PCT NHA EXAM -With 100% verified solutions 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

Download PCT NHA EXAM -With 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PCT NHA EXAM -With 100% verified solutions 2024- 2025 1. The lavender-topped tube contains: a. No additive b. SPS c. Na+ citrate d. EDTA d. EDTA 1. The additive in a gray-topped tube is: a. K+ oxalate b. Na+ citrate c. EDTA d. None of the above a. K+ oxalate 1. Which of the needle has the largest gauge? a. 16 g b. 20 g c. 21 g d. 25 g a. 16 g 1. Which of the following gauge needle is used for the typical adult venipuncture? a. 23 g b. 16 g c. 21 g d. 25 g c. 21 g 1. The venipuncture equipment that consists of a needle attached to a plastic tubing is known as: a. Syringe b. Evacuated tube c. Winged infusion set d. Micro-collection container c. Winged infusion set 1. All of the following are true about winged infusion sets EXCEPT: a. Commonly referred to as a butterfly b. Comes in needles sizes of 16g and 18g c. Used on fragile veins d. Preferred over a syringe b. Comes in needles sizes of 16g and 18g 1. You are about to draw a FBG on a patient and the patient states that he took his medications with some orange juice this morning. What would you do next? a. Draw the patient's blood b. Explain to the patient that you cannot draw his blood without speaking to his physician first c. Tell the patient to call his physician immediately Ask the patient to leave and come back tomorrow b. Explain to the patient that you cannot draw his blood without speaking to his physician first c. Bicuspid valve d. Tricuspid valve d. Tricuspid valve 1. The approximate time for one cardiac cycle is a. 1.0 sec b. 0.25 sec c. 0.8 sec d. 0.08 sec d. 0.08 sec 1. The lower chambers of the heart are the a. Ventricles b. Atria c. Septum d. Apex a. Ventricules 1. A term that means "deficiency of red blood cells" is a. Erythocytopenia b. Atheroma c. Erythrocytosis d. Hematemesis a. Erythopenia 1. The term thrombophlebitis means a. Pain in a vessel b. Inflammation of a vein in the presence of a clot c. Clotting cell d. None of the above b. Inflammation of the vein in the presence of a clot 1. The term angioedema means a. Swelling of an artery b. Narrowing of the aorta c. Swelling of a vessel d. Rupture of a lymphatic vessel c. Swelling of a vessel 1. Which of the following is the proper conduction sequence: a. SA node -> AV node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers b. AV node -> SA node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His c. SA node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> AV node d. SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His a. SA node -> AV node-> Bundle of His-> Purkinje fibers 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding myocardial infarction? a. Presenting symptoms may be different in women than in men b. Individuals with chest pain should immediately drive themselves to the hospital rather than waiting on an ambulance c. Confusion and hallucinations are a common symptom The test that is considered most reliable in diagnosing an MI is the ECG a. Presenting symptoms may be different in women than in men 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding heart failure? a. The right ventricle is the part of the heart most effected b. Those at greatest risk for developing heart failure include African Americans and the elderly c. The most common symptoms include pain in the chest, jaw, and left arm The most useful test for diagnosing heart failure is the ECG Those at greatest risk for developing heart failure include African Americans and the elderly 1. All of the following statements are true regarding aneurysm EXCEPT: a. It is an abnormal dilation of the wall of a blood vessel by more than 50% due to weakness in the vessel b. Brain aneurysms, which are usually congenital, are most common in adult women c. A common examination finding in those with brain aneurysm is a murmur d. Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm causes pain in the abdomen or back, and is a medical emergency c. A common examination finding in those with brain aneurysm is a murmur 1. A 67-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest and difficulty breathing. The PCT should respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. Escorting him to a treatment room, applying oxygen, and having him rest while waiting his turn to be seen b. "This will send information about my heart rate and rhythm to the medical office on a continuous basis." c. "This might send an electric shock to my heart if I need it." "This is the same size as a pacemaker." b. This will send information about my heart rate and rhythm to the medical office on a continuous basis 1. The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardiac pacemaker realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "This device will deliver electrical impulses to my heart to make it beat." b. "It will be implanted in my right chest wall beneath the skin." c. "There are many different types of pacemakers." d. "Since mine will be a rate-responsive pacemaker, it will sense my activity and increase or decrease the rate as I need it." b. It will be implanted in my right chest wall beneath the skin 1. The PCT understands the following about ECG waveforms: a. A large QRS waveform is an abnormal finding b. The simplest way to calculate the ventricular rate is to **** the number of R waves in a 6-second strip (30 large squares) and multiply by 10 c. The typical rate for normal sinus rhythm (NSR) is 40-60 Sinus bradycardia is always a life-threatening rhythm b. The simplest way to calculate the ventricular rate is to count the number of R waves in a 6-second strip (30 large squares) and multiply by 10 1. The PCT understands that the most life-threatening of the following cardiac rhythms is: a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Atrial flutter c. Sinus arrhythmia d. Sinus tachycardia a. ventricular fibrillation 1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? a. Spleen b. Heart c. Arteries d. Capillaries a. spleen 1. Which of the following is the correct term for absence of urine? a. Nonuria b. Anuria c. Dysuria d. Oliguria Anuria 1. If a patient is complaining of difficulty or painful urination, he is said to have a. Oliguria b. Polyuria c. Nocturia d. Dysuria d. Dysuria 1. If a urine specimen cannot be tested within 30-60 minutes, the PCT should a. Leave the specimen on the counter b. Put the urine in the incubator c. Put the urine in a specimen collection bag Put the urine in the refrigerator d. Put the urine in the refrigerator 1. All of the following are guidelines for handling urine reagent strips except: a. Store in the refrigerator when not in use b. Check the expiration date prior to use c. Check each strip for color changes prior to use d. Keep cover on container when not in use a. Store in the refrigerator when not in use 1. The pregnancy test tests for which of the following hormones? a. Growth hormone b. Progesterone c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Estrogen c. Human chorionic gonadotropin 1. A protocol is: 1. A patient appears cyanotic with moist clammy skin, nasal flaring, and wide frightened eyes. His is sitting bold upright, wheezing audibly, and his respiratory rate is 34. This man is experiencing a. Eupnea b. A panic attack c. Heat exhaustion d. Severe dyspnea d. Severe dyspnea 1. When the PCT notes a patient is experiencing severe dyspnea, her next best action is to a. Get the physician or a nurse immediately b. Walk the patient to an examination room c. Assist the patient in using his inhaler d. Obtain a complete set of vital signs a. Get the physician or nurse immediately 1. As an elderly couple enters the reception area of a family practice office, the wife begins shouting, "Please help my husband. He can't breathe!" As he collapses to the floor the PCT rushes to his side and determines that he is unresponsive. Her next best action is to a. Administer chest compressions and rescue breathing b. Obtain his vital signs c. Summon help immediately by calling a code d. Obtain his medical history from his wife c. Summon help immediately by calling a code 1. The term triage means to a. Sort b. Organize c. Orchestrate d. Treat a. sort 1. The role of the recorder in an emergency is to a. Perform a stat ECG b. Videotape the event c. Document the emergency and the care rendered in a chronological order Record all supplies and equipment used for billing and restocking purposes c. document the emergency and the care rendered in chronological order 1. The PCT should position the patient with epistaxis a. Lying down in the supine position b. In the side-lying position c. Sitting up, leaning forward d. In the prone position c. sitting up, leaning forward 1. There are several advantages to using tissue adhesive on minor lacerations. They include all of the following except: a. It may be quickly injected with a small-gauge needle b. It bonds naturally in under 3 minutes c. It is strong yet flexible It comes off naturally as wound healing occurs a. It may be quickly injected with a small-gauge needle 1. A patient in the reception area suddenly slides out of her chair to the floor and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The PCT's best response is to a. Move the patient to an examination room b. Insert a tongue blade to keep her from swallowing her tongue c. Restrain her d. Remove nearby objects d. Remove nearby objects 1. The PCT is interviewing a 24-year-old man who was hit on the head with a softball. Which of the following is least helpful in eliciting useful information? a. "Please describe the event as it occurred." b. "Do you have any neck pain?" c. "Describe your symptoms." d. "Who threw the ball?" d. Who threw the ball? 1. A 24-year-old man enters the urgent-care clinic accompanied by his friend. He is holding an icepack to the side of his head and states that he was hit by a softball during a game. Which of the following questions by the PCT will best elicit data about the severity and extent of his injury? a. "When did this happen?" a. On the top of the foot b. Behind the knee c. Inside the ankle bone In the groin b. behind the knee 1. The PCT is required to take a temperature reading on an unconscious patient. Which of the following sites will she most likely take the reading from? a. Axillary b. Oral c. Rectal d. None of the above c. Rectal 1. Which of the following abbreviations means "before meals"? a. ac b. aq c. bc d. pc a. ac 1. Which of the following abbreviations mean "whenever necessary, or as needed"? a. qod b. npo c. noc d. prn d. Prn 1. A patient just had blood drawn for a PT and PTT. Which of the following laboratory departments will test the specimen? a. Hematology b. Chemistry c. Blood bank Coagulation d. Coagulation 1. The steps taken to resolve an issue with QC that is out of range is known as a. Corrective action b. Documentation c. Calibration d. Preventive maintenance a. Corrective action 1. Quality-control procedures are a. Set by a state's department of health b. Used to ensure the reliability and accuracy of patient's lab results c. Performed after patient testing is completed Performed on unknown samples b. used to ensure the reliability and accuracy of a patient's lab results 1. Which of the following is a benefit of glycosylated hemoglobin levels on a patient with dibetes? a. It replaces daily glucose monitoring b. It provides the physician with the patient's tolerance to insulin c. It allows the patient to decrease her insulin intake d. It provides information on the effectiveness of long-term blood glucose regulation d. It provides information on the effectiveness of long-term blood glucose regulation 1. Which of the following test is used to diagnose hypoglycemia? a. FBG b. 3 hr GTT c. 6 hr GTT d. 2 hr pp c. 6hr GTT 1. Which of the following is NOT a part of the electrolyte panel? a. Ca+ b. Mg+ c. Na+ I don't agree. Na+ is an electrolyte. My answer to this would be D as oxygen is part of the ABG d. O2 c. Na+ 1. Which of the following is the term used to describe thickening of artery walls? a. Arteritis 1. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for a patient undergoing a cervical examination? a. Sitting b. Supine c. Dorsal recumbent d. Lithotomy d. lithotomy 1. Which of the following is the most common solution used to cleanse a wound during a dressing change? a. Sterile saline b. Betadine c. Isopropyl alcohol None of the above a. Sterile saline 1. Which of the following is considered a break in the sterile field? a. Covering a sterile field prior to the procedure with a sterile drape b. Facing the sterile field at all times c. Maintaining hands below the waist Hair tied back c. maintaining hands below the waist 1. Which of the following terms means "much thirst"? a. Macroplasia b. Aphagia c. Hyperphasia d. Polydipsia d. Polydipsia 1. Which of the following best describes what a directional term is? a. A term used to indicate a specific disease b. A term used to indicate specific areas of the body c. A term used to indicate the origin of a disease d. A term used to indicate the origin of insertion for a limb b. A term use to indicate specific areas of the body 1. Which of the following is the definition of "cutaneous"? a. Pertaining to the surface of the head b. Pertaining to the cervix c. Pertaining to the skin Pertaining to the back c. Pertaining to the skin 1. The physician wrote a prescription for the patient to take "2 tabs pot id." The PCT would then explain to the patient that he is to take the medication a. Once each day b. Twice each day c. Three times each day d. Four times each day c. Three times each day 1. The patient tells her physician that her mother died of heart disease and her father died of cancer. The physician will record this information in the patient's medical record under a. Dx b. NG c. PMH d. FH d. FH 1. A patient aspirated during a choking episode. Which of the following conditions may this patient develop? a. Pharyngitis b. Asthma c. Lung cancer d. Pneumonia d. Pneumonia 1. The PCT has just administered a PPD on a patient. What should the PCT tell the patient next? a. Call the office if the site remains elevated for more than 24 hours b. Make an appointment with the receptionist for a chest x-ray c. Keep the injection site covered for 3 days d. Come back to the office is 48-72 hours to have the injection site observed d. Come back to the office is 48-72 hours to have the injection site observed