Nursing NR 507 patho Week 8 final examination, Exams of Nursing

Download Nursing NR 507 patho Week 8 final examination and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Submitted Dec 16 at 11:15pm This attempt took 75 minutes. Question 1 2/2 pts What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? ~ Refractory c Threshold o Sinoatrial (SA) c Hyperpolarization During the refractory period, no new cardiac action potential can be initiated by a stimulus. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the period described in the question. Question 2 2/2 pts What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? oe 106/58 mm Hg c 104/55 mm Hg c Hyperkalemia c Hypokalemia Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options. Question 6 2/2 pts How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? o An adult's chest wall compliance is the same as an infant's. c An adult's chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant's. oe An adult's chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. co An adult's chest wall compliance is higher than an infant's. Chest wall compliance is higher in infants than it is in adults, particularly in premature infants. Question 7 2/2 pts What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? c Hair loss ao Nausea c Weight loss oe Fatigue Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. Question 8 2/2 pts At birth, which statement is true? i Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. c Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. c Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. c Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. From the available options, the only change that takes place in the circulation at birth is the shift of gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs. Question 9 0/2pts What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Correct Answer c Vitamin B. by injection o Cyanocobalamin by oral intake oe Folate by oral intake c Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Replacement of vitamin B,, (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial injections of vitamin B,, are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected, followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual's life. The other options are not treatments for PA. Question 10 2/2 pts Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? Cholera oe Rocky Mountain spotted fever c Sleeping sickness Question 14 2/2 pts What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? c Starvation c Cardiovascular disease ~ Infectious disease c Traumatic injury Despite the wide-scale implementation of progressive public health and immunization policies, infectious disease remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. The other options are not significant causes. Question 15 2/2 pts Which renal change is found in older adults? c Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate o Decrease in urine output c Sharp decline in renal blood flow io Decrease in the number of nephrons With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily related to aging. Question 16 2/2 pts After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? c 24 to 36 co 18 to 20 e 6to 14 co 1to 2 Antibody appears rather rapidly after infection through blood products, usually within 4 to 7 weeks. After sexual transmission, however, the individual can be infected yet seronegative for 6 to 14 months or, in at least one case, for years. Question 17 2/2 pts Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? c Neisseria syphilis (i Treponema pallidum o Chlamydia trachomatis o Haemophilus ducreyi T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis. Question 18 2/2 pts The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? oe IgE IgG o T cells - IgM Type | reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type | reactions. In addition, most type | reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever. Question 19 2/2 pts c Chlamydia c Adenovirus Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV. Question 23 2/2 pts Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Alarm oe Adaptation c Flight or fight o Arousal Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and adaptation is not successful, ultimately causing impairment of the immune response, heart failure, and kidney failure, leading to death. The other stages occur before the adaptation stage. Question 24 2/2 pts Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? io Left ventricle c Left atrium c Right ventricle c Right atrium Pressure is greatest in the systemic circulation, driven by the left ventricle. Question 25 2/2 pts Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? oe Uromodulin o Urodilatin c Cystatin o Nephrin Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein, also Known as uromodulin, is the most abundant urinary protein, protects against bacterial adhesion and urolithiasis, and is a ligand for lymphokines. This statement is not true of the other options. Question 26 2/2 pts Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): o Functional scar c Thecal follicle o Atretic follicle oe Corpus luteum Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum. Question 27 2/2 pts The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: oe Health history c Computed tomographic (CT) scan co Skull x-ray studies Question 31 2/2 pts What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? c It becomes thinner. oe It becomes thicker. o It assumes a neutral pH. c It undergoes atrophy. Before puberty, vaginal pH is approximately 7 (neutral) and the vaginal epithelium is thin. At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. Cell atrophy is not associated with puberty. Question 32 2/2 pts Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? c Children have diarrhea more often than adults. c Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. oe Fluid reserves are smaller in children. c Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Infants have low fluid reserves and relatively rapid peristalsis and metabolism. Therefore the danger of dehydration is great. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the reason prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children. Question 33 2/2 pts The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: c Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations c HLA associations and positive family history c Autoantibodies and obesity ~ Obesity and positive family history The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are positive family history and obesity. The other options are not believed to be important risk factors for this form of diabetes. Question 34 2/2 pts What is the leading cause of infertility in women? i Polycystic ovary syndrome c Endometriosis c Pelvic inflammatory disease c Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States. Question 35 2/2 pts Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? c Tenfold ~ Fourfold c Threefold o Twofold Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent, even when raised by nonalcoholic parents, have a fourfold increased risk of developing the disorder. c Paroxysmal oe Tardive o Cardive Tardive dyskinesia is the involuntary movement of the face, trunk, and extremities. The other terms do not describe involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities. Question 40 2/2 pts Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? o Growth hormone c Oxytocin o Epinephrine oe Cortisol Cortisol and adrenal androgens are lipid-soluble hormones and are primarily bound to a carrier or transport protein in circulation. The other options are water-soluble hormones. Question 41 21/2 pts It is true that myasthenia gravis: o Is an acute autoimmune disease. oe Causes muscle weakness. o May result in adrenergic crisis. co Affects the nerve roots. Exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and recurs with resumption of activity characterizes myasthenia gravis. None of the other options are true of myasthenia gravis. Question 42 2/2 pts What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? c Increases serum magnesium. oe Decreases serum calcium. o Increases serum calcium. c Decreases serum magnesium. Hyperphosphatemia leads to hypocalcemia; the other options are incorrect. Question 43 2/2 pts An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? c Embryonic o Chorionic oe Alpha fetoprotein o Amniotic Other disorders can be detected with this procedure. These include most neural tube defects, which cause an elevation of alpha fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, and hundreds of diseases caused by mutations of single genes. The correct option is the only one that accurately identifies the protein responsible for a neural tube defect. Question 44 2/2 pts Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? o Chymotrypsin c Antidiuretic hormone Psychologic and physiologic stress (e.g., hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, exercise) increases ACTH secretion, leading to increased cortisol levels. Only cortisol describes the appropriate feedback loop. Question 48 2/2 pts In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: o Disruption of the pituitary i Physiologic hormonal delays c Deficit in estrogen or testosterone c Disruption in the hypothalamus In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes the most common cause of delayed puberty. Question 49 2/2 pts Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? c Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney ~ Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder c Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys c Colonization of the bladder when urine is static Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract. Question 50 2/2 pts Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? c Dementia syndrome c Delirium i Alzheimer disease co Parkinson disease Amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, as well as neuronal and synaptic losses in the brain, characterize Alzheimer disease. Question 51 2/2 pts Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? c Estrogen levels are low. c The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8. ~ Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. c A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection. Question 52 2/2 pts The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept? o Incidence Ratio Risk Oculomotor (CN III) The oculomotor CN (lll) is involved in this manifestation of pupil dilation. None of the other options would result in pupil dilation when subjected to pressure, Question 56 2/2 pts What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? o Gradual decrease in estrogen levels o Gradual increase in estrogen levels i Sudden increase of LH o Sharp rise in progesterone levels Menstrual cyclicity and regular ovulation are dependent on (1) the activity of the gonadostat (GnRH pulse generator); (2) the pituitary secretion of gonadotropins; and (3) estrogen (estradiol)-positive feedback for the preovulatory LH and FSH surges, oocyte maturation, and corpus luteum formation. Question 57 2/2 pts Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? oe Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally c Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles c Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e., tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia. Question 58 2/2 pts Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? c Lack of social interaction o Blunted affect oe Auditory hallucinations c Poverty of speech Positive symptoms frequently occur during a psychotic episode, when an individual loses touch with reality and experiences something that should be absent (e.g., hallucinations). The remaining options are classified as negative symptoms. Question 59 2/2 pts What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? oe Collagen fibers c Elastin fibers c Sharpey fibers c Glycoproteins Collagen fibers are important components of the cartilage matrix because they anchor the cartilage securely to underlying bone. This statement is not true of the other options. Question 60 2/2 pts At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? ~ Pyloric stenosis c Galactosemia o Congenital aganglionic megacolon in the kidneys can form urate renal stones and lead to renal failure. None of the other options are associated with the calcium crystals resulting from chronic gout. Question 64 2/2 pts The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder? oe Cri du chat o Down syndrome o Klinefelter syndrome o Turner syndrome This description is only accurate for Cri du chat syndrome. Question 65 2/2 pts Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? c Relative oe Modifiable Empirical c Genetic Obesity is a modifiable risk factor for many diseases including heart disease, stroke, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. The other terms do not apply. Question 66 2/2 pts Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? c Estrogen oe Luteinizing hormone (LH) co Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) o Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones. Question 67 2/2 pts Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? c Smoking ~ Hypertension c Polycythemia c Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus Hypertension is the single greatest risk factor for stroke. The other options are recognized risk factors but do not carry the intensity of hypertension. Question 68 2/2 pts When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? o Synergistic i Direct c Permissive c Pharmacologic Direct effects are the obvious changes in cell function that specifically result from the stimulation by a particular hormone. The other options are not used to identify the described effect. Water oe Sodium o Magnesium In the kidney, aldosterone primarily acts on the epithelial cells of the nephron-collecting duct to increase sodium ion reabsorption. This action cannot be said of the other options. Question 73 2/2 pts What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? c Hyperspadias ol Hypospadias c Chordee o Epispadias Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis. This is the only term used for this condition. Question 74 2/2 pts Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? e SSRIs c Estrogen co NSAIDs c Progesterone A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. Question 75 2/2 pts A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? co 12 GAD is diagnosed when an individual spends at least 6 months worrying excessively and exhibits at least three of the six symptoms. Although 3 months is not sufficient time, the remaining options are excessive.