NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCES, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCES and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ Module 1a – RX Authority QUIZ #1:  Which of the following components is/are legally required on a written prescription for a controlled substance, in order to be dispensed in NYS? (select all that apply) a. Indication of no refills b. Patient sex c. Patient address d. MDD  Which of the following statements does NOT coincide with the prescriptive authority of a NP in NYS? a. The ability for an NP to prescribe comes with licensure and does not require physician oversight b. Schedule II controlled substances must be prescribed under the collaborating physician’s DEA number c. NPs can prescribe all schedule classes for controlled substances d. NPs are required to have a written practice agreement or be NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ approved to practice with a collaborative physician relationship  Which of the following actions by a practitioner FAILS to address an issue for non- compliance regarding drug therapy? a. Suggest a patient cuts tablets to double the supply if cost is an issue, subtherapeutic dosing is preferable over no drug given b. Utilizing extended-release formulations of a medication in place of immediate- acting products c. Suggesting patients use mail-order services in place of community pharmacies d. Suggesting a patient align their medication schedule with daily activities  A patient calls the clinic to request an emergency supply of insulin syringes. The patient’s record indicates use of 1 insulin product, injections are administered 4 times daily. Insulin syringes are available in packages of 10 and boxes of 100. In order to legally fulfill this request in NYS. a. The practitioner will prescribe a max 30-day supply, 1 box and 2 packages b. The pharmacy must receive a follow-up prescription within 48-hours c. A follow-up prescription must be sent, only a written hardcopy is NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+  A patient comes to the clinic for their routine follow-up. Their controlled medications include: alprazolam, carisoprodol, pregabalin, & hydrocodone. The patient states he will be visiting family in another state and expresses the concern of running out before next month’s appointment. The record indicates compliance and no suspected abuse. Without ordering an excess of 30-day supply, a NYS prescriber can legally address this concern by: a. Carisoprodol: ordering the 30-day supply and up to 5 refills b. Pregabalin: ordering an emergency supply up to 30 days when needed c. Alprazolam: ordering the 30-day supply 1 refill d. Hydrocodone: ordering an emergency supply up to 10 days when needed  Which of the following scenarios does NOT describe a situation for which a NYS prescriber can issue a written prescription in place of e-scribing? a. The prescription is in response to a non-patient specific standing order b. The prescription will be dispensed at a pharmacy outside of NYS c. The prescription is for a patient who does not have a preferred NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ pharmacy on file d. The prescription is for a medication that is commonly backordered as per current drug shortage  Which of the following statements is true in regards to the NYS Prescription Monitoring Program and I-Stop platform? a. I-Stop is a platform that is only valuable from a dispensing perspective NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. The history for controlled substances includes those drugs prescribed to a patient within the last year c. The platform will display if a controlled substance was processed through insurance or paid for out-of-pocket d. The platform has the disadvantage of only reporting a history of controlled substances that were dispensed in NYS  Which of the following medications/drug classes does Not typically require the practitioner to frequently monitor therapy? a. Warfarin b. Oral contraceptives c. Immunosuppressants d. Lithium  A prescriber can consider refills for a longer duration between prescription when: a. The patient is requesting refills over the phone b. The medication requires frequent monitoring c. The patient has not already reported undesired effects d. New medications are expected to be added to the current regimen  Which of the following statements is true regarding the expiration of prescriptions in NYS, in respect to the date written? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney c. Competition for a transport site by another drug d. Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins 4. A first-dose reaction may include: a. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use b. Contact dermatitis from neomycin use c. Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses d. Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use 5. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: a. Onset of action b. Minimum adverse effect level c. Peak of action d. Therapeutic range 6. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause: a. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs b. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued c. An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists d. Down-regulation of the drug receptor 7. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ combined effect of the drugs is: a. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual b. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually c. Less than the effect of each drug individually d. The sum of the effects of each drug individually 8. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Phase II metabolism b. Steady state c. Reduced bioavailability time d. Half-life 9. A patient’s nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: a. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidneys b. Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected c. There will be less free drug available to generate an effect d. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption 10. Drugs that use CY) 34A isoenzymes for metabolism may: a. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug b. Induce the metabolism of another drug c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 11. The type of ADR that is idiosyncratic when a drug is given in the usual therapeutic doses is type: a. A b. C c. D NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect d. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution 16. The nurse practitioner (NP) chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s: a. Pharmacodynamics b. Safety and side effects c. Propensity to go to the target receptor d. Biological half-life 17. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: a. Duration of action of the drug is too long b. Time between doses must be shortened c. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects d. Concentration will produce an adverse response 18. Malignant hyperthermia after administration of anesthesia is an example of: a. A drug-drug reaction b. A genetic receptor abnormality c. A late-onset reaction NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. A hypersensitivity reaction 19. Digoxin may cause a type A ADR due to: a. Being a carcinogen b. Its narrow therapeutic index c. Idiosyncratic effects d. Being a teratogen 20. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage is twice that of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: a. Is influenced by renal function b. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range c. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues d. Requires four to five half-lives to attain 21. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system is activated when: a. An adverse event or serious problem that is not already identified on the label occurs b. A patient has a severe reaction that is noted in the “Severe Reaction” section on the medication label c. There is an adverse event to a vaccine NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. A lactating woman takes a medication that is potentially toxic to the breastfeeding infant 22. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body may: a. Up-regulate the total number of receptors b. Block the receptor with a partial agonist NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ therapy due to: a. Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with the HLA- B*1502 allele b. Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine c. Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele d. Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA- B*1502 allele NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 4. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to: a. Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen b. Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen c. Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment d. Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen 5. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have: a. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to an accumulation of prodrug b. Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure c. Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug d. To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation 6. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to: a. Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination b. Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P- glycoprotein for absorption and elimination d. Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine 7. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: a. Poor metabolizers, who lack a working enzyme b. Extensive metabolizers, with two normally functioning alleles c. All of the above d. Intermediate metabolizers, who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele 8. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may: a. Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure b. Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co- administered c. Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and so must be monitored closely d. Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism 9. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: a. Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug b. Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Dropping renal clearance d. Decreased peripheral vascular flow 4. A patient on seizure medication has become pregnant, the practitioner is aware this patient may need a/an dose because physiologic changes in pregnancy result in . a. Decreased, slowed hepatic metabolism b. Increased; accelerated renal excretion c. Decreased, slowed renal excretion d. Increased; accelerated hepatic metabolism 5. You are reviewing the data from several meta-analyses that addressed the most common causes of adverse drug reactions in the older adult. A decrease in which of the following is the most common cause of adverse drug reactions in older adults? a. Renal function/clearance b. Plasma albumin levels c. Liver function d. Body fat content 6. Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of: a. Decreased risk for abuse during this time NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia c. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control d. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants 7. A woman who is breastfeeding her 2-month-old child has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant? a. Lipid-solubility b. Maternal drug levels c. All of the above NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. Half-life 8. Principles of prescribing for older adults include: a. Avoiding prescribing any newer high-cost medications b. All of the above c. Keeping the total dose at a lower therapeutic range d. Starting at a low dose and increasing the dose slowly 9. Which of the following holds true for the pharmacokinetics of women? a. Gastric emptying is faster than that of men b. Medications that involve binding globulins are impacted by estrogen levels c. Evidence is strong concerning renal differences in elimination d. Organ blood flow is the same as that of men 10. When an elderly diabetic patient is constipated the best treatment options include: a. Mineral oil b. Bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium c. Stool softeners such as docusate d. Stimulant laxatives such as senna 11. The metabolism of drugs in women is primarily impacted by: a. Enzymes of the CYP450 system NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Instruct the patient to temporarily discontinue her medication, and resume in the 2nd trimester d. Instruct the patient to avoid the medication throughout pregnancy 16. Treatment for fever in a 5-month-old infant may include: a. Alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen b. Ibuprofen suppository c. “Baby” aspirin d. Acetaminophen suppository 17. The Pediatric Research Equity Act says that: a. All children must be given equal access to drug research trials b. Children of multiple ethnic groups must be included in pediatric drug trials c. Children must be included in the planning phase of new drug development. d. All applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies. 18. Topical corticosteroids are prescribed cautiously in young children because: a. Young children may accumulate corticosteroids, leading to toxic levels b. Of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. They may cause an intense hypersensitivity reaction d. Corticosteroids are less effective in young children 19. A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy expresses concern for taking a medication that was “recently reported in the news as being teratogenic”. What action is priority in order for the practitioner address this concern? a. Elicit from the patient when pregnancy began and when exposure occurred b. Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy c. Suggest the patient go for a single ultrasound to rule out complications d. Counsel the patient to anticipate functional and behavioral effects in the child 20. Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children? a. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months b. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing c. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed because of increased renal excretion NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not 21. Robert is a 72-year-old patient who has hypertension and angina. He is at risk for common medication practices seen in the elderly including: a. Changing his medication regimen without telling his provider b. All of the above c. Hoarding medications d. Use of another person’s medications 22. Which of the following drug classes is associated with significant differences in metabolism based on gender? a. Beta blockers b. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. Are pregnant 3. The following pediatric patients should receive meningococcal ACWY conjugate vaccine: a. Infants with congenital hearing defects b. All school-age children c. Children who attend daycare NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. Infants who are HIV infected 4. Immune globulin serums: a. Are derived from pooled plasma of adults and contain specific antibodies in proportion to the donor population b. Are heated to above body temperature to kill most hepatitis, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and other viruses such as parvovirus c. Are contraindicated during pregnancy d. Provide active immunity against infectious disease 5. The reason that two measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: a. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too closely together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine b. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR c. Two vaccines one month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines d. The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose 6. Attenuated vaccines are also known as: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Booster vaccines b. Inactivated vaccines c. Live vaccines d. Killed vaccines 7. If the measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) combined vaccine is ordered to be given as the first MMR and varicella dose to a child the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends: a. Patients should not be around pregnant women for the first 48 hours after the vaccine is given b. Patients must also receive MMRV as the second dose of MMR and varicella in order to build adequate immunity c. Parents be informed of the increased risk of fever and febrile seizures over the MMR plus varicella two-shot regimen d. Patients be premedicated with acetaminophen 15 minutes before the vaccine is given 8. Tuberculin purified protein derivative: a. Is administered to patients who are known tuberculin-positive reactors b. Should be administered two to three weeks after an MMR or varicella vaccine NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Should not be given to males younger than age 12 years b. Is a live virus vaccine that provides immunity to six strains of HPV virus c. Has a common adverse effect of syncope within 15 minutes of giving the vaccine d. May be given to pregnant women 14. Immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to: a. Infants born to women who are Rh positive b. Rh-negative women at 36 weeks gestation c. Sexual partners of Rh-positive women d. Rh-negative women after a birth, miscarriage, or abortion 15. The MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because: a. There is a risk of pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy b. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome c. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine d. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine 16. Meningococcal B vaccine is administered to: a. Patients 10 to 25 years of age during an outbreak b. Infants and children traveling to Saudi Arabia or other hyperendemic areas NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Infants with functional asplenia d. Pregnant adolescents who are attending school 17. The rotavirus vaccine (RotaTeq, Rotarix): a. Is not given to an infant who has a febrile illness (temperature greater than 100.50F) b. Is a live vaccine that replicates in the small intestine, providing active immunity against rotavirus NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. All of the above d. Should not be administered to infants who are or may be immunocompromised 18. Varicella vaccine may be given to patients who are: a. Taking corticosteroids (up to 2 mg/kg/day or less than 20 mg/day) b. HIV positive with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage less than 15% c. Immunocompromised d. Pregnant 19. Recombinant influenza vaccine (Flucelvax, Flublok) may be administered annually to: (select all that apply) a. Pregnant adolescent patients b. Patients age six weeks or older c. Patients with acute febrile illness d. Patients with an egg allergy 20. True contraindications to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include: a. Family history of seizures after DTaP vaccine b. Anaphylactic reaction with a previous dose c. Fever up to 1040F (40.50C) after previous DTaP vaccine d. Adolescent pregnancy NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Photosensitivity b. Tinnitus c. Diarrhea d. Hearing loss 5. Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes: a. Take the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach b. Double the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels c. Antacids such as Tums may help an upset stomach cause by iron therapy d. Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice 6. When writing a prescription for warfarin it is common to write on the prescription. a. “Refills for 1 year” b. The brand name of warfarin and “do not substitute” c. “OK to substitute for generic” d. “PRN refills” 7. Patients who are beginning therapy with vitamin B12 need to be monitored for: a. Thrombocytopenia that may occur at any time in therapy b. Leukopenia that occurs at one to three weeks of therapy NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Hypertensive crisis that may occur in the first 36 hours d. Hypokalemia that occurs in the first 48 hours 8. A patient is taking warfarin and is asking about what they can take for minor aches and pains. The best recommendation is: a. Ibuprofen 400 mg three times a day b. Prescription acetaminophen with codeine c. Aspirin 640 mg three times a day d. Acetaminophen, not to exceed 4 grams per day 9. Monitoring for a patient prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes: a. Hemoglobin level at one week of therapy b. Reticulocyte count one week after therapy is started c. Complete blood count every two weeks throughout therapy d. INR weekly throughout therapy 10. The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is: a. Aspirin, 325 mg daily b. Low-molecular-weight heparin c. Warfarin, tapered monthly d. Direct factor Xa inhibitor 11. A 51-year-old male has been told by his PCP to take an aspirin a day. Why NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ would this be recommended? a. Aspirin has antiplatelet activity and prevents clots that cause strokes b. He has arthritis and this will help with the inflammation and pain c. He has a history of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, and one aspirin a day is a safe dosage d. Aspirin acidifies the urine and he needs this for prostate health NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Gout b. Thrombocytopenia c. Neutropenia d. Hypertension 17. The safest drug to use to treat pregnant women who require anticoagulant therapy is: a. Low-molecular-weight heparin b. Heparin c. Aspirin d. Warfarin 18. Patients with pernicious anemia require treatment with: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Folic acid b. Epogen alfa c. Iron d. Vitamin B12 19. Patient education when prescribing clopidogrel includes: a. Monitor urine output closely and contact the provider if it decreases b. Clopidogrel can be constipating; use a stool softener if needed c. The patient will need regular anticoagulant studies while on clopidogrel d. Do not take any herbal products without first discussing this with the provider 20. The average starting dose of warfarin is 5 mg daily. Higher doses of 7.5 mg daily should be considered in which patients? a. Elderly men b. Overweight or obese patients c. Patients with multiple comorbidities d. Pregnant women QUIZ #7: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 1. Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia includes: a. Reticulocyte count four weeks after treatment is started b. Complete blood count every four weeks throughout treatment c. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin four weeks after treatment is started d. Annual complete blood count 2. A 15-month-old male has a screening hemoglobin of 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for anemia in toddlers is: a. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation b. 325 mg ferrous sulfate TID c. 6 mg/kg per day of elemental iron d. 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day 3. Anemia due to chronic renal failure is treated with: a. Hydroxyurea b. Ferrous sulfate c. Vitamin B12 d. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) 4. Patients who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring of: a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin at one week and then at eight weeks NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Ferritin c. Serum calcium d. C-reactive protein 10. The dosage of vitamin B12 to initially treat pernicious anemia is: a. Vitamin B12 1000 mcg IM weekly for one month, then 1000 mcg IM monthly b. Nasal cyanocobalamin 1 g spray in each nostril daily for one week then weekly for one month c. Oral cobalamin 1000 mcg daily d. Vitamin B12 IM monthly 11. Pernicious anemia is treated with: a. Thiamine supplements b. Iron c. Folic acid supplements d. Vitamin B12 12. An adult female presents to the clinic with menorrhagia. Her hemoglobin is 10.2 and her ferritin is 15 ng/mL. initial treatment for her anemia is: a. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation b. 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day c. 325 mg ferrous sulfate TID NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. 6 mg/kg per day of iron supplementation 13. An adult female has been prescribed iron to treat her anemia. Education of patients prescribed iron would include: a. Take the iron with milk if it upsets her stomach b. Antacids may help with the nausea and gastrointestinal (GI) upset caused by iron c. Iron is best tolerated if it is taken at the same time as her other medications d. Increase fluids and fiber to treat constipation NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 14. A patient with Crohn’s disease has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is: a. Oral folic acid 1 g per day b. Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg per day c. Intramuscular (IM) folate weekly for at least six months d. Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily 15. Before beginning IM vitamin B12 therapy, which laboratory values should be obtained? a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Reticulocyte count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit d. All of the above Module 4 – Cardiovascular QUIZ #8: 1. Larry has heart failure, which is being treated with digoxin because it exhibits: a. Negative inotropism b. Positive chronotropism c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 5. Rodrigo has been pre4scribed procainamide after myocardial infarction. He is monitored for dyspnea, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema because they may indicate: a. An electrolyte imbalance involving potassium b. Onset of congestive heart failure c. Renal dysfunction d. Widening of the area of infarction 6. How is diabetic renal protection affected by ACE medications? Diabetes mellitus patients: a. Who have early renal dysfunction will see it reverse when on ACE medications b. Have a reduced rate of renal progression, but ACE medications still need to be discontinued when advanced renal issues are present c. Who start these medications never progress to renal nephropathy d. Without renal issues are the only ones who benefit from ACE protection 7. ACE inhibitors are useful in a variety of disorders. Which of the following statements is true about both their usefulness in a particular disorder and the reason for their use? a. They are useful to prevent stable angina because they decrease the NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ thickening of vascular walls due to decreased modified release b. They are useful to prevent heart failure because they reduce remodeling of injured myocardial tissues c. Both 1 and 2 are true d. Neither 1 nor 2 are true 8. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can be life threatening. Patients at highest risk for serious consequences of rapid withdrawal are those with: a. Angina b. Coronary artery disease c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 9. Richard is 70 years old and has a history of cardiac dysrhythmias. He has been prescribed nadolol. You do his annual laboratory work and find a CrCl of 25 mL/min. what action should you take related to his nadolol? a. Take no action because this value is expected in an older adult b. Decrease the dos by 75% c. Extend the dosage interval d. Schedule a serum creatinine level to validate the CrCl value 10. What formulation of nitrate is appropriate for acute anginal pain? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Oral extended release b. Ointment c. Transdermal d. Sublingual 11. Direct renin inhibitors have the following properties. They: a. Are primarily generic drugs b. Can be used with ACE and ARB medications for stronger impact NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Carvedilol d. Donepezil 18. Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in an alpha 1-selective blockers? a. Dysrhythmias b. Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol c. Reflex orthostatic changes d. Impaired insulin release NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 19. Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it: a. Lowers supine blood pressure more than standing pressure b. Decreases detrusor muscle contractility c. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck d. Increases peripheral vasoconstriction 20. The NP orders a thyroid panel for a patient on amiodarone. The patient tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test has been ordered. Which is a correct response? a. Amiodarone is a broad spectrum drug with many adverse effects. Many different tests need to be done before it is given. b. Amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism c. Amiodarone damages the thyroid gland and can result in inflammation of that gland, causing hyperthyroidism d. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits in up to 25% of patients 21. To prevent life-threatening events resulting from rapid withdrawal of a beta blocker: a. The dosage should be decreased by one-half every four days NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. An alpha blocker should be added to the treatment regimen before withdrawal c. The dosage should be tapered over a period of weeks d. The dosage interval should be increased by one hour each day 22. John has been prescribed clonidine, a centrally acting adrenergic blocker, for his hypertension. He should: a. Reduce fluid intake to less than 2 L per day to prevent fluid retention b. Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension c. Avoid sitting for long periods, as this can lead to deep vein thrombosis d. Increase fiber in his diet to treat any diarrhea that may occur 23. Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily b. Use sunscreen on exposed body surfaces c. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy d. Notify your health-care provider immediately if you have change in vision 24. Patient teaching related to amlodipine includes: NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day d. Administration to older adults because of reduced renal function 29. Vera, age 70, has isolated systolic hypertension. Calcium channel blocker dosages for her should be: a. Given once daily because of memory issues in the older adult b. Withheld if she experiences gastroesophageal reflux c. Not increased over the usual dosage for an adult d. Started at about half the usual dosage 30. Beta blockers are prescribed with cation for diabetics because they may block the common symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms of hypoglycemia is not blocked by these drugs and so can be used to warn diabetics of possible decreased blood glucose? a. Dizziness b. Diaphoresis c. Increased heart rate d. Nervousness and shakiness 31. Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker? a. Bradycardia b. Increased contractility NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Hepatic impairment d. Edema of the hands and feet 32. When comparing ACE and ARB medications, which of the following holds true? a. ARBs have stronger diabetes mellitus renal protection properties than ACE medications NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Both contribute to some retention of potassium c. ARBs have a stronger impact on hypertension control than ACE medications d. Both may produce a dry, irritating cough 33. Art is a 55-year-old smoker who has been diagnosed with angina and placed on nitrates. He complains of headaches after using his bitrate. An appropriate reply might be: a. “This is not related to your medication. Are you under a lot of stress?” b. “Headaches are common side effects with these drugs. How severe are they?” c. “This is associated with your smoking. Let’s work on having you stop smoking.” d. “This is a parasympathetic response to the vasodilating effects of the drug.” 34. Clonidine has several off-label uses, including: a. Alcohol and nicotine withdrawal b. Postherpetic neuralgia c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 35. A potentially life-threatening adverse response to an ACE inhibitor is NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Reducing aqueous humor production d. Increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output 40. What dermatological issue is linked to Amiodarone use? a. Increased risk of basal cell carcinoma b. Progressive change of skin tone toward a blue spectrum c. Development of plantar warts d. Flare up of any prior psoriasis problems 41. Which precautions are shared with family members who will be assisting the patient with application of nitro patches? a. If you cut the patch for a lower dose, glue the open end b. Soak the patch in warm water to get the glue to come off c. Keep replacing the patch on the same place daily to keep a steady titer d. Wear gloves to prevent getting a headache 42. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the drug of choice in treating hypertension in diabetic patients because they: a. Improve insulin sensitivity b. Improve renal hemodynamics c. Reduce the production of angiotensin II d. All of the above NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 43. Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes: a. Serum potassium b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Hemoglobin d. Serum glucose 44. Commercials on TV for erectile dysfunction (ED) medications warn about mixing them with nitrates. Why? a. Development of blue discoloration to the visual field b. Inactivation of the ED medication effect c. Profound hypotension d. Increased risk of priapism QUIZ #9: 1. When is ASA used in angina patients? a. ASA is best used at the time of an angina attack b. All angina patients should be taking ASA unless it is contraindicated for allergy or other medical reasons NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. ASA should only be used in men d. ASA has no role in angina, but is useful in MI prevention 2. The most common cause of angina is: a. Atherosclerosis b. Platelet aggregation NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ (MOS) and myocardial oxygen demand (MOD) in the myocardium. Which of the following drugs help to correct this imbalance by increasing MOS? a. Calcium channel blockers b. Aspirin (ASA) c. Beta blockers d. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors 10. Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic, should be on; a. ACE inhibitors NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Nitrates c. Beta blockers d. Calcium channel blockers 11. Combinations of a long-acting nitrate and a beta blocker are especially effective in treating angina because: a. They address the pathology of patients with exertional angina who have fixed atherosclerotic coronary heart disease b. Their additive effects permit lower doses of both drugs and their adverse reactions cancel each other out c. All of the above d. Nitrates increase MOS and beta blockers increase MOD 12. Angina can cause changes in ECG patterns. Which of the following is true? a. Occlusive angina normally does not have ECG changes b. Mild classic angina is associated with an injury ECG pattern c. Vasospastic angina typically shows an ischemic pattern d. Vasospastic angina is linked with elevated ST segments 13. Your patient reports he could walk up two flights of stairs last year without pain. Earlier this year this fell to one flight of stairs without pain. He is concerned because now he can only go six steps without pain. What is this called? NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Variant angina b. Crescendo angina c. Exertional angina d. Prinzmetal angina 14. Management of all types and grades of angina includes the use of lifestyle medication to reduce risk factors. Which of these modifications are appropriate for which reason? Both the modification and the reason for it must be true for the answer to be correct. a. Intake only a moderate amount of alcohol. Research shows that too much alcohol is detrimental to cardiac function b. Increase potassium intake to at least 100 mEq/day. High levels of potassium improve the hart’s contractility and oxygen supply c. Lose at least 10 pounds of body weight. Excessive weight increases cardiac workload d. Reduce sodium intake to no more than 2,400 mg of sodium per day. Sodium increases blood volume and cardiac workload 15. Drug choices to treat angina in older adults differ from those in younger adults only in: a. The need for at least three drugs in the treatment regimen because of the complexity of angina in the older adult NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ on: a. Digoxin b. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers c. ASA 81 to 162 mg/day d. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain 20. Nitrates are especially helpful for patients with angina who also have: a. Heart failure b. Hypertension c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 QUIZ #10: 1. Diagnosis of HF cannot be made by symptoms alone because many disorders share the same symptoms. The most specific and sensitive diagnostic test for HF is: a. Complete blood count, blood urea nitrogen, and serum electrolytes that facilitate staging for end-organ damage b. Measurement of brain natriuretic peptide to distinguish between systolic and diastolic dysfunction NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ c. Two-dimensional echocardiograms that identify structural anomalies and cardiac dysfunction d. Chest x-rays that show cephalization an measure heart size 2. Evidence is strong that HF interventions are best initiated when: a. At the earliest indication b. Stage IV is determined c. The person enters stage C NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ d. The person has functional disabilities 3. What assessment that can be done at home is the most reliable to use for making decisions to change HF medications? a. Weight b. Blood pressure (BP) c. Serum glucose d. Heart rate 4. HF is a leading cause of death and hospitalization in older adults (greater than 65 years old). The drug of choice for this population is: a. Eplerenone b. Aldosterone antagonists c. ACE inhibitors d. ARBs 5. Class I recommendations for stage A HF include: a. Beta blockers for all patients regardless of cardiac history b. Reduction of sodium intake to less than 3,000 mg/day to prevent fluid retention c. Treatment of thyroid disorders, especially if they are associated with tachyarrhythmias d. Aerobic exercise within tolerance levels to prevent the development NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ a. Only the aldosterone agonist class should be used b. They should only to be used intermittently when fluid becomes an issue c. To maintain a baseline level of therapy d. The dosing should be increased aggressively to ensure maintenance of a dry weight status 11. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are a central part of the treatment of heart failure (HF) because they have more than one action to address the pathological changes in this disorder. Which of the following pathological changes that take place in HF is NOT addressed by ACE inhibitors? a. Changes in the structure of the left ventricle so that it dilates, hypertrophies, and uses energy less efficiently b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system that increases heart rate and preload c. Decreased renal blood flow that decreases oxygen supply to the kidneys d. Reduced formation of cross-bridges so that contractile force decreases 12. In the later part of the 20th century, increased life expectancy for NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ patients with HF has been associated with the use of: a. Thiazide and loop diuretics b. All beta blockers regardless of selectivity c. Cardiac glycosides d. ACE inhibitors, especially when started early in the disease process 13. The American Heart Association (AHA) and the American College of Cardiology (ACC) have devised a classification system for HF that can be used to direct treatment. Patients with symptoms and underlying disease are classified as stage: a. D b. C c. B d. A 14. Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their HF. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is NOT true? a. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) b. Diuretics can be used earlier than stage C when the goal is NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ hypertension control c. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances d. Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention 15. ACE inhibitors are a foundational medication in HF. Which group of patients cannot take them safely? a. Elderly patients with reduced renal clearance b. Pregnant women c. Women under age 30 d. A and b NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 1. The overall goal of treating hyperlipidemia is: a. Maintain a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of less than 160 mg/dL b. To reduce atherogeneisis c. Lowering apo-B, one of the apolipoproteins d. All of the above NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ 2. Joanne is a 60-year-old patient with an LDL of 132 and a family history of coronary artery disease. She has already tried diet changes (increasing fiber and plant sterols) to lower her LDL but after six months her LDL is slightly higher. The next step in her treatment would be: a. A fibric acid derivative b. Sterols c. A statin d. Niacin 3. Sharlene is a 65-year-old patient who has been on a lipid-lowering diet and using plant sterol margarine daily for the past three months. Her LDL is 135 mg/dL. An appropriate treatment for her would be: a. Refer her to a specialist in managing patients with recalcitrant hyperlipidemia. b. Niacin c. A statin d. Determined by her risk factors e. A fibric acid derivative 4. The most recent treatment guidelines strongly recommend dosing primarily based on: a. Twenty-year risk of CV event NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+ b. Personal CV risk c. Family history d. Specific lipid levels 5. Fiber supplements are great options for elderly patiently who have the concurrent problem of: a. Recurrent episodes of diarrhea several times a day b. Needing to take multiple medications around the clock every two hours c. Long-term issues of constipation d. End-stage renal failure on fluid restriction 6. Which of the following patients should not have a statin medication ordered? a. Premenopausal woman who have had a recent hysterectomy b. Someone with high lipids low body mass index (BMI) c. Someone with three first- or second-degree family members with history of muscle issues when started on statins d. A prediabetic male with known metabolic syndrome 7. When considering which cholesterol-lowering drug to prescribe, which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment? a. Coronary artery disease risk level NUR650 Midterm Quiz Questions and Answers BEST EXAM SOLUTION SATIFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2023 RATED A+