NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% corre, Exams of Nursing

Download NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% corre and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ 1. Chapter 15 Questions 1. 1.ID: 793023914 Which structure is part of the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Brain Correct B. Somatic nervous system C. Peripheral nerve pathways D. Cranial nerves The brain is part of the CNS. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The PNS can be divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793023937 Which of the following is an insulating substance for the neuron? A. Schwann sheath B. Myelin Correct C. Neurilemma D. Node of Ranvier Myelin is an insulating substance. The neurilemma is the same as a Schwann sheath; it is the delicate tissue that surrounds each axon. The nodes of Ranvier are interruptions at regular intervals that occur in the myelin. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793023902 Which neurons transmit impulses from neuron to neuron? A. Unipolar neurons B. Sensory neurons C. Motor neurons D. Interneurons Correct Interneurons, or associational neurons, transmit impulses from neuron to neuron. Motor neurons transmit impulses away from the CNS. Sensory neurons carry impulses from the peripheral sensory receptors to the CNS. Unipolar neurons have one process that branches shortly after leaving the cell body. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 793023904 Which term describes successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ A. Makes up fibers of the corticospinal tract. B. Maintains balance or posture. Correct C. Controls respiration. D. Is the location of cranial nerves V through VIII. The cerebellum is responsible for balance and posture and is also responsible for both conscious and unconscious muscle synergy. The pons controls respirations and is the location of cranial nerves V through VIII. The fibers of the corticospinal tract are made up in the basis pedunculi. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793023908 Which of the following is involved in pain transmission? A. Posterior horn B. Substantia gelatinosa Correct C. Anterior horn D. Dorsal root ganglia The substantia gelatinosa is a structure involved in pain transmission. The posterior horn (dorsal horn) is primarily composed of interneurons and axons from sensory neurons. The anterior or ventral horn contains nerve cell bodies for efferent pathways leaving the spinal cord. The dorsal root ganglion is part of the sensory ganglion. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 793023906 Which statement is true regarding a subdural hematoma? A. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura and arachnoid. Correct B. It occurs as a result of the disruption of an artery. C. It is closely adhered to the brain. D. It also produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). A subdural hematoma is a collection of venous blood between the dura and the arachnoid. An epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura that involves an arterial bleed. The pia mater closely adheres to the brain. The choroid plexuses produce CSF. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 793023910 . Which of the following is a component of the midbrain? A. Cerebral hemisphere B. Tegmentum Correct C. Cerebellum D. Medulla oblongata The tegmentum, corpora quadrigemina, and cerebral peduncles are parts of the midbrain. The cerebral hemispheres make up the forebrain. The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points 12. 12.ID: 793023933 Which statement is true regarding epinephrine? NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ A. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers release epinephrine. B. Epinephrine stimulates only α-adrenergic receptors. C. Epinephrine induces general vasodilation. Correct D. The action of epinephrine is the same no matter which receptor it binds. Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ 4. No brainstem function: no ocular responses to head turning or caloric stimulation; dilated, fixed pupils; no gag or corneal reflex 5. Isoelectric (flat) EEG: electrocerebral silence 6. Persistence of these signs for an appropriate period of observation Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793036315 A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state? A. Coma B. Vegetative C. Minimally conscious Correct D. Locked-in syndrome The term minimally conscious applies to a severely altered consciousness during which the person demonstrates minimal but defined behavioral evidence of self or environmental awareness. The clinical features include following simple commands, manipulating objects, gestural or verbal yes and no responses, intelligible verbalization, and stereotypical movements. Coma is a state of unarousable neurobehavioral unresponsiveness. A vegetative state is the complete unawareness of self or the surrounding environment and a complete loss of cognitive function. Locked-in syndrome describes an individual who has the content of thought and the level of arousal intact. However, the efferent pathways are disrupted, which means the individual cannot communicate through speech or body movement. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 793035674 A person experiences a unilateral, focal seizure and maintains consciousness. Which term is appropriate to describe this type of seizure? A. Generalized B. Partial Correct C. Secondary D. Status epilepticus Partial seizures only involve neurons unilaterally. They often have a local (focal) onset. Consciousness may be maintained. In generalized seizures, consciousness is almost always impaired or lost. When partial seizures become generalized, involving the neurons of other hemispheres, the appropriate term is secondary generalization. Status epilepticus is the experience of a second or a third seizure and often subsequent seizures before the person fully regains consciousness. In addition, the NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ occurrence of a single seizure for longer than 30 minutes is known as status epilepticus. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793036347 A person experiencing difficulty in recognizing a pattern cannot recognize the form and nature of objects. Which term describes this condition? A. Agnosia Correct B. Aphasia NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ C. Dysphasia D. Alzheimer Agnosia is a defect of pattern recognition that involves the loss of recognition through one sense, although the object or person may still be recognized by other senses. Agnosia can be tactile, visual, or auditory. Aphasia is the complete loss of the comprehension or production of language. Dysphasia is an impairment of comprehension or production of language. Alzheimer is a disease of dementia. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 793036304 An individual having difficulty concentrating is restless and irritable and briefly confused. These changes have developed over 2 to 3 days. Which of the following describes this condition? A. Alzheimer disease B. Dementia C. Delirium Correct D. Coma Delirium is an acute state of confusion and is abrupt in its onset (over 2 to 3 days). The person may have difficulty concentrating, is restlessness and irritable, exhibits tremulousness and insomnia, and has a poor appetite. Alzheimer disease is a type of dementia. Dementia is a more chronic problem during which progressive failure of many cerebral functions occurs. Coma is a loss of consciousness. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793036326 An individual sustains a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) that results in left- sided paralysis. Which of the following describes this condition? A. Hemiplegia Correct B. Paraplegia C. Diplegia D. Quadriplegia Hemiplegia means the loss of motor function (paresis or paralysis) of the upper and lower extremities on one side of the body. Paraplegia refers to the loss of motor function of the lower extremities. Diplegia is the paralysis of either upper or lower extremities as a result of cerebral hemisphere injuries. Quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four extremities. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 793091556 NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ dementia, and further brain damage—even death—may result. Aspiration is also a great risk. Although bleeding of the tongue and musculoskeletal trauma may occur, neither are life threatening. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. 12. 12.ID: 793091572 Which of the following are characteristic of Alzheimer disease? (Select all that apply.) A. Rapid onset NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Memory loss Correct C. Increased irritability Correct D. Anxiety and depression Correct Alzheimer disease and other forms of dementia have a slow onset. More than 26 million people worldwide have been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease; by 2050, that number is expected to quadruple with nearly 50% requiring a high level of care. Mental status changes are memory loss and behavioral changes that include irritability, agitation, anxiety, restlessness, and depression. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. Chapter 18 Questions 1. 1.ID: 793025593 Which statement is true regarding traumatic brain injury (TBI)? A. Approximately 1.7 million head injuries occur each year in the United States. Correct B. The greatest risk of TBI occurs in those between 19 and 65 years of age. C. Twenty percent of head injuries are mild. D. Eighty percent of head injuries are severe. Approximately 1.7 million head injuries occur each year, with approximately 53,000 deaths. The majority (between 75% and 90%) of TBIs are mild. Those at highest risk for TBI are children 4 years and younger, adolescents 15 to 19 years of age, and adults 65 years of age and older. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793025587 Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? A. 13 to 15 B. 12 to 13 C. 9 to 12 D. 3 to 8 Correct The hallmark of a severe TBI is a loss of consciousness for 6 hours or longer. A severe TBI is a GCS score of 3 to 8 associated with cognitive and/or physical disability or death. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793025591 An older adult who abuses alcohol has fallen and is diagnosed with a hematoma that NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ is located on the top of the brain. Which type of hematoma fits this description? A. Subdural Correct B. Epidural C. Extradural D. Intracerebral Acute subdural hematomas rapidly develop (within 48 hours) and are usually located at the top of the skull. Subacute subdural hematomas develop more slowly, often over 48 NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Spinal shock is characterized by a complete loss of reflex function, flaccid paralysis, sensory deficit, and loss of bladder and rectal control in all segments below the level of the lesion. Because an interruption occurs in the communication with the spinal nerves, often a transient drop in blood pressure transpires and disturbed thermal regulation with faulty control of sweating ensues. Uncontrolled heat radiation through capillary dilation also occurs. Spinal shock may persist for a few days up to 3 months. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793025589 Which statement is true regarding the epidemiologic effects of an acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? A. The incidence of a CVA is twice as high among whites than it is among blacks in the United States. B. CVAs are the third leading cause of death in the United States. Correct C. Fifty percent of all strokes are recurrent. D. Two million individuals are victims of stroke each year in the United States. Strokes are the third leading cause of death in the United States. The incidence of stroke is approximately two times higher among blacks than it is among whites. Of the 795,000 new and recurrent strokes that occur annually in the United States, approximately 185,000 of these are recurrent. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 793025581 Which statement is true regarding migraine? A. The diagnosis is made on the basis of a head computed tomographic (CT) scan. B. Migraines occur most frequently before and during menses. Correct C. Migraine is not linked with any other disorder. D. Drug therapy always includes the administration of narcotics. In susceptible women, migraine occurs most frequently before and during menstruation and is decreased during pregnancy and menopause. The diagnosis of migraine is made from medical history and a physical examination. When the headache is not attributable to any other condition and any two of the following occur—unilateral head pain, pulsating pain, pain worsening with activity, and moderate or severe pain intensity—and at least one of the following occur—nausea or vomiting or both, photophobia, and phonophobia—the diagnosis of migraine is made. Many individuals with migraines have NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ co-morbid depression. Drug therapy includes antiemetic agents, nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), ergotamine and dihydroergotamine, and serotonin receptor agonists (e.g., sumatriptan). Narcotics may be used, but they are not routine. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793025597 A 23 year old reports bilateral pain with a sensation of a tight band around the head. Which type of headache fits this description? NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ A. Migraine with aura B. Migraine without aura C. Tension headache Correct D. Cluster headache Tension headache is the most common type of headache, often feels like a band is constricting the head, and is bilateral. Migraines tend to throb and are often unilateral. A migraine is classified as with and without aura and is precipitated by a triggering event. Cluster headaches are more common in men and occur in episodes several times during a day for a period of days at different times of the year. The pain of a cluster headache is unilateral, intense, tearing, and burning. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 793025583 Which primary brain tumor occurs most commonly? A. Astrocytoma Correct B. Ependymoma C. Oligodendroglioma D. Meningioma Astrocytomas are the most common brain tumors and account for 50% of brain and spinal tumors. Ependymomas are gliomas that arise from ependymal cells and account for 6% of primary brain tumors in adults. Oligodendrogliomas are less commonly occurring gliomas and account for 2% of primary brain tumors. Meningiomas account for approximately 30% of all intracranial tumors. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 793025595 Match the cranial nerve with the defects correlated with that nerve: Term Definition Ptosis, visual field defects, and diplopia No Definition Chosen Incorrect 1 Correct Deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo No Definition Chosen Incorrect 4 Correct NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ act at the neuromuscular junction Definitions Alzheimer disease Guillain-Barré Myasthenia gravis NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Definitions Amyotropic lateral sclerosis (ALS) NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 1. chapter 20 Questions 2. Questions 1. 1.ID: 793021705 The origin of the peripheral nervous system is which of the following? A. Neural crest Correct B. Neural tube C. Neural groove D. Neural plate Incorrect The neural crest is a cellular band that is created when the neuroectodermal cells separate from the neural tube but remain between the tube and the surface ectoderm. This cellular band develops into the cranial and spinal ganglia, more commonly referred to as the peripheral nervous system.During the fourth gestational week, the neural groove deepens and ultimately becomes the central nervous system (CNS). The neural plate is the thickening of the ectoderm. This plate appears around the middle of the third gestational week and unfolds to form a neural groove and neural folds. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793021701 An infant is born with a wide membranous junction between skull bones. What is the appropriate name for this structure? A. Suture B. Fontanel Correct C. Schwann cell D. Myelin When an infant is born, the bones of the skull are separated at the suture lines, thus forming two fontanels or “soft spots”: one diamond-shaped anterior fontanel and one triangular-shaped posterior fontanel. The fontanels are wide, membranous junctions of the sutures between skull bones that allow for the expansion of the skull during normal growth and development. Schwann cells are specialized connective tissue cells in the NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ peripheral nervous system. Myelin is the conductive coating on nerve cells. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793021097 Premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18 to 20 months of an infant'’s life is known as: A. Anencephaly B. Craniosynostosis Correct NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ D. Brain tumors are the leading cause of death from disease in children, ages 1 to 15 years. Correct Brain tumors are the leading cause of death from disease and the second most common primary neoplasm in children. Approximately 45% of primary brain tumors in children are nonmalignant. Overall, primary brain tumors account for nearly 20% of all childhood cancers. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793021703 Febrile seizures occur in: A. Less than 1% of children B. 2% to 5% of children Correct C. 7% to 10% of children D. 12% to15% of children Febrile seizures occur in 2% to 5% of children, most frequently between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. The seizures are brief and self-limited, and the cause is unknown. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 793091984 Which statements are true regarding neurologic development? (Select all that apply.) A. The head size is the fasted growing body part during infancy. Correct B. The infant’s skull contains fontanels. Correct C. An adult’s head will expand with an intracranial mass. D. The infant’s head circumference expands until 5 to 8 years of age.Correct An infant’s skull contains open sutures and fontanels to allow for head expansion, which occurs for 5 to 8 years after birth; in fact, the head is the fastest growing body part during infancy. An adult’s head size will not expand, regardless of intracranial events, such as tumor growth, bleeding, or the increased production of CSF. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 1. Chapter 31 Questions Questions 1. 1.ID: 793066156 Which cardiac chamber has the thickest wall? A. Left atrium NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle Correct D. Right ventricle The atria are approximately 1 to 2 mm thick. The right ventricle is 4 to 5 mm thick, and the left ventricle, the most muscular chamber, is approximately 12 to 15 mm thick. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793066152 NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Which statement accurately describes blood flow through the heart? A. Blood flows from the left atrium through the tricuspid valve to the left ventricle. B. Blood flows from the right atrium through the aortic valve to the right ventricle. C. Blood flows from the right ventricle through the pulmonic semilunar valve.Correct D. Blood flows from the left ventricle through the bicuspid valve. Blood flows from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. Blood then travels from the right ventricle through the pulmonic semilunar valve to the pulmonary circulation. Once in the pulmonary circulation, it is oxygenated and travels to the left atrium through the bicuspid valve to the left ventricle. Blood leaves the left ventricle through the aortic valve and enters the systemic circulation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793066166 Which statement correctly describes the A wave? A. The A wave is generated by atrial contraction. Correct B. The filling of the atrium causes early diastolic peak of the A wave. C. The A wave is produced as a result of the descent of the tricuspid valve ring. D. The A wave reflects the rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into right ventricle. The A wave is generated by atrial contraction. The V wave is the early diastolic peak caused by the filling of the atrium. The X descent follows the A wave and is produced because of the descent of the tricuspid valve ring. The Y descent follows the V wave and reflects the rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 793066162 Which artery travels in the coronary sulcus between the left atrium and the left ventricle? A. Left anterior descending B. Circumflex Correct C. Right coronary D. Left coronary The circumflex artery travels in the coronary sulcus. The left anterior descending artery travels down the anterior surface of the interventricular septum. The right coronary NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Wall tension that is related to internal blood vessel radius C. Lower tension curve than normal—a major characteristic D. Pressure generated by the end-diastolic volume Correct Preload is the pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole (end- diastolic volume). Afterload is the resistance or impedance to the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Wall tension is directly related to the product of the intraventricular NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ pressure and internal radius, and inversely related to the wall thickness (Laplace’s law). A tension curve lower than normal is characteristic of congestive heart failure. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793066170 Which process is responsible for slowing the heart rate? A. Sympathetic excitation B. Parasympathetic excitation Correct C. Bainbridge reflex D. Baroreceptor reflex The parasympathetic excitation slows the heart rate and is often referred to as the cardioinhibitory center. The sympathetic stimulation is often called the cardioexcitation center because the heart rate increases. The Bainbridge reflex causes the heart rate to increase after intravenous infusions of blood or fluid. The baroreceptor reflex facilitates blood pressure changes and heart rate changes. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 793066164 Which factors determine cardiac output? A. Parasympathetic and sympathetic activity B. Preload and afterload C. Heart rate and stroke volume Correct D. Right and left atrial pressure Cardiac output is directly related to the heart rate and stroke volume. Changes in either variable affect the cardiac output. Preload is the pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole (end-diastolic volume). Afterload is the resistance or impedance to the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Although the parasympathetic stimulation has a bradycardic effect and sympathetic nervous system increases the frequency of the cardiac pacemaker and may influence cardiac output, these factors are not used in the cardiac output formula; neither are atrial pressures. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 793066158 Which statement is true regarding the thoracic duct? A. The thoracic duct is the major source of venous return to the heart. B. The thoracic duct receives lymph from most of the body. Correct C. The thoracic duct receives lymph from the right arm, head, and thorax. D. Blood is dumped into the right atrium through the thoracic duct. Lymph is primarily water and small amounts of protein. It is reabsorbed through the NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Cyanosis, followed by rubor and paraesthesias in the digits, are associated with which condition? A. Raynaud phenomenon or disease Correct B. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Atherosclerosis D. Varicose veins NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Attacks of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes, characterize Raynaud phenomenon and Raynaud disease. Symptoms include cold and numb digits. Thromboangiitis obliterans, an inflammatory disease of the peripheral arteries, tends to occur in young men who are heavy smokers. Arteries occlude in the feet and hands. The chief symptoms of thromboangiitis obliterans are pain and tenderness of the affected part. Atherosclerosis is an inflammatory disease and is the major cause of coronary artery disease and stroke. A varicose vein is a superficial vein in which blood has pooled. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793021089 Which tern is used to identify elevated systolic pressure accompanied by normal diastolic pressure (less than 90 mm Hg)? A. Primary hypertension B. Secondary hypertension C. Stage 2 hypertension D. Isolated systolic hypertension Correct Isolated systolic hypertension is an elevated systolic pressure with a normal diastolic pressure. Primary hypertension is the result of extremely complicated interactions of genetics and the environment, mediated by a host of neurohumoral effects. Altered hemodynamics, associated with a primary disease, cause secondary hypertension. Stage 2 hypertension is systolic pressure equal to or greater than 160 mm Hg and diastolic pressure equal to or greater than 100 mm Hg. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 793021087 Which condition is a complication of hypertension? A. Cardiovascular muscle atrophy B. Hypoglycemia C. Congestive heart failure Correct D. Neuropathy Cardiovascular complications include left ventricular hypertrophy, angina pectoris, congestive heart failure (left heart failure), coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), and sudden death. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793021042 A woman with chest pain that occurs at rest is diagnosed as having abnormal vasospasm of her coronary arteries. These symptoms support which medical NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ diagnosis? A. Stable angina B. Prinzmetal angina Correct C. Silent ischemia D. Angina pectoris Prinzmetal angina is an abnormal vasospasm of the coronary vessels that causes transient ischemia, unpredictably and usually at rest, and is more common in women. Stable angina occurs with activity, is often limited, and resolves with rest. Silent NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ (HF), (2) venous endothelial damage, caused by trauma or medications, and (3) hypercoagulable states, as a result of inherited disorders, malignancy, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, hormone replacement, hyperhomocysteinemia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. Neither polycythemia nor gender is known to be a factor that promotes venous thrombosis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793094212 Which statements are true regarding hypertension? (Select all that apply.) A. Approximately two-thirds of Americans older than the 60 years of age have hypertension. Correct B. More than two-thirds of those with hypertension have it controlled. C. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic pressure higher than 90 mm Hg.Correct D. Hypertension is a systolic pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher. Correct E. Approximately 15% of U.S. adults are in the prehypertension category and are at risk for developing hypertension. Approximately two-thirds of Americans older than 60 years of age have hypertension, and approximately 48% of those have adequately controlled hypertension. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher or a systolic pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher. Between 25% and 37% of adults in the United States are prehypertensive. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 793094216 Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension? (Select all that apply.) A. Positive family history for hypertension Correct B. Asian race C. High dietary sodium intake Correct D. Glucose intolerance Correct E. Female gender The risk factors for hypertension include a positive family history for hypertension, male gender, advanced age, black race, obesity, and high sodium intake. Factors also include low potassium, calcium, and magnesium intake, diabetes mellitus, labile blood pressure, cigarette smoking, and heavy alcohol consumption. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 793094220 Which statements are true regarding atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ A. Atherosclerosis is an acute process of heart muscle degeneration. B. Atherosclerosis is the thickening and hardening of the vessel wall.Correct C. Atherosclerosis is a plaque caused by neutrophils. D. Endothelial cell injury begins the process of atherosclerosis. E. Atherosclerosis is more than one disease. Correct NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis in which thickening and hardening of the vessels (not heart muscle) occurs. Collagen deposits over a fatty streak causes plaque. Atherosclerosis begins with injury to the endothelial cells that line artery walls and is not a single disease; rather, it is a pathologic process that can affect vascular systems throughout the body. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 12. 12.ID: 793094224 Which assessment finding is a sign of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) A. Xanthelasmas Correct B. Arcus senilis Correct C. Cardiac murmurs D. Extra-rapid heart sounds E. Carotid arterial bruits Correct Xanthelasmas are small fat deposits around the eyes. Arcus senilis is a yellow lipid ring around the cornea. Both of these findings suggest dyslipidemia, which is associated with atherosclerosis. Carotid arterial bruit also suggests probable atherosclerotic disease. Cardiac murmurs may indicate acute valvular insufficiency. Extra-rapid heart sounds, such as a left ventricular gallop, indicate impaired left ventricular function during an ischemic attack. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 13. 13.ID: 793094228 Damaged myocardial muscle will release which enzymes? (Select all that apply.) A. Creatine phosphokinase–myocardial band (CPK-MB) Correct B. Lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH) Correct C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) D. Cardiac troponin I (cTnI) Correct E. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cTnI is the most specific indicator of MI. Other biomarkers released by myocardial cells include CPK-MB and LDH. AST is a liver enzyme that indicates damage to the liver cells. An increased level of LDL is a risk factor for atherosclerosis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. Chapter 33 Questions 1. Questions NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Oxygenated blood flows into pulmonary circulation C. Deoxygenated blood flows into systemic circulation Correct D. Correction of the ventricular septal defect Eisenmenger syndrome occurs when pulmonary vascular resistance rises and becomes greater than systemic vascular resistance, causing blood flow to reverse direction. In this syndrome, deoxygenated blood now flows into the systemic circulation and cyanosis occurs. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793051321 A child has been noted to have hypertension with decreased pulses in the lower extremities. What is the most likely congenital cause for this finding? A. Tricuspid atresia B. Atrial septal defect C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coarctation of the aorta Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the lumen of the aorta that impedes blood flow. Children may have cool, mottled skin and occasionally leg cramps during exercise. A systolic ejection murmur, heard best at the left interscapular area, is caused by rapid blood flow through the narrowed area, which is often found with hypertension. Children with pulmonary stenosis may have a systolic ejection murmur and possibly exertional dyspnea and fatigability. Atrial septal defects have a murmur. Cyanosis, growth failure, and dyspnea may occur with tricuspid atresia. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 793094260 Regarding normal features of cardiac function in the newborn, which statements are true? (Select all that apply.) A. Heart rate is 220 to 280 beats per minute (bpm). B. Cardiac output is low. C. Oxygen consumption doubles. Correct D. The newborn heart initially has left ventricle dominance. E. By 1 month of age, the newborn’s ventricles are approximately equal in weight. Correct Oxygen consumption doubles at birth, and the newborn’s ventricles are approximately equal in weight by 1 month of age. The newborn heart rate is 100 to 180 bpm, and cardiac output is high. Unlike the adult heart, the newborn heart has right ventricular (RV) dominance with a thickened RV wall. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793094264 Which statements are true regarding congenital heart defects? (Select all that apply.) A. Congenital heart disease is the second leading cause of death in infants during the first year of life. Correct B. Incidence of heart defects is high in stillbirths, low–birth- weight babies, and spontaneous abortions. Correct NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ C. Maternal use of drugs during pregnancy has not been shown to increase congenital heart disease. D. The underlying cause of congenital heart disease is known in 30% of cases. E. Infants with trisomy 21 have a high incidence of congenital heart disease.Correct NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ D. The goblet cells are air-filled cells. The right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. The trachea bifurcates at the carina. The trachea has U-shaped cartilaginous rings. The goblet cells secrete mucus. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793026211 What process describes the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) for oxygen? A. Ventilation B. Respiration Correct C. Circulation D. Alveolar ventilation Respiration is the exchange of CO2 for oxygen. Ventilation is the mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs and is often misnamed respiration. Circulation refers to the actual blood flow and oxygen delivery. Alveolar ventilation refers to the amount of air delivered to the alveoli. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 793026223 Which receptor monitors the pH, partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2) in arterial blood, and partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) in arterial blood ? A. Stretch receptors B. Irritant receptors C. J-receptors D. Central chemoreceptors Correct Central chemoreceptors indirectly monitor arterial blood by sensing changes in the pH of the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Stretch receptors are located in smooth muscle and are sensitive to increases in the size or volume of the lungs. Irritant receptors are found in the epithelium of conducting airways and are sensitive to noxious aerosols, gases, and particles. J-receptors are located near the capillaries in the alveolar septa and are sensitive to increased capillary pressure. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793026207 Which characteristic is true regarding an individual with emphysema? A. Increased airway resistance B. Increased compliance Correct C. Decreased surfactant D. Increased elastic recoil NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Emphysema is associated with increased lung compliance and decreased elastic recoil. Airway resistance refers to the opposition to airflow and is determined by the length, radius, and cross-sectional area of the airways. Surfactant affects the surface tension and alveolar ventilation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 793094298 Which steps are involved in the process of gas exchange? (Select all that apply.) A. Ventilation Correct NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Pressurization C. Diffusion Correct D. Perfusion Correct Ventilation, diffusion, and perfusion are the three steps involved in gas exchange in the lungs. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793094702 Which structures are considered part of the upper airway? (Select all that apply.) A. Nasopharynx Correct B. Larynx C. Oropharynx Correct D. Trachea E. Bronchi The nasopharynx and oropharynx are the structures of the upper airway. The larynx divides the upper and lower airways. The trachea and bronchi are in the lower airway. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 793094706 Which structures are considered part of the acinus? (Select all that apply.) A. Trachea B. Respiratory bronchioles Correct C. Alveolar ducts Correct D. Alveoli Correct E. Larynx The gas-exchange airways that make up the acinus are the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli. The trachea connects the larynx to the bronchi. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793094710 Which structures are major accessory muscles of respiration? (Select all that apply.) A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Scalene C. Diaphragm Correct D. External intercostals Correct E. Trapezius The two major muscles of respiration are the diaphragm and the external intercostals. The sternocleidomastoid and scalene are accessory muscles. The trapezius is a large, superficial muscle that spans the neck, shoulders, and back. NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Normal alterations involved in aging include increases in flow resistance, alterations in gas exchange, stiffening of the chest wall, and loss of elastic recoil. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. Chapter 35 1. Questions 1. 1.ID: 793056714 What is the appropriate term for inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands? A. Hyperpnea B. Hypoventilation Correct C. Orthopnea D. Dyspnea Hypoventilation is inadequate ventilation in relation to metabolic demands. Hyperpnea is rapid breathing. Orthopnea is difficulty breathing when an individual is lying flat. Dyspnea is difficulty breathing. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793056702 A person has respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing and apnea. What is the appropriate term for this breathing? A. Cheyne-Stokes Correct B. Hypoventilation C. Kussmaul D. Hyperpnea Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing and apnea characterize Cheyne- Stokes respirations. An increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause characterize Kussmaul respirations. Hypoventilation is inadequate alveolar ventilation. Hyperpnea is rapid ventilation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 793055898 Which disease is associated with bulbous enlargement of the distal segments of the fingers? A. Acute pneumonia B. Acute myocardial infarction NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ C. Sickle cell disease D. Cystic fibrosis Correct Cystic fibrosis is the disease associated with the bulbous enlargement of the distal segments of the fingers (clubbing). The enlargement of the distal segments of the fingers is also associated with bronchiectasis, pulmonary fibrosis, lung abscess, and congenital heart disease. Cystic fibrosis is not associated with the other options. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ 4. 4.ID: 793056700 Which is the most common cause of pulmonary edema? A. Inhalation of toxic gases B. Heart disease Correct C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) The most common cause of pulmonary edema is heart disease. Toxic gas inhalation, pulmonary hypertension, and ARDS are also causes of pulmonary edema but are not as common as pulmonary edema from heart disease. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793056720 Which statement is true regarding bronchiolitis? A. In adults, a virus usually causes bronchiolitis. B. Bronchiolitis is most common in adults. C. Bronchiolitis is an inflammatory obstruction of the small airways.Correct D. Bronchiolitis is associated with a bacterial infection. Bronchiolitis is most common in children and is caused by a virus. It is an inflammatory obstruction of the small airways called the bronchioles. Bronchiolitis is observed in adults with chronic bronchitis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 793056710 What is the term used to describe a respiratory infection that results in pus in the pleural space? A. Abscess B. Consolidation C. Empyema Correct D. Transudate Empyema is term used to describe the presence of pus in the pleural space and is a complication of respiratory infection. Abscess is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma. A consolidation is inflamed lung tissue that causes the alveoli to fill with exudate. Transudate is the presence of fluid with low protein content residing in the pleural space. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 793056718 Which statement is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Air droplet Correct C. Direct contact D. Fecal-oral contact Tuberculosis is extremely contagious and is transmitted via airborne droplets. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 12.ID: 793094755 Which statements are true regarding viral pneumonia? (Select all that apply.) NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ A. Viral pneumonia requires treatment with antibiotics. B. Viral pneumonia is usually mild and self-limiting. Correct C. Viral pneumonia can set the stage for a secondary bacterial infection.Correct D. Viral pneumonia is not seasonal. Viral pneumonia can set the stage for a secondary bacterial infection, is seasonal, and is usually mild and self-limiting. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. Chapter 36 1. Questions 1. 1.ID: 793049340 Which statement is true regarding stridor? A. Inspiratory stridor occurs with obstruction of the intrathoracic airway. B. Expiratory stridor is also called a monophonic wheeze. Correct C. The intrathoracic airway is above the thoracic inlet. D. Biphasic stridor is often produced in the lower trachea. Obstruction in the intrathoracic airway (the middle to lower trachea and central bronchi) may generate expiratory stridor, also called monophonic wheeze. A turbulent flow of air through a partially obstructed airway produces stridor, which is a harsh vibratory sound of variable pitch. Inspiratory stridor is generated with obstruction of the extrathoracic airway (above the thoracic inlet). Biphasic stridor typically reflects obstruction at the glottis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793049342 Which illness results in a unilateral swelling of the pharynx, fever, sore throat, dysphasia, trismus, and pooling of saliva? A. Diphtheria B. Peritonsillar abscess Correct C. Croup D. Epiglottitis Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus often causes peritonsillar abscess, which results in unilateral pharyngeal swelling, fever, sore throat, dysphasia, trismus, and pooling of NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ saliva. Cervical lymphadenopathy is often observed on the same side. Diphtheria causes sore throat and dysphagia. Bilateral swelling of the tonsils is usually involved, with a tenacious membrane covering the mucosa. Diphtheria is not common because of immunization. Croup is caused by a virus and generally produces a barking cough. Generally, bacteria causes epiglottitis with accompanying high fever, drooling, and inspiratory stridor. Epiglottitis is also declining because of immunization. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ which can collapse more easily. A cough can be a sign of infection, foreign body, or obstruction. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 793049332 At birth, the tracheobronchial tree is complete; however, the quantity of increases until 8 years of age. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Incorrect Correct Responses A. Alveoli At birth, the tracheobronchial tree is complete; however, the quantity of alveoli increases until 8 years of age. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 7.ID: 793049336 is a lipid-protein mix produced by type II alveolar cells, which reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. Incorrect Correct Responses A. Surfactant Surfactant is a lipid-protein mix produced by type II cells. Surfactant is critical for maintaining alveolar expansion and allows for normal gas exchange, as well as lines the alveoli and reduces surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse at the end of each exhalation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. Chapter 48 1. questions 1. 1.ID: 793045392 Which type of shock is not related to low systemic vascular resistance? A. Septic B. Neurogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Cardiogenic Correct Cardiogenic shock has decreased cardiac output; therefore adequate oxygen is not delivered to the cells. Septic, neurogenic, and anaphylactic forms have low perfusion as a result of low systemic vascular resistance. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 793046304 Which is a true statement regarding cardiogenic shock? A. The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is infection. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ B. Cardiogenic shock responds well to multiple treatments. C. Mortality improves with revascularization strategies. Correct D. Compensatory adaptive responses result in hypotension. Mortality is improved with revascularization strategies. The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is myocardial infarction or surgery requiring bypass. Any form of heart failure may cause cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is often unresponsive to NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ 7. 7.ID: 793046300 Which statement is true regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. MODS is the progressive dysfunction of one organ system. B. An uncontrolled inflammatory response can trigger MODS. Correct C. MODS is another term for sepsis. D. The mortality rate for MODS is generally low. MODS is the progressive dysfunction of two or more organ systems, resulting from uncontrolled inflammatory response, and may occur during sepsis. However, these two terms are not synonymous. The mortality rate for MODS is high. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 793046302 Which classification of burn exhibits erythema with thin-walled, fluid-filled blisters and considerable pain? A. First-degree B. Superficial partial-thickness Correct C. Deep partial-thickness D. Third-degree Superficial partial-thickness burns include erythema, blisters, and pain. First- degree burns involve only the epidermis without injury to the underlying dermal or subcutaneous tissues. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the entire dermis, sparing skin appendages such as hair, follicles, and sweat glands. Third-degree burns are full- thickness burns that involve the destruction of the entire epidermis, dermis, and often the underlying tissue. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 793045390 What percentage of the total body surface area has been burned when the area is the size of the patient’s palm? A. 1% Correct B. 4% C. 9% D. 18% The surface area of the palm averages 1% of the body surface area over a wide range of ages. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 793046312 What is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in the treatment of NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ burns? A. Blood pressure B. Heart rate C. Urine output Correct D. Skin turgor Urine output is the most reliable indicator of fluid resuscitation in the treatment of burns. NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ NURS 5315test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+ Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 793095988 What triggers multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? (Select all that apply.) A. Maldistribution of blood flow Correct B. Hypometabolism C. Myocardial depression Correct D. Supply-dependent oxygen consumption Correct E. Excessive inflammatory reaction Correct Primary MODS is associated with maldistribution of blood flow, hypermetabolism, myocardial depression, and supply-dependent oxygen consumption. The progressive organ dysfunction of secondary MODS is the result of an excessive inflammatory reaction. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 12. 12.ID: 793095992 Which element is considered essential for the survival of a major burn injury? (Select all that apply.) A. Meticulous wound management Correct B. Adequate fluids Correct C. Early grafting Correct D. Early antibiotics E. Scar prevention The three essential elements of survival after a major burn are (1) meticulous wound management, (2) adequate fluids and nutrition, and (3) early surgical excision and grafting. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 13. 13.ID: 793095996 Which of the following are results of gluconeogenesis in shock? A. Increased lactic acid Correct B. Increased uric acid Correct C. Impairment of the immune system Correct D. Interstitial edema Correct E. Increased heart rate Gluconeogenesis causes proteins to be used for fuel. The breakdown of proteins can result in increased lactic acid, uric acid, interstitial edema, and ammonia, as well as impairment of the immune system. Tachycardia is a compensatory shock mechanism focused on oxygen delivery. NURS 5315 test 3 review all BEST EXAM SOLUTION study guide questions and answers 100% correct Rated A+