Nursing Patho Final Exam Questions with Answers, Exams of Pathophysiology

Download Nursing Patho Final Exam Questions with Answers and more Exams Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity! Nursing Patho Final Exam Questions with Answers 1. Mr. E., a 48 year-old male, complains of shortness of breath and a productive cough early in the morning. He does not have an infection. He is diagnosed with COPD. Which of the following will the nurse likely find is an assessment and diagnostic workup of this client? a. Prolonged inspiration b. Prolonged expiration c. Hypocapnia d. Narrowed AP diameter 2. A major system of lactose deficiency is: a. Steatorrhe a b.Diarrhea c. Constipation and bloating d. Profuse diaphoresis 3. The client with Type 2 DM does not experience ketosis because: a. The clients blood sugar never exceeds 300 mg/dl b. The client does not require insulin c. There is enough insulin present in the client’s body to present the breakdown of fats d. Dehydration will occur before ketosis can occur 4. Which type of immune system is characterized by the development of a specific response to an antigen? a. Innate immunity b. Acquired immunity c. Autoimmunity d. Alloimmunity 5. Osteoarthritis is thought to result from an imbalance between: a. Mechanical stress and ability of the joint to resist the stress b. Stress and release of proteolytic enzymes c. Proteolytic enzymes and the load placed on the joint d. Systemic inflammation and depressed bone marrow 6. The nurse knows that which of the following foods is excluded from the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet? a. Poultry b. Steak c. Whole grains d. Nuts 7. Cancerous transformation of a cell requires the activation of a. Cell cycle apoptosis b. Multiple mutations c. A single gene mutation d. Tumor suppressor genes 8. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find in a client as a result of liver failure? a. creased serum creatinine b. Decreased sodium c. Increased ammonia d. Increased calcium 9. The ABG report for a 52-year-old showed the following: PaCO₂ = 48 mm Hg; PaO₂ = 62 mm Hg; HCO₃ = 25; and pH = 7.24. The ABG values indicate: a. Respiratory acidosis, hypocapnia b. Respiratory alkalosis, hypocapnia c. Respiratory acidosis, hypoxemia d. Respiratory alkalosis, hypoxemia 10. The compartment syndrome involves: a. A large compartment or area of localized hemorrhage b. Nerve and blood vessel compression caused by swelling of tissues enclosed within muscle fascia c. Bleeding into a joint space d. Presence of a loose body within a joint space 11. The client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. The nurse is especially vigilant assessing for which of the following signs and symptoms because of the history of diabetes? a. Edema of the stump b. Hemorrhage c. Separation of the wound edges d. Slight redness of the incision 12. Which GI alteration is associated with physiologic stress when ischemia, tissue acidosis, and accumulation of bile salts effect the gastric mucosa? a. Zellinger-Ellison syndrome b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Curling’s ulcer 13. A client is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis complicated by hepatic encephalopathy, he is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. In developing a two-part nursing diagnosis for this condition, what would be the second part following Disturbed Thought Processes? a. Massive ascites formation 22. A client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNK) is admitted. The nurse plans care based on the following pathology: a. Extreme hyperglycemia and increased serum osmolarity b. Water intoxication and swelling of nerve cells c. Extreme hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis d. Extreme hypoglycemia and ketoalkalosis 23. Which of the following intracranial volumes is least able to compensate for changes in intracranial pressure? a. Cerebrospinal fluid volume b. Blood volume c. Brain tissue volume d. They are all equally capable of compensation 24.A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forces expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of mediation right away? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Bronchodilators c. Steroids d. Antibiotics 25. A client that works in a community health clinic has been experiencing fatigue, headache, diminished appetite, and a yellowish discoloration of sclera for the past 2 months. He is diagnosed with hepatitis B and asks the nurse how he contracted hepatitis. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response? a. Airborne droplets carry the infectious hepatitis B virus b. The hepatitis B virus is transmitted parenterally and through intimate contact c. An individual may contract hepatitis B by using contaminated eating utensils d. Hepatitis B may be transmitted through eating shellfish from contaminated water sources 26. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. The nurse plans care for the consequences of nitrogenous wastes that accumulate in the blood stream. What does the nurse include in her plan of care? a. Dietary restrictions due to hypercholesterolemia b. Skin care due to azotemia c. Antibiotic therapy due to invading bacteria d. Blood sugar monitoring due to use of corticosteroids 27. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign are indicatives of tetany. Which of these electrolytes imbalances is indicated? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemi a c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia 28. A client has hepatitis (inflammation of the liver). Which of the following does the nurse plan routine assessments for? a. Dehydration and cardiac arrhythmias b. Jugular venous distension and pleural effusion c. Hypoactive bowel sounds and impaired skin integrity d. Edema and bleeding disorder 29. A student states, “It seems like helper T cells do a lot more than just ‘help’ the cellular immunity process.” Which of the following responses listed below best conveys an aspect of the role of CD4⁺ helper T cells in immunity? a. “Without helper T cells, no antigens would be presented.” b. “Helper T cells play a major role in stimulating and regulating the whole process.” c. “Without helper T cells, the wrong antibodies would end up being produced.” d. “Helper T cells are key to the hematopoiesis that produces all the components of the immune system.” 30. A client has just been told that he has an infection of the inner surface of the heart. He is also told that the bacteria has invaded his heart valves. What term is used for this disease process? a. Pericarditis b. Myocardial infarction c. Infective endocarditis d. Cardiomyopathy 31. A nurse is caring for a patient with a comminuted fracture. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the understanding that a comminuted fracture is: a. A partial break in bone continuity b. An injury in which two bones are crushed together c. An injury in which the bone fragments have broken through the skin d. An injury in which the bone is broken into more than two pieces 32. Which test provides a good measure of blood glucose levels over the previous 2 to 3 months? a. Glucose tolerance test b. Fasting blood glucose test c. Capillary blood monitoring test d. Glycosylated hemoglobin test 33. A client has been experiencing frequent episodes of “heartburn” and regurgitation of acrid, sour-tasting fluid. These episodes tend to occur especially after a heavy meal. The client is diagnosed with a hiatal hernia & GERD. Which statement by the client shows a good understanding of her treatment regimen? a. “I will elevate my legs when sleeping.” b. “I will increase the roughage in my diet.” b. Elbows and hips c. Hips and cervical spine d. Vertebrae 40. A client is in renal failure. The physician has ordered parenteral erythropoietin for this client. The nurse gives this medication with confidence, knowing the client has which of the following anemias? a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Chronic disease anemia c. Folic acid deficiency anemia d. Blood loss anemia (hypovolemic anemia) 41. The client with ascites has leakage of significant amounts of fluid into the peritoneal cavity. Which of the following is one of the primary mechanisms for ascites development in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Stones in the gall bladder cause bile to “eat through” into the peritoneal cavity b. Skip lesions develop in the peritoneum c. Portal hypertension causes an increase in capillary pressure and permeability d. An autoimmune response is initiated in the peritoneum 42. A 77 year-old male client with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The client and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they do not see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? a. The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies b. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the GI tract into the liver c. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence d. The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition 43. The nursing screening for diabetes mellitus at a health fair obtains these results. Which client should be referred to a primary healthcare provider for further evaluation? a. Random blood glucose 195 mg/dl b. Hemoglobin A1c 6.0% c. Urine ketones 0 d. Fasting blood glucose 89 mg/dl 44. A client is admitted into a health facility for treatment of an aneurysm. When planning the patient’s care, the nurse formulates the patient’s care with which of the following goals in mind? a. Decreasing blood pressure and increased mobility b. Increasing blood pressure and decreasing mobility c. Stabilizing the heart and blood pressure and decreasing anxiety d. Increasing blood pressure and monitoring fluid intake and output 45. The nurse is caring for a client with a major bowel obstruction. Which of the following are problems the nurse expects the client to have? a. Fever and infection b. Abdominal distention and loss of fluids and electrolytes c. Overhydration d. Hemorrhage 46. A client comes to the ER complaining of visual changes and severe headache. The nurse measures the BP, which is 210/120 mm Hg. However, the client denies having HBP or any other disorder. After diagnosing malignant hypertension, a life- threatening disorder, the physician initiates emergency intervention. What is the most common causes of malignant hypertension? a. Pyelonephritis b. Dissecting aneurysm c. Pheochromocytoma d. Untreated hypertension 47. One of the more serious complications that can develop in ulcerative colitis is: a. Familial polyps b. Ruptured diverticulum c. Colon cancer d. Osteoarthritis 48. The nurse had taught the client with chronic pancreatitis about risk factor modifications to reduce the incidence of recurrences. The nurse evaluates that the client has understand the information if the client states it will be necessary to control which of the following? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Alcohol intake c. Duodenal ulcer d. Crohn’s disease 49. The nurse is caring for a client with a long bone fracture. Which of the following is a life- threatening complication the nurse plans to access for? a. Compartment syndrome b. Fat embolism c. Nonunion d. Infection 50. Because of their rapid growth, malignant tumors affect area tissue by a. Increasing tissue blood flow b. Providing essential nutrients c. Liberating enzymes and toxins d. Forming fibrous membranes 51. Magnesium is important for the overall function of the body. Which of the following conditions can result to hypermagnesemia? a. Diarrhea b. Laxative abuse