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Nursing 6512 Final Exam Questions with Answers, Exams of Nursing

A list of 85 questions and answers related to nursing and medical examinations. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including patient examination positions, cranial nerves, metabolic conditions, joint symmetry, and more. The answers provide correct solutions and explanations for each question. useful for nursing and medical students who are preparing for their final exams or for healthcare professionals who want to refresh their knowledge.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 02/08/2024

Topnurse01
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Download Nursing 6512 Final Exam Questions with Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Nursing 6512 Final Exam Questions with Answers 2024 /2025 Correctly Updated Solutions 1. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: The examiner can inspect the external and internal female genitalia and perform rectal examination to assess and palpate anal sphincter tone 2. To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with: One arm over her head and a pillow under her shoulder. 3. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: left ventricular hypertrophy. 4. Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify: ammonia-like suggests uremia, a renal condition; cinnamon- tuberculosis; musty fish or clover hepatic -failure; sweet and fruity - diabetic ketoacidosis; and foul or feculent- intestinal obstruction. 5. Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes? III Oculomotor Motor, IV Trochlear, VI Abducens. 6. Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Dementia 7. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: Cancer 8. A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is: Hockey or diving. 9. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Fingertips. 10. A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: Gout 11. Normal changes of the aging brain include: Diminished touch and pain 12. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? Cytology Smear 13. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: Are usual conditions during a pregnancy. 14. You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion? An individual or a patient with peripheral artery disease of claudication will have thin skin with localized pallor and cyanosis, a loss of body warmth in the affected area and loss of hair over the extremities. 15. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who: Getting lost in familiar territory is a sign of possible cognitive impairment. 16. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is: having a myocardial infarction. During the health history interview of his family history, he relates that his father had died of "heart trouble." The most important follow-up question you should pose is which of the following? What age what was your father at the time of his death. 35. A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: Suggest a pregnancy test. 36. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: Having the patient clench his or her teeth. 37. Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by: auscultating lung bases Because the patient has consolidation and has been recumbent and fatigued, the most appropriate first step is to listen to the lung bases before the patient gets exhausted. The lung bases would be the most likely sites for adventitious sounds 38. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: radiate to the axilla (radiates from the apex to base or to left axilla). 39. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: lie on their left side. 40. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: state of consciousness. 41. Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: a digital rectal exam. 42. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Press the introitus downward, insert the closed speculum obliquely. 43. If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a: glass slide and a fixative. 44. Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: Observing the infant suck and swallow. 45. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to mm Hg. By as much as 10 mm Hg and seems to be higher in the right arm. 46. During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a’s. This sound is indicative of: lung consolidation. 47. Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal: conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet. 48. The Denver II is a tool used to determine: whether the child is developing fine and gross motor, language, personal, and social skills as expected according to the .child’s age 49. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: pregnant women 50. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: P wave. 51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? The pulses are most readily felt over arteries that lie over bones. 52. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the at each site. Finger pads. 53. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: Lordosis 54. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: The left scrotal sac is lower than the right. 55. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: Basic ADL’s include bathing, dressing, toileting, ambulating and feeding. 56. A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a on the Glasgow Coma Scale. 3 57. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a: major vein 58. In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the patient is in what position? Upright. 59. A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: the person while he or she is: duck walking. 78. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? McMurray 79. Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? fever 80. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: the patient enters the examination room 81. The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: QRS 82. The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: scapular line 83. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): 84. You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis's heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is: moderately loud 85. When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the sign. 86. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes: using two hands and external and internal exam? 87. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: coordination and find motor skills. 88. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as:1 89. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: cerebellar ataxia 90. In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: crossing arms in front 91. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: sensory 92. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? Spinal 93. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: Rheumatoid arthritis 94. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: genetic disorders 95. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Presence and form of body parts. 96. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: Nerve root irritation (L4 L5 S1) 97. You are assessing Mr. Z.'s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient's edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as: 4+ 98. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: Raynaud’s 99. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: cranial 100. A cervical polyp usually appears as a: bright red, soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.
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