Nursing 521 final exam questions with answers 100% correctly verified solutions graded A+, Exams of Biology

Download Nursing 521 final exam questions with answers 100% correctly verified solutions graded A+ and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity! Nursing 521 final exam questions with answers 100% correctly verified solutions graded A+ 1. In the mouth and stomach salivary α amylase initiate the digestion of with nutrients? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fat d. Fiber 2. Saliva contains which immunoglobulin? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 3. With enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach? a. Acetylcholine b. Pepsin c. Gastrin d. Secretin 4. Glucose transported enhances the absorption of with electrolyte? a. Sodium b. Phosphate c. Potassium d. Chloride 5. A patient in the clinic report projectile vomiting without nauseas or other gastrointestinal symptoms. What is the best action by the NP? a. Provide antiemetic medication. b. Arrange a brain scan. c. Administer IV hydrations d. Schedule GI consultation 6. Parents report their 3-week old infant who eats well and has gained weight began to vomit forcefully for no apparent razon. What treatment option should NP prepare de parents and provided education? a. A gastric feeding tubing. b. What-free diet c. Corrective surgery d. Lactose-free diet 7. An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, become irritable, and draw up the knees. Vomiting occur soon afterward. The mother report that the infant passed at normal stool followed by one the looked like currant jelly. What treatment option should NP prepare the infant for? a. Corrective surgery b. Reduction enema c. Gastric decompression d. Anal dilation 8. What is physiologic jaundice in a newborn caused by? a. Reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine. b. Impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin c. Increase of bilirubin production. d. Mild conjugate (Indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia 16. What is the first sign of puberty in girls? a. Breast enlargement b. Grown of pubic hair. c. Menstruation d. Vaginal discharge 17. The nurse practitioner (NP) is treating a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). With statement is correct regarding PID? a. An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of successful pregnancy by 80%. b. Such an inflammation results in permanent change to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes. c. PID has no been associated with an increase the risk of cervical cancer. d. Contracting this infection increase the risk of cervical cancer. 18. With factor increase the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years ? a. Never having children b. Oral contraceptive use c. Multiple pregnancy d. Prolonged lactation 19. In the 95 % of boys delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition? a. Disruption in hypothalamus b. Disruption in pituitary c. Deficit estrogens o testosterone d. Physiological hormonal delay 20. A NP is seeking in patient in the clinic who reports that his foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans penis. What terms does the NP use to document this condition? a. Paraphimosis b. Priapism c. Paraphimosis d. Phimosis 21. A man has balanitis. What is the next best step in the assessment of the patient by the NP? a. Educated the man on the side effects of chemotherapy. b. Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading. c. Administer pain medication before retracting the foreskin. d. Prepare the man for needle aspiration of the corpus. 22. What is the most common infection cause of orchitis in post pubertal boys? a. Herpes b. Escherichia coli c. Mumps d. Cytomegalovirus 23. The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has history of cryptorchidism? a. Penile b. Testicular c. Prostate d. Epidydimal 24. A man report to the NP that he had a sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. What should the next best step be in the care of the patient in order to gather more information? a. Asses the man’s recent sexual history. b. Recommended heat and acetaminophen for back pain c. Prepare the man for prostatic massage. d. Assist the man in obtaining a urine sample. 25. With is the characteristics of secondary syphilis? a. Condylomata lata b. Gummas c. Chancroid d. Donavan bodies 26. A NP had taught a pregnant woman about the risk of transmitting herpes simple virus (HSV) from her to her fetus. What statement by the woman indicated she not understanding and indicates she need more information? a. Neonatal infection with HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period. b. The risk is higher in woman who has a primary HSV infection. c. The risk is higher in woman who experience prolonged rupture membranes. d. The risk is higher with internal fetal monitoring devices are used. professional assess for brain death? c. Remove the patient’s ventilator to see if spontaneous breathing occurs. 37-A patient has damage to the lower pons and medulla. What finding does the healthcare professional associate with this injury? D. Flaccid response in the upper and lower extremities 38-To quickly assess a patient’s nervous system for dysfunction, what assessment should the healthcare professional perform as the priority? D Level of consciousness 39-A healthcare professional wants to volunteer for a community education project to help prevent spinal cord injury. What activity would the professional most likely volunteer for? D.Teaching older adults how to prevent trip-and-fall events 40-A patient has a spinal cord injury at C4. What should the healthcare professional assess as the priority in this patient? B.Respirations 41- What does a healthcare professional explain to a student about myasthenia gravis? D It causes muscle weakness. 42-Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? B Auditory hallucinations 43-A healthcare professional is seeing a patient with suspected schizophrenia. For which prenatal occurrence should the professional assess? A.Viral infection 44- The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they do what? A Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse 45- Which defect of neural tube closure is most common? B Posterior 46- An infant is brought to the emergency department by parents who report that the baby’s fontanels seem to be bulging outward. What action by the healthcare provider is most appropriate? B. Measure the head circumference and plot it on a growth chart. 47-A person wants to know if eating only plant-based foods is advisable as a way to cut cholesterol to near-zero levels. What response by the health care professional is best? C “No, many hormones are made from cholesterol.” 48-Which patient would the healthcare professional assess for elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion? A Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach 49-A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient does the professional assess for neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)? C. Posterior pituitary trauma E) HEART. 69- What is the difference between abrasion and laceration? ANS: A) An abrasion is a scrape in which superficial skin layers have been removed and a laceration is a jagged or irregular tearing of tissues. 70- Which statements are true regarding the Marihuana use? (SATA) ANS: A) Beneficial effects include decreases in nausea and pain. B) Heavy use can result in psychomotor impairments. C) Possibly causes reproductive changes. 71- What are examples of blunt force injuries? (SATA) A) Bruise to the upper arm, resulting from a fall. B) Simple tibia fracture sustained in a skiing accident. D) Spleen laceration caused by a punch during a physical fight. 72- Which is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure? ANS: C) DNA Aberrations. 73- Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communications to cells some distance away? ANS: D) Hormonal. 74- Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma? ANS: C) A Subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture. 75- The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process? ANS: C) Receptor-mediated endocytosis. 76) - Which drugs may produce psychosis at night dose (select all that apply) A- Levodopa B- Haloperidol C- Cocaine D- Marijuana 77)- which statement is true regarding mood disorders? B A- the hypothalamic pituitary- adrenal (HPA) system hormones are decreased a large percentage of individuals with major depression. B- Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine. C- environmental factors play no role in depression. D- No genetic role exists in depression. 78)- What is the definition of the reactive response? A- Mounting a response in anticipation of a stressor. B- Mounting a response in reaction to a psychological stressor. C- Mounting a response to learned stressor. D- Mounting a response to a physical stressor. 79)- Which statement is true regarding the effect of circulating epinephrine in the body? A- the heart rate will slow down. B- the heart contractility will decrease. C- Blood vessel to skeletal muscle will constrict. D- Transient Hyperglycemia will result. 80)- Which stamen characterized radiation therapy? A- Radiation is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures. B- radiation can cause reversible change in normal tissues. C- Effective killing of cancer cells using radiation requires poor local delivery of oxygen. D- Radiation block the normal grown pathways in cells. 81)-Which are systemic effect of inflammation? (select all that apply) A- Abscess formation B- Fever C- Leukocytosis D- Increased level of plasma proteins E- decreased level of plasma Proteins. 82)- which characteristics are observable of vascular injury and inflammation (select all that apply) A- redness B- coolness to the touch C- warmth to the touch D-increased swelling E-pain 83)- Which statement is true regarding the inflation response? A- Inflation response is the third line of defense. B- Inflation response relles on cellular components only C- inflation response generates a nonspecific response. D – inflation response occurs in nonvascular tissue. 84)- Which are the function og the pericardial sac? (select all that apply) A- Prevents displacement of the heart during gravitational acceleration or deceleration. B- Physical barrier that protects the heart against infection and inflammation. C- Forms a lining that is continuous with the arteries, veins, and capillaries of the Body. D- Contains pain receptor and mechanoreceptors that affect blood pressure. E- Creates a continuous closed Circulatory system. 85)- Which cardiac event represent the measure of time from the onset of atrial activation of the onset of ventricular activation? A- PR interval B- QRS complex C- ST interval D- QT Interval 86)- Which part of the heart is responsible for electrical impulse stimulation? A- Atrioventricular nole B- Sinus nole C- Bundle of his D Right Bundle branch