, simvastatin, rosuvastatin d. Simvastatin, atorvastatin, lovastatin 10. Jose is a 12-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include with a re-evaluation in six months. a. Bile acid-binding resins b. Sterols c. Niacin d. Statins 11. Jamie is a 34-year-old pregnant woman with familial hyperlipidemia and elevated LDL levels. What is the appropriate treatment for a pregnant woman? a. Bile acid-binding resins b. Fibric acid derivative c. Niacin d. A statin 12. Omega-3 fatty acids are best used to help treat: a. High HDL b. High triglycerides c. Any high lipid value d. Low LDL 13. Why has non-fasting lipid testing become popular? a. Results are close enough to fasting results and help in observing trends of the therapeutic response b. Screening helps identify larger numbers of patients who should be treated c. More patients tend to keep lab appointments when fasting is not required d. All of the above 14. The first step in responding to a patient who complains of muscular pain with statins is: a. Draw a lipid level to determine if dosing is still indicated b. Stop the medication and draw liver function tests NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 2. Which drug class is recommended for first-line treatment of hypertension in African Americans? a. Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) medications b. Calcium channel blockers c. Beta blockers d. Alpha blockers 3. Once-daily diuretics are typically suggested to be taken: a. At bedtime b. Whenever convenient NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. With every meal d. Upon awakening 4. Based on clinical trials, compelling indications for an ACE inhibitor as treatment for hypertension include: a. Pregnancy b. Renal parenchymal disease c. Dyslipidemia d. Stable angina 5. Treatment costs are important for patients with hypertension. Which of the following statements about cost is NOT true? a. The cost includes the price of any routine or special laboratory tests that a specific drug may require b. Hypertension is a chronic disease where patients may be taking drugs for a long time c. Most patients will require more than one drug to treat hypertension d. Few antihypertensive drugs come in generic formulations 6. Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade has a compelling indication include: a. Heart failure b. Angina c. Myocardial infarction d. Dyslipidemia 7. Which antihypertensive is safe during pregnancy? a. Beta blocker b. ARB c. Direct renin inhibitor d. ACE 8. What educational point concerning fluid intake must be covered with diuretic prescriptions? a. Fluid should be restricted when on a diuretic b. Fluid intake should remain near normal for optimal performance c. Avoidance of potassium-rich fluids is encouraged d. Fluids should contain at least one salty item daily 9. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors treat hypertension because they: a. Reduce sodium and water retention NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Decrease vasoconstriction c. Increase vasodilation d. All of the above 10. Because primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, treatment is based on interfering with the physiological mechanisms that regulate blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics treat hypertension because they: a. Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume b. Decrease the production of aldosterone c. Increase renin secretion NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Hyperkalemia c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Hypokalemia 19. Hypertensive African Americans are typically list4ed as not being as responsive to which drug groups? a. ACE inhibitors b. Calcium channel blockers c. Bidil (hydralazine family of medications) Hydralazine d. Diuretics 20. Beta blockers treat hypertension because they: a. Vasoconstrict coronary arteries b. Reduce angiotensin II production c. Reduce peripheral resistance d. Reduce norepinephrine Module 5 – Respiratory QUIZ #13: 1. A 52-year-old overweight smoker taking theophylline for his persistent asthma tells you he is going to start the Atkins diet for weight loss. The appropriate response would be: a. Decrease his theophylline dose because a high-protein diet may lead to elevated theophylline levels b. Recommend he try stopping smoking instead of the Atkins diet c. Schedule him for regular testing of serum theophylline levels during his diet due to increased excretion of theophylline d. Congratulate him on making a positive change in his life 2. Decongestants such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed): a. Are Schedule III drugs in all states b. Are effective in treating the congestion children experience with the common cold c. May cause drowsiness in patients of all ages d. Should not be prescribed or recommended for children under four years of age NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 3. Cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic decongestant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what population: a. Older adults b. Hypertensive patients c. Infants d. All of the above 4. Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit the MOST from a prescription of: a. Cetirizine (Zyrtec) b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c. Fluticasone (Flonase) NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Over-the-counter (OTC) cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom) 5. When recommending dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) to treat motion sickness, patients should be instructed to: a. Take the dimenhydrinate 15 minutes before it is needed b. Drink lots of water while taking the dimenhydrinate c. Take the dimenhydrinate after they get nauseated d. Double the dose if one tablet is not effective 6. Digoxin levels need to be monitored closely when the following medication is started: a. Diphenhydramine b. Ipratropium c. Loratadine d. Albuterol 7. The bronchodilator of choice for patients taking propranolol is: a. Albuterol b. Pirbuterol c. Ipratropium d. Formoterol 8. When educating patients who are starting on inhaled corticosteroids, the provider should tell them that: a. Patients should rinse their mouths out after using the inhaled corticosteroid to prevent thrush b. Inhaled corticosteroids need to be used daily during asthma exacerbations to be effective c. They should get any needed live vaccines before starting the medication d. They can triple the dose number of inhalations of medication during colds to prevent needing systemic steroids 9. A patient taking theophylline (immediate release) for his persistent asthma calls the office with a compliant of nausea, vomiting, and headache. He took his dose 5 hours ago. The best advice for him would be to: a. Have him seen the same day for an assessment and theophylline level testing b. Schedule him for an appointment tomorrow, which he can cancel if he feels better c. Order a theophylline level at the laboratory for him d. Reassure him this is probably a viral infection and he should be better soon 10. The known drug interactions with the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Lethargy and hypersomnia may occur when taking montelukast 17. Montelukast (Singular) may be prescribed for: a. A six-year-old child with exercise-induced asthma b. A two-year-old child with moderate persistent asthma c. An 18-month-old child with seasonal allergic rhinitis d. None of the above; montelukast is not approved for use in children 18. Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid which of the following classes of drugs because of the possibility of developing hypertensive crisis? a. Expectorants NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ b. Antitussives c. Antihistamines d. Beta-2 agonists 19. Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic: a. Used for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) b. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma c. Combined with albuterol for treatment of asthma exacerbations d. Used in the treatment of asthma 20. The first-line decongestant to prescribe for a 60-year-old patient with hypertension would be: a. Nasal oxymetazoline b. Nasal azelastine c. Oral phenylephrine d. Oral pseudoephedrine QUIZ #14: 1. A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma: a. Allows for each provider to determine their personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients b. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics, but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma c. Is used when asthma is severe and requires daily steroids d. Begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control 2. Treatment for mild-intermittent asthma includes (92 possible answers): a. Short-acting beta 2 agonists (albuterol) b. Long-acting beta 2 agonists c. Inhaled low-dose corticosteroids d. Montelukast (Singulair) daily 3. Education for patients who use an inhaled beta agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid includes: a. Increase fluid intake to 3 L per gay b. Use the inhaled corticosteroid first, followed by the inhaled beta agonist c. Avoid use of aspirin or ibuprofen while using inhaled medications d. Use the inhaled beta agonist first, followed by the inhaled corticosteroid NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 4. One goal of asthma therapy outlined by the NHLBI Expert Panel 3 guidelines is: a. Control of symptoms using albuterol daily b. Require infrequent use of beta 2 agonists (albuterol) for relief of symptoms c. Keep nighttime symptoms at a maximum of twice a week d. Minimize exacerbations to once a month 5. In children age 6 to 11 years mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur: a. At nighttime one to two times a month b. Less than twice a week NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ a. With a history of requiring intubation or intensive care unit (ICU) admission for asthma b. Who are pregnant c. Who are on daily inhaled corticosteroid therapy d. With moderate-persistent asthma 14. Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by: a. Tripling inhaled corticosteroid dose b. Inhaled beta 2 agonists every 20 minutes for two hours c. Increasing frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting their provider d. Starting montelukast (Singulair) 15. Monitoring a patient with persistent asthma includes: a. Monthly in-office spirometry testing b. Determining if the patient has increased use of his or her long-acting beta 2 agonist due to exacerbations c. Monitoring how frequently the patient has an upper respiratory infection (URI) during treatment d. Evaluating the patient every 2 to 3 months to determine if the patient needs to step up or own in their therapy QUIZ #15: 1. If an adult patient with comorbidities cannot reliably take oral antibiotics to treat pneumonia, an appropriate initial treatment option would be: a. IV or IM ceftriaxone b. IV ciprofloxacin c. IV amoxicillin d. Intravenous (IV) or intramuscular (IM) 2. A 34-week-pregnant female has been diagnosed with pneumonia. She is stable enough to be treated as an outpatient. What would be an appropriate antibiotic to prescribe? a. Doxycycline b. Levofloxacin c. Amoxicillin d. Azithromycin 3. The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ with community-acquired pneumonia would be: a. Ciprofloxacin b. amoxicillin c. Doxycycline d. Azithromycin 4. The most common bacterial pathogen in community-acquired pneumonia is: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 5. A four-year-old patient has suspected bacterial pneumonia. He has a temperature of 102F, oxygen saturation level of 95%, and is taking fluids adequately. What would be appropriate initial treatment for his pneumonia? a. Azithromycin b. Cephalexin c. Ceftriaxone d. Levofloxacin 6. The first-line antibiotic choice for a patient with comorbidities or who is immunosuppressed who has pneumonia and can be treated as an outpatient would be: a. Amoxicillin b. Levofloxacin c. Cephalexin d. Ciprofloxacin 7. A 14-year-old patient presents to the clinic with symptoms consistent with mycoplasma pneumonia. What is the treatment for suspected mycoplasma pneumonia in an adolescent? a. Levofloxacin b. Azithromycin c. Ceftriaxone d. Ciprofloxacin 8. Adults with pneumonia who are responding to antimicrobial therapy should show improvement in their clinical status in: a. 24 to 36 hours b. 48 to 72 hours c. 12 to 24 hours d. Four or five days 9. Along with prescribing antibiotics, adults with pneumonia should be instructed on lifestyle modifications to improve outcomes, including: a. Adequate fluid intake b. Increased fiber intake c. Bedrest for the first 24 hours d. All of the above 10. A four-week-old infant has been diagnosed with chlamydial pneumonia. An appropriate treatment for his pneumonia would be: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ 8. Treatment for a low-risk child with sinusitis is: a. Cephalexin b. Amoxicillin c. Levofloxacin d. Azithromycin 9. Patients who should be cautious about using decongestants for a URI include: a. Patients with allergies b. Patients with asthma c. Patients with cardiac disease NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. School-age children 10. A 15-month-old patient has been on amoxicillin for two days for acute otitis media. She is still febrile and there is no change in her tympanic membrane examination. What would be the plan of care for the child? a. Change the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate b. Change the antibiotic to azithromycin c. Change the antibiotic to trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole d. Continue the amoxicillin for the full 10 days QUIZ #17:  Which of the following statements is false regarding appropriate use of nicotine gum for NRT? a. Patients who smoke their 1st cigarette within less than 30 minutes of waking will start on 4mg per piece b. Discontinuation should be considered when patients have not smoke cigarettes >3 months c. Patients should be advised to use at least 9 pieces a day during the first 6 weeks d. Rapid chewing deceases the risk of adverse effects  Which of the following forms of NRT produces a subjective pleasure compared to that experienced when smoking? a. Lozenges b. Nasal spray c. Gum d. Inhaler e. Patches  True or false: The risk of seizures when using bupropion at doses for smoking cessation is relatively low. a. FALSE b. TRUE  Which of the following classes/medications should not be recommended for smoking cessation? Select all that apply a. E-cigarettes b. Benzodiazepines NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ c. Bupropion extended-release d. Naltrexone  True or false: The dose of nicotine in e-cigarettes is predictable because disclosure is an FDA regulation. a. FALSE  True or False: Patients are permitted to initially smoke when using NRT as part of their plan for smoking cessation. a. TRUE b. FALSE NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+ d. Reward NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2024 RATED A+  How long should a follow-up be scheduled if a patient commits to cessation? a. 7 days from quit date b. 14 days from quit date c. 28 days from quit date d. 5 days from quit date  All of the following statements are true regarding the pharmacological effects of nicotine, except: a. The effects of nicotine on the pleasure system are identical to highly addicting drugs b. Nicotine is metabolized to active metabolites c. At high doses, nicotine blocks nicotinic receptors d. Tolerance to nausea and dizziness develops over time e. False NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+