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Perioperative Nursing Exam Questions and Answers for Periop 101 Final Exam 2024/2025, Exams of Nursing

Questions and answers for the periop 101 final exam in the field of perioperative nursing for the academic year 2024/2025. The questions cover various topics such as patient assessment, infection control, anesthesia, and surgical procedures.

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2023/2024

Available from 04/05/2024

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Download Perioperative Nursing Exam Questions and Answers for Periop 101 Final Exam 2024/2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a - CORRECT ANSWERS Evidence-based practice questions are typically formatted as PICO questions. What does PICO stand for? a) Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome b) Patient, Investigation, Comparison, Outlier c) Population, Intervention, Counter-Intervention, Outlier d) Problem, Investigation, Counter-Intervention, Outcome d - CORRECT ANSWERS Every member of the healthcare team has a role to play in cost containment. Which of the following is an example of how the perioperative RN can participate in cost containment in the OR? a) Ask the surgeon to use a less expensive implant b) Begin cleaning the OR for the next case before the patient leaves the room c) Open all supplies listed on preference card, including "available" supplies d) Verify with surgeon before opening suture c - CORRECT ANSWERS An RN who attends continuing nursing education and has verified skills, knowledge, and attitudes about perioperative nursing is demonstrating accountability in his/her: a) Certification requirements for professional achievement in perioperative nursing b) Collaboration among team members c) Professional growth and maintenance of competency d) Verification of nursing knowledge d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning use of the AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice? Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a) Both medical and nursing licensing boards require health care institutions to comply with the AORN guidelines b) The AORN Guidelines legally supersede departmental and institutional policies c) The AORN Guidelines reflect scientific evidence of how nurses actually practice in perioperative settings d) Work setting and situation variations may determine the extent to which AORN Guidelines can be applied c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following is NOT an example of an ethical dilemma that perioperative nurses may encounter? a) Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order for a surgical patient b) Family disagreement regardings possible organ donation c) Family disagreement about a below the knee amputation on an 18 year old who has already given consent d) Human experimentation b - CORRECT ANSWERS The phrase "At least one individual failed to do what a similarly situated, reasonable, and prudent professional would have done under similar circumstances" is the definition of: a) Abandonment b) Negligence c) Unethical behavior d) Malpractice d - CORRECT ANSWERS All of the following are accurate descriptions of "professional accountability" EXCEPT: a) Becoming certified in your specialty Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c - CORRECT ANSWERS You have completed your case and must now transport your patient to PACU. To give report to the PACU nurse, your facility requires that you provide report in SBAR, which stands for: a) Safety, Background, Actions, Recovery, Expectations b) Safety concerns, Background, Assessment, Responsibilities c) Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendations d) Surgeon, Background, Assessment, Recovery time c - CORRECT ANSWERS You have just transferred your patient into the Phase I PACU. Which activities would you expect to observe FIRST? a) Administering medication for nausea and vomiting b) Asking patients if they have any pain c) Assessing patient airway and respirations d) Caring for patients in 1:3 ratio c - CORRECT ANSWERS A hand-over communication report is given by the anesthesia professional and the _________________? a) Surgical resident b) Medical student c) OR nurse d) Inpatient nurse c - CORRECT ANSWERS What should be included as part of the psychological nursing assessment? a) Anxiety, temperature, and religious beliefs Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Anxiety, temperature, and cultural practices c) Cultural beliefs, perception of surgery, and religious beliefs d) Cultural practice, religious beliefs, and age a - CORRECT ANSWERS During a preoperative interview, a patient reports that a surgical prep solution made him breakout in hives after a previous surgical procedure. What action should the perioperative RN take? a) Alert the surgeon and discuss the selection of preoperative skin antiseptic. b) Ask the surgeon for an antihistamine to be administered preoperatively c) Monitor the patient more closely after administrating preoperative sedation d) Notify the anesthesia professional of a potential interaction with anesthetic agents e - CORRECT ANSWERS During the preoperative interview, the perioperative RN should ask the patient's about their use of: a) Alcohol b) Herbal preparations c) Recreational Drugs d) Tobacco products e) All of the above a - CORRECT ANSWERS The PRIMARY purpose of conducting a preoperative assessment is to: a) Define the patient's risk factors and develop a plan of care b) Determine the length of the procedure and needed supplies c) Introduce the patient to the surgical team Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) Provide information necessary for discharge a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following sensory assessment findings is common among elderly patients? a) Decrease in vision including color and depth perception b) Decreased ability to understand explanations c) Increased perception of pain d) Memory impairment c - CORRECT ANSWERS A child in which of the following age groups can be described as "likes to socialize and can interpret terms"? a) 1 to 12 months b) 1 to 3 years c) 3 to 6 years d) 6 to 12 years d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following statements is true? a) Blood pressure remains constant with age b) Body temperature increases with increasing age c) Heart rate increases with increasing age d) Lung capacity decreases with increasing age a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following factors make geriatric patients more sensitive to injury and cold? a) Decrease in subcutaneous fat b) Lung capacity decreases with age Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b - CORRECT ANSWERS Obtaining informed consent is a two-step process of: a) Weighing the benefits and burdens of tx options b) Communicating information and documenting the decision c) Determining patient competency and authenticity of the signature d) Communicating the plan of care and reaching a decision b - CORRECT ANSWERS How does the perioperative nurse test patient's level of understanding? a) By checking to see whether the patient feels knowledgable enough to sign the consent b) By asking questions about the procedure and evaluating the answer c) By offering reassurance d) By returning at another time to test recall c - CORRECT ANSWERS A preoperative patient's do-not-resuscitate order is: a) Irrevocable and unchanged once established b) Not intended to be upheld in the perioperative environment c) Reconsidered to ensure that the risks and benefits of anesthesia and surgery are discussed before surgery d) Not reinstated until the patient leaves the perioperative environment 3, 2, 1 - CORRECT ANSWERS Match the designated surgical area with the correct surgical zone: a) Perioperative patient care area Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Work area for processing instruments c) Individual OR suite with sterile supplies opened 1 - Restricted 2 - Semi-restrict 3 - Unrestricted *(Answer with and separate numbers w/commas) *(Use numbers to correctly match w/"a, b, c" order) b - CORRECT ANSWERS Clean supplied do NOT need to be separated from sterile supplies inside the surgical suite: a) True b) False b - CORRECT ANSWERS The relative humidity in the OR suite should be maintained within a range of: a) 20-30% b) 20-60% c) 30-70% d) 40-50% c - CORRECT ANSWERS A surgical mask should cover both mouth and nose, and should be: a) Allowed to hang around the neck between procedures b) Changed after two hours of use Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Removed and discarded after every case d) Tied snugly with strings crossed b - CORRECT ANSWERS The ventilation system in the restricted area of the OR should have an air exchange rate of at least _____ air exchanged per hour. a) 5 b) 20 c) 10 d) 15 a - CORRECT ANSWERS The pathology laboratory and blood bank are usually situated in which of the following areas? a) Unrestricted area b) Semi-restricted area c) Restricted area d) Fully-restricted area c - CORRECT ANSWERS ___________________________ stockings are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis during a surgical procedure. a) Symmetrical compression b) Spatial compression c) Sequential compression d) Secondary compression Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the BEST method for keeping instruments clean on the sterile field? a) Soak instruments in a basin of normal saline b) Wipe instruments with a sponge moistened with sterile water c) Spray instruments with an enzymatic detergent d) Wipe instruments with a sponge moistened with sterile water and flush lumens with sterile water 2, 3, 1 - CORRECT ANSWERS Select the appropriate Spaulding Classification System category for each item listed: a) Blood pressure cuff b) Laryngoscope blade c) Orthopedic implants 1 - Critical 2 - Non-critical 3 - Semi-critical *(Answer with and separate numbers w/commas) *(Use numbers to correctly match w/"a, b, c" order) a - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the FIRST step in reprocessing surgical instruments after they have been used in a procedure? a) Cleaning b) Decontamination c) Disinfection Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) Transport to the sterilizer b - CORRECT ANSWERS Biological monitoring: a) Is utilized to document the sterility of an item b) Indicates that the intended physical conditions in the sterilizer were met c) Can be read immediately after the sterilization cycle is complete d) Should never be used in immediate use steam sterilizers (IUSS) c - CORRECT ANSWERS A ___________ does not permit a person to excuse an error but rather to admit and rectify one readily. a) Adherence to aseptic technique b) Practice of professional c) Surgical conscience d) Just culture c - CORRECT ANSWERS Endoscopic instrumentation maintenance may be enhanced by the following EXCEPT a) Cleaning off external debris during the case b) Flushing channels with sterile water during surgery to remove gross soil c) Irrigating channels with normal saline at the end of each case d) Testing scissors for sharpness prior to sterilization b - CORRECT ANSWERS According to AORN Recommended Practices, the shelf life of a sterile package kept in storage is: a) Time-related b) Event-related Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Content-related d) Sterilization-related b - CORRECT ANSWERS According to Spaulding's Classification System, to prepare items such as blood pressure cuffs for patient use the appropriate process is: a) Decontamination b) Low-level disinfection c) High-level disinfection d) Sterilization b - CORRECT ANSWERS An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure which of the following parameters? a) Pressure, steam, and temperature b) Temperature, time, and presence of steam c) Pressure and sterility b - CORRECT ANSWERS In which surgical wound category should a total abdominal hysterectomy be classified? a) Clean b) Clean contaminated c) Contaminated d) Dirty b - CORRECT ANSWERS Immediate use steam sterilization can be used: a) For implants Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a) All contaminated disposable items should be considered potentially infectious b) Place soiled linens in cloth bags that can be laundered along with the linens c) Use a spray bottle with hospital approved disinfectant to clean small spills d) Use personal protective equipment when handling body fluid spills a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following is a method for preventing blood-borne pathogen exposure? a) Changing gloves after each patient or procedure b) Using surgical gowns made from material that allow air and fluid to move freely in order to minimize thermal discomfort of the team during the case c) Wearing exam gloves under surgical gloves as an additional barrier d) Wearing reading glasses to improve sight accuracy during the procedure c - CORRECT ANSWERS The best method that a perioperative nurse can utilize to prevent the spread of infection is to: a) Isolate all patients who are suspected of having an infection b) Rinse hands with a strong antiseptic solution c) Wash hands before and after each patient contact d) Wear sterile gloves while performing nursing procedures b - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following strategies should be considered for implementing successful infection control? a) Leaving the syringe in a vial of bupivacaine to facilitate dispensing additional medication if needed during the case b) Washing your hands prior to greeting the patient in the pre-operative area Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Wearing an extra warm-up jacket when prepping the patient who has an infected wound d) Wiping down the OR table with saline at the end of each case to prevent mattress deterioration 3 - CORRECT ANSWERS Vaccine-preventable disease against which health care providers should be immunized include: a) Hepatitis B b) Seasonal influenza c) Tuberculosis d) Varicella 1 - B and C 2 - A and D 3 - A, B, and D 4 - A, B, C, and D *Answer with the correct NUMBER only. c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the three elements required for an infection to occur is related to inanimate environmental surfaces? a) Method of transmission b) Susceptible host c) Source or reservoir Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following observations are critical when doing skin antisepsis on pediatric patients? a) Take measures to prevent the loss of body heat b) The relatively small bodies of ped. patients require smaller amounts of antimicrobial agents c) Children are not sensitive to chemical agents d) The whole body must be prepped irrespective of the operative site b - CORRECT ANSWERS If a highly contaminated area is part of the surgical procedure, the area with lower bacterial count should be: a) Confined and contained b) Prepped first c) Prepped last d) Prepped with gentle friction a - CORRECT ANSWERS A patient is scheduled for reconstruction of her external ear following a dog bite injury. Which skin prep agent is indicated for use in this case? a) Aqueous iodophor b) CHG-alcohol c) CHG d) Iodophor-alcohol c - CORRECT ANSWERS A patient is scheduled for reconstruction of her external ear following a dog bite injury. Which of the following skin prep agents is contraindicated for this case: a) Alcohol Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) Clip c, e, a, d, b - CORRECT ANSWERS Identify the correct sequence for prepping: a) Dip the sponge into the antimicrobial solution, squeezing out any excess liquid b) Once the prepping is completed, discard the sponge into a trash container c) Perform hand hygiene d) Beginning at the site of the incision, use friction and scrub in a circular motion e) Don sterile gloves and prepare the prep set *Use the letters separated w/commas to indicate correct order (first through last step) a - CORRECT ANSWERS Iodophors with added detergent are referred to as "________," and those without added detergents are referred to as "________." a) Scrubs; paints b) Paints; scrubs c) Gels; film-forming d) Scrubs; gels a - CORRECT ANSWERS Transient microorganisms live in the ______ layer of the skin. a) Epidermal b) Dermal c) Fatty (adipose) Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) All of the above a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which nerve is MOST frequently injured as a result of improper positioning of the patients arms? a) Brachial plexus b) Lumbar plexus c) Sciatic d) Radial c - CORRECT ANSWERS The basic surgical positions, each with their own variations are: a) Kraske, Sitting, Supine b) Supine, Prone, Kraske c) Supine, Prone, Lateral d) Prone, Supine, Lithotomy d - CORRECT ANSWERS In the planning and provision for safe patient care related to the prevention of positioning injury, the perioperative RN should: a) Depend on the patient's natural defense mechanisms to indicate the need for positioning alterations b) Rely on the surgeon's and anesthesia providers' assessments to guide positioning c) Use a consistent method of procedure-specific positioning for each patient d) Use additional precautions as appropriate based on unique patient considerations Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b - CORRECT ANSWERS What is an important consideration related to transferring a patient who has received general anesthesia from the OR bed to a gurney for transport to PACU? a) One staff member should routinely be available for pt transfers b) Transfer with a minimum of four staff members in attendance c) Pre-medicate the pt to make them less anxious during transport d) Wait until the pt is fully awake and able to transfer him/herself from the OR bed to the gurney b - CORRECT ANSWERS An area of painful skin that is abraded, blistered, or has shallow craters would be classified as which stage ulcer? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV a - CORRECT ANSWERS What physiological effect is MOST likely to result from positioning a patient in the lithotomy position? a) Hip dislocation b) Venous pooling in the legs c) Damage to the brachial nerve d) Severe hypertension b - CORRECT ANSWERS The table is flexed 90° for the _______ position, which is a variation of the ______ position, a) Lateral, prone b) Jack-knife (Kraske), prone Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Inform the RN supervisor and ask for assistance c) Notify and receive verbal acknowledgment of the discrepancy from the surgeon d) Re-open all bagged and discarded sponges, and recount them c - CORRECT ANSWERS According to the Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery, what is an acceptable method to identify a patient? a) Ask a patient his or her room number b) Confirm the patient's name by reviewing the surgical consent c) Ask the patient to state his/her full name and date of birth d) Check the patient's armband for a hospital MRN and social security number 1, 3, 2 - CORRECT ANSWERS Match the latex sensitivity categories with their correct description: a) Delayed Type IV Hypersensitivity b) Immediate Type I c) Irritant contact dermatitis 1 - Localized delayed allergic reaction occurring 24-72 hrs. after exposure 2 - Non-allergic skin reaction usually aggravated by glove powder and chemical agents added to raw latex 3 - Occurs within 5-30 min. after exposure. The onset may be delayed 10-12 hrs. *Use numbers separated w/commas to match Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ 3, 1, 2 - CORRECT ANSWERS An immediate latex allergy response has three stages. Match the following stages with the appropriate symptoms: a) Can progress to a sudden drop in blood pressure, increased HR, and potential circulatory collapse b) Contact urticaria presenting as redness and swelling at the site of exposure c) Response spreads beyond the area of contact and can include itching around the eyes, shortness of breath, and acute rhinitis 1 - Stage I 2 - Stage II 3 - Stage III *Use numbers separated w/commas to match c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following actions should NOT be included in the perioperative nursing care of a patient with a suspected latex allergy? a) Assess the patient's cross-sensitivities and previous reactions to latex b) Indicated latex precautions on door signs for every room that the patient occupies c) Schedule the patient as the last procedure of the day if possible d) Use latex-free supplies for IVs, hair covering and dressing material e) Verify that the surgeon is aware of the allergy Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which practice will MOST likely reduce the patient's risk of intraoperative skin injury? a) Allowing prep solutions to dry before draping b) Leaving blotting towels in place to absorb any blood from the wound c) Using a draw sheet to pull the pt from the stretcher to the OR table d) Removing skin prepping agent prior to start of case d - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the BEST way to conduct a Time Out? a) Perform the Time Out in the pre-procedure area if all team members are present. b) Perform the Time Out when the pt enters the room so that s/he may participate. c) The circulating RN leads the Time Out and documents it on the count board within the OR for all to agree d) The Time Out occurs after the patient is prepped, draped, and involves the entire team a - CORRECT ANSWERS When is NOT considered the best time to do a surgical count for sponges, sharps, and instruments? a) When the wound has been completely closed b) Before the procedure begins c) When wound closure begins d) Before a cavity closure c - CORRECT ANSWERS When a count discrepancy occurs, what should be the FIRST action taken by the RN Circulator? a) Call for anterior and lateral x-ray Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which characteristic promotes a culture of safety within a health care organization? a) Commitment to safety as the first priority in providing care b) Ongoing education to staff members about patient safety c) Trust among healthcare team members d) All of the above c - CORRECT ANSWERS What is included in the Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery? a) Briefing and time out b) Preoperative verification and handover report c) Preoperative verification, surgical site marking, and time out d) Surgical site marking and time out e) Transfer de-briefing, site marking, and time out c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following practices should be used to implement the Joint Commission's Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery? a) Asking the patient to mark the correct surgical site with an "X" b) Asking the patient to verify the expected procedure in writing c) Using a time-out procedure before beginning the procedure d) Using three unique patient identifiers c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following "AORN Position Statement on Correct Site Surgery" statement is true? a) Family members should not be involved in identifying the correct site Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) The surgical site should be marked with a washable marker c) The staff member should verbally verify the correct site with each member of the surgical team d) Wrong-site surgery is most common in ophthalmologic procedures c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following is not a characteristic that promotes a culture of safety within a health care organization? a) Commitment to safety as the first priority in providing care b) Dissemination of information to all levels of staff c) Prompt disciplinary action when errors occur d) Trust among healthcare team members c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which type of human factor is responsible for an error that occurs when a perioperative nurse is trying to attend several tasks at once? a) Device user error b) Knowledge-based c) Situational d) Skill-based a - CORRECT ANSWERS The primary reason for documenting sharp, sponge, and instrument counts is: a) To prevent injury to the patient from a retained foreign object b) To maintain an inventory for the sterile processing dept. c) To provide an accurate item charge for the pt d) To track instruments that might be needed for the next procedure Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c - CORRECT ANSWERS According to the AORN Guidelines, what is the correct documentation for this medication? a) M.S. 2.0 mg b) MS 2 mg c) Morphine sulfate 2 mg d) Morphine sulfate 2.0 mg c - CORRECT ANSWERS A neighbor call the preoperative area and asks the perioperative RN, "How is my friend? I missed her at church and I heard she was in the hospital." What is the RN's appropriate response? a) "Here's her daughter's telephone number; she can give you more information." b) "She's doing well but I cannot give you any more information." c) "The patient has requested that we share her information only with her family." d) "We are getting ready for surgery so you can talk with her in a few hours." a - CORRECT ANSWERS Perioperative nursing care documentation must include a description of the patient care delivered and the patient response to that care. a) True b) False a - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the perioperative RN's responsibility regarding informed consent? a) Ensure that the consent is correct, signed, and witnessed Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) Hypertension d - CORRECT ANSWERS If the patient is scheduled for surgery and general anesthesia eats a cheeseburger, according to the American Society of Anesthesiologists, how long should they wait before having anesthesia for surgical procedure? a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) 8 hours 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 - CORRECT ANSWERS Match the anesthesia term to its definition a) General b) Regional c) Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) d) Moderate sedation e) Local 1 - Administration of anesthetic agents by an anesthesiologist, CRNA, or specially trained perioperative RN 2 - An injection of local anesthetics near nerve fibers to cause a reversible loss of sensation over an area of the body 3 - Anesthesia provider monitoring and sedation of the patient 4 - Drug-induced, reversible state of unconsciousness 5 - Infiltration or topical administration of agents to anesthetize a body part Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ *Use numbers separated w/commas to match b - CORRECT ANSWERS Which type of anesthesia care can a perioperative RN manage after receiving education and competency verification? a) General b) Local c) MAC d) Regional b - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the most consistent indicator of MH during a surgical intervention? a) Tachycardia b) Unexplained increase in end-tidal CO2 c) Elevated temperature d) Sustained muscle contraction a - CORRECT ANSWERS A 79-y/o patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being induced under general anesthesia. The anesthesiologist notices an unexplained tachycardia, tachypnea, and jaw tightness. The capnography shows an elevated end-tidal CO2. What is the immediate action the perioperative RN should take to treat this suspected MH? a) Call for the MH cart and Dantrolene b) Initiate cooling measures c) Administer sodium bicarb d) Change the soda lime canister Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c - CORRECT ANSWERS A precise way of looking at general anesthesia is to divide it into 3 phases: a) Phase I: Initial Administration, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Excitement b) Phase I: Initial Administration, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Emergence c) Phase I: Induction, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Emergence d) Phase I: Induction, Phase II: Intrasurgery, Phase III: Excitement b - CORRECT ANSWERS During intubation, the patient has chest movement but no air exchange. The perioperative RN's first priority is to: a) Prepare for re-intubation b) Assure that suction is available for the anesthesia care provider c) Provide racemic epinephrine for the anesthesia care provider d) Provide positive-pressure ventilation b - CORRECT ANSWERS In addition to giving Dantrolene, which of the following treatment options for MH should the RN anticipate and prepare? a) Cool pt, restart succinylcholine at lower doses b) Provide 100% oxygen, use iced saline to cool pt c) Replace potassium loss, continue w/safe anesthetic agents d) Avoid pt shivering, contact blood bank for platelets c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which is NOT a local anesthetic drug used for regional anesthesia? a) Bupivacaine b) Lidocaine c) Fentanyl Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Notify the surgeon c) Notify the supervisor d) Document the incident b - CORRECT ANSWERS The perioperative RN who is circulating for a breast lumpectomy should anticipate the need to add which suction drain to the sterile field? a) Nasogastric tube b) Jackson-Pratt c) Penrose drain d) T-tube c - CORRECT ANSWERS These types of sponges prove blunt dissection as they absorb fluids: a) Neuro-patties b) Laparotomy sponges c) Cherry dissectors d) Radiopaque sponges a - CORRECT ANSWERS What are the three methods used to accomplish hemostasis? a) Mechanical, chemical, and thermal b) Mechanical, physical, and chemical c) Physical, pharmacological, and chemical d) Thermal, harmonic, and ESU Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a - CORRECT ANSWERS Surgical tissue banking is: a) The retrieval, processing, preserving, and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient or into another patient b) The retrieval and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation into another patient c) The preserving and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient or into another patient d) The retrieval, preserving, and storing of human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient c - CORRECT ANSWERS What is recommended for managing excised breast cancer tissue specimens? a) Keep the tissue dry until transfer from the sterile field b) Place the breast cancer specimen on a sterile, dry, nonabsorbent material before placing it into a sterile container for transport to pathology c) The time from excision to fixation of the breast cancer specimens should be less than one hour 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 - CORRECT ANSWERS Match the specimen type with the appropriate description: a) Frozen b) Culture c) Cytology d) Routine e) Forensic 1 - Does not require immediate pathology examination Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ 2 - For studying cell biology 3 - Requires immediate pathology examination 4 - Retrieved from the patient involved as a suspect or victim in a crime 5 - Suspected of infection *Use numbers w/commas to match the correct order e - CORRECT ANSWERS What is a safety practice that decreases exposure and fire from specimen fixatives such as formalin? a) Bringing several containers into the OR suite during a surgery in which ESU equipment is used b) Keeping the formalin container open and ready to receive a specimen from the scrub person c) Placing formalin containers on top of the ESU during surgery d) Storing formalin in a location that provides convenient access for all employees e) Wearing PPE and avoiding splashing when dispensing formalin b - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the MOST serious negative outcome that can result from the loss, mislabeling, or mishandling of a surgical specimen? a) The medical facility could be sued for negligence b) The patient's condition could be misdiagnosed c) The medical facility's reputation could be damaged d) The patient may be dissatisfied with the treatment received a - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the rationale for wearing gloves when handling or transporting surgical specimen? a) To avoid exposure to biohazardous substances Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d - CORRECT ANSWERS How should a perioperative RN transfer medication from a medication vial to the sterile field? a) Clean the vial stopper with alcohol and hold the vial steady while the scrub person draws up the medication b) Remove the stopper from the vial and pour the solution into a container on the sterile field c) Transfer all prescribed intraop. medications into a container on the sterile field d) Use a commercially available sterile transfer device e - CORRECT ANSWERS When medication is administered from the sterile field, it is removed from an original container by the RN circulator and presented to the scrub person. It should be immediately and clearly labeled with everything EXCEPT: a) Concentration and amount b) Date prepared c) Expiration date when not used w/in 24 hrs. d) Expiration time if less than 24 hrs. e) Initials of the pharmacist d - CORRECT ANSWERS After receiving a handoff report at a shift change, the perioperative RN notices an unlabeled solution on the sterile field. What should the perioperative RN do? a) Ask the scrub person to label the container with the name of the empty medication bottle on the case cart b) Continue caring for the patient c) Discuss the situation w/the surgeon to determine the best plan d) Instruct the scrub person to discard the solution Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following is a strategy to reduce medication errors? a) Knowing the prescribing surgeon's preferences b) Transferring all required intraoperative medications into a container on the sterile field before the start of surgery c) Using computerized physician order entry for medication management d) Using multi-dose versus single-use medication vials b - CORRECT ANSWERS The perioperative RN prepares the medications and solutions after receiving orders from everyone EXCEPT: a) Anesthesiologist b) First Assistants c) Surgeons d) Advanced Practice Nurses c - CORRECT ANSWERS _________ can also be used in spray form. a) Plasma-Lyte pH 7.4 b) Microfibrillar Collagen c) Topical Thrombin d) Liquaemin c - CORRECT ANSWERS By which route are antibiotics most commonly administered by the perioperative RN during the intraoperative phase? a) Intramuscular b) Intravenous Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Irrigation Solution d) Subcutaneous d - CORRECT ANSWERS A patient is undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) under spinal anesthesia starts to experience chest pain and restlessness with all the signs of congestive heart failure. The most likely cause is: a) Too high a level of anesthesia b) An adverse reaction to the bladder's being filled and emptied rapidly during surgery c) Hemorrhage from opening the venous sinuses d) Absorption of irrigation fluid causing fluid overload 2, 3, 1 - CORRECT ANSWERS Match the hemostatic agent to the corresponding method: a) Bone wax b) Laser c) Thrombin 1 - Chemical method 2 - Mechanical method 3 - Thermal method *Use numbers w/commas to match c - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following describes capacitive coupling? Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Watch the surgery carefully d) Use instruments that have damaged insulation b - CORRECT ANSWERS Identify one of the characteristic differences between laparoscopic instruments and those used in open procedures. a) All laparoscopic scissors are "taken-apart" b) Laparoscopic instruments have long, thin shafts to accommodate trocar cannulas c) One cannot dissect tissue with laparoscopic instruments d) All laparoscopic instruments are disposable a - CORRECT ANSWERS Which region of the patient's abdomen is traditionally used to establish pneumoperitoneum for laparoscopic surgery? a) Periumbilical b) Supraumbilical c) Subumbilical d) Umbilical c - CORRECT ANSWERS Guidelines for safe use of endoscopic light source include: a) Following surgeon preferences when setting parameters b) Placing the light on the sterile field when not in use c) Placing the light in standby mode when not in use d) Turning the light source on before connecting the cable to the telescope Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a, c, d - CORRECT ANSWERS Identify the instruments that can be used for laparoscopic surgery. Select all that apply. a) Babcock forceps b) Mosquitoes forceps c) Needle holder forceps d) Dissector forceps d - CORRECT ANSWERS During laparoscopic surgery, perioperative RN's can reduce the chances of capacitive-coupling injuries by: a) Using a combination of insulated and non-insulated instruments b) Using coagulation wave form and a high setting c) Using metal and plastic cannulas together d) Using the lowest power setting and the low-voltage cutting waveform b - CORRECT ANSWERS The perioperative RN should be aware that risks for pt injury from argon-enhanced electrosurgery include: a) Cardiac arrest b) Gas embolism c) Respiratory arrest d) VTE a - CORRECT ANSWERS The dispersive pad should be applied: a) As close to the operative site as possible b) Before the pt is positioned c) Distal to any tourniquet in use d) So that it covers as small an area as possible Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b - CORRECT ANSWERS To minimize the potential for injury to patients from the use of the ESU, the perioperative RN should implement which of the following safety measures? a) Anticipate the use of NS for irrigation and place the container on top of the ESU generator b) Remind the team to place the ESU pencil in the holster when not in use c) Turn down the volume of the audible alarm on the ESU generator to decrease the noise level in the OR d) Use the cord to pull the plug from the wall when finished using the ESU unit d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following illustrates how the RN circulator can advocate for the pt to help decrease the risk of pt injury when using and energy-generating device in a surgical procedure? a) Activating the foot pedal for the surgeon b) Placing the packaged accessories for the energy-generating device on top of the machine so they can be quickly opened when requested c) Reminding the scrub person to secure the cables to the sterile drapes with a metal clamp or towel clip d) Suggesting to the surgeon to use the lowest power settings for the energy-generating device being used b - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the reversal agent for heparin? a) Warfarin b) Protamine c) Thrombin d) Lipids Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Check the preoperative assessment for documentation of impaired skin integrity d) Remove the ESU from service and save all the active and dispersive electrode pads c - CORRECT ANSWERS Your pt is scheduled for removal of multiple nevi on his face and neck. The anesthesia professional will provide MAC, including administering oxygen via nasal cannula. What should the team include in their fire safety precautions for this pt? a) Anesthesia professional administers the highest tolerable level of oxygen to the pt b) Scrub person wipes off skin prep solution at the site of the proposed incision with an alcohol-soaked sponge immediately before draping the pt c) Scrub person moistens sponges and places them near the incision site d) Surgeon uses only monopolar technology b - CORRECT ANSWERS What should the perioperative team do if they are unable to extinguish a fire in the OR? a) Continue to fight the fire until it is extinguished b) Evacuate the pt and the perioperative team following the organizational fire plan c) Obtain and use a different type of fire extinguisher d) Request additional perioperative team members to assist a - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the BEST strategy to reduce the risk associated with ignition of prep solution vapors? a) Allow the prep solution to dry before draping Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Insert blotting towels after performing skin prep to prevent the solution from pooling on the pt's skin c) Reduce the amount of prep solution applied if an ignition source will be used during surgery d) Use a suction device to remove the vapors during the procedure d - CORRECT ANSWERS What is a method to reduce the risk of a mishap, event, or fire when electrosurgical equipment is used? a) Always use alcohol-based skin preparation when electrosurgery will be utilized b) Use monopolar electrosurgery during a facial procedure when oxygen is being delivered by nasal cannula to the pt c) If the ESU is not functioning properly at normal settings, ask the surgeon by how much the power settings should be increased d) Visually check the integrity and insulation of all cords and coagulation instruments before use b - CORRECT ANSWERS Over pressurization of a tourniquet cuff may cause a) Blood in the surgical field b) Compression injuries to blood vessels c) Muscle spasms d) Shock d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following is a correct application of the AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice for use of appropriate eyewear during laser use? a) Personnel should not use protective eyewear in common b) Protective eyewear is required only for certain types of lasers Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Regular corrective lenses, including contact lenses, are sufficient for most types of lasers d) The eyewear should be matched to the type of laser, optical density, and wavelength c - CORRECT ANSWERS A 56-y/o pt is undergoing an incision and drainage (I&D) of the right knee and upper thigh after a MVA. A tourniquet is applied to the patient's upper right thigh by the surgeon. Which of the following is the reason why a rubber bandage would not be used for exsanguinations of the of the pt's extremity? a) Open wounds do not require exsanguinations b) Nerve damage may be too extensive c) Infection is present in the extremity d) Tourniquet pressures are adequate 3, 4, 2, 1 - CORRECT ANSWERS Place the four basic steps of fire safety in the correct order: a) Confine the fire, shut the doors b) Evacuate according to facility plan c) Notify the fire department d) Rescue patients and staff members in immediate danger *Use numbers separated w/commas in order of a-d. a - CORRECT ANSWERS Potential sources of fuel for surgical fires include: a) Draping materials b) Fiberoptic cables c) Lasers Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Scrub area d) Sharps area b - CORRECT ANSWERS Based on your knowledge of knives and blades, identify the correct statement about handling knives. a) When passing a knife, it should be held using an assistive device such as a needle holder b) When passing a knife, it should be carefully held between the thumb and index finger c) When passing a knife, it is preferable to pass the blade separate from the blade handle d) When passing a knife, the cutting edge of the knife should point toward the surgeon a - CORRECT ANSWERS A popular type of grasping clamp that has no teeth is the a) Babcock clamp b) Allis clamp c) Kocher clamp d) Ochsner clamp a - CORRECT ANSWERS An example of a self-retaining retractor is the: a) Balfour b) Richardson c) Deaver d) Army-Navy Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d - CORRECT ANSWERS During an inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon asks for a self-retaining retractor. Which of the following retractors would be the most appropriate to choose? a) Army-Navy b) Richardson c) Senn d) Weitlander a - CORRECT ANSWERS Principles of care for forceps during a procedure include: a) Frequently inspect tips and wipe clean of blood or tissue as needed b) Organizing them on the Mayo stand or back table by placing one inside another c) Place them back in the instrument set if the surgeon says that they are not working properly d) Stand them upright along the sides of the instrument tray so that the handles are easily grasped when needed b - CORRECT ANSWERS The name of the clamp designed to hold bowel tissue and has opposing smooth blunt edges is: a) Allis b) Babcock c) Deaver d) Kocher a - CORRECT ANSWERS What biting instrument is used for cutting tough tissue or bone? Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a) A rongeur b) A rasp c) An osteotome d) A curette b - CORRECT ANSWERS Curved Mayo scissors are used for which of the following? a) To cut delicate tissue b) To cut heavy tissue c) To hold suture material d) To grasp tissue d - CORRECT ANSWERS What is the BEST method for keeping instruments clean on the sterile field? a) Soak instruments in a basin of normal saline b) Wipe instruments with a sponge moistened with sterile water c) Spray instruments with an enzymatic detergent d) Wipe instruments with a sponge moistened with sterile water and flush lumens with sterile water b - CORRECT ANSWERS The point of the forceps should be facing ________ while passing it to the surgeon. a) Upward b) Downward c) Forward d) Backward Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ e, c, d, f, a, b - CORRECT ANSWERS Indicate the proper sequence for removing gown and gloves at the end of a procedure: a) Scrub RN removes using a glove-to-glove and skin-to-skin technique b) Scrub RN discards gloves and performs hand hygiene c) Scrub RN grasps gown at shoulds and pulls downward d) Scrub RN rolls the contaminated gown and sleeves inside out e) RN circulator unfastens neck and back of gown f) Scrub RN discards rolled gown into laundry hamper or trash *Use letters separated w/commas to put the above in the correct sequence. c - CORRECT ANSWERS What statment about surgical hand rubs is TRUE? a) Apply surgical hand rub only to hands, concentrating on the finger tips b) Dry hands with a sterile towel after applying a surgical hand rub c) If visibly soiled, wash hands w/soap and water before performing a surgical hand rub d) The surgical hand rub method should never be performed before setting up orthopedic surgeries b - CORRECT ANSWERS During closed assisted gloving, pull the gown cuffs up over the wrists towards the elbows before donning gloves. a) True b) False b - CORRECT ANSWERS Once donned, which area of a surgical gown is considered sterile? Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a) The front, from the chest to six inches below the surgical field b) The front, from chest to the level of the surgical field c) The neck and shoulders d) The axillary area d - CORRECT ANSWERS Which of the following statements about the gowning procedure is correct? a) As the gown unfolds, slide your hands through the cuffs to allow access for closed gloving b) Hold your hands at chest level and slip both arms into the armholes one at a time c) Open your gown on the back table prior to performing your surgical scrub d) Step back from the table into an unobstructed area to let the gown unfold c - CORRECT ANSWERS A surgical mask should cover both mouth and nose, and should be: a) Allowed to hang around the neck between procedures b) Changed after two hours of use c) Removed and discarded after every case d) Tied snugly with strings crossed c - CORRECT ANSWERS Where should the scrub person's sterile gown be opened? a) As far away from the instrument tray as possible b) In the back corner of the instrument table c) On a separate Mayo stand Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ d) On top of the gloves for the scrub person b - CORRECT ANSWERS After the surgical hand scrub, the scrub person should keep the fingers pointed in which direction to allow water to drop off away from the attire? a) Downwards b) Upwards c) Straight d) Curved towards the palm c - CORRECT ANSWERS When is closed glove technique used? a) During a surgical procedure b) During insertion of an IV cut down c) During the initial donning of sterile gown and gloves only d) When changing one or both gloves b - CORRECT ANSWERS According to the AORN Guidelines, when should the scrubbed team members change their gloves during invasive surgical procedures? a) Every hour b) Every ninety to 150 minutes c) Three hours after start of the procedure and every hour thereafter, until the end of the procedure d) Three to four hours after the start of the procedure b - CORRECT ANSWERS The sterility of an item is: Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ a) 6 inches b) 12 inches c) 18 inches d) 24 inches c - CORRECT ANSWERS What action below is the best course to take when a hair is found in an instrument tray on the back table? a) Using a sterile clamp, the scrub person should remove the hair and pass it off to the RN circulator b) The scrub person should pass off the entire instrument tray and request a replacement c) The entire sterile field should be broken down and a sterile field reestablished d) The scrub person should pass off the instrument tray and change gown and gloves c - CORRECT ANSWERS According to AORN Standards, Recommended Practices, and Guidelines, sterile gowns are considered sterile: a) In front from neckline to sleeves b) In front and back from waist up c) In front from chest to level of sterile field d) Entirely a - CORRECT ANSWERS Scrubbed personnel changing positions within a sterile field should turn: a) Back to back b) Front to back Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) With hands kept below the level of the waist d) Only if single-use sterile gowns are being worn d - CORRECT ANSWERS The best method if transferring medication to the sterile field is to: a) Dispense only what is needed, then recap the container to preserve the sterility of the unused solution b) Remove the stopper from vials and pour the solution onto the sterile field c) Transfer all intraoperative and postop medications to the sterile field prior to the start of the case d) Use a sterile transfer device b - CORRECT ANSWERS Damp dusting of horizontal surfaces in the OR suite should be performed: a) Before every single procedure set up b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest c) Using a disposable cloth moistened with isopropyl alcohol d) When the OR suite has been vacant for 24 hrs d - CORRECT ANSWERS A safe, clean environment should be reestablished after each surgical procedure. This includes: a) Cleaning all areas of ceiling and walls b) Cleaning from the dirtiest to cleanest areas c) Emptying the linen hamper only when it's full d) Ensuring full contact time for the hospital disinfectant Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b - CORRECT ANSWERS What is a recommendation for limiting the transmission of microorganisms in the surgical setting? a) Allowing used sponges to hang over the edge of the kick bucket for counting b) Discarding soiled sponges and items contaminated with body fluids into biohazard waste receptacles c) Recapping needles using a two-handed method d) Using a spray bottle filled with hospital-approved disinfectant to clean small spills c - CORRECT ANSWERS What area in the OR suite is considered "high- touch" and should be cleaned after each surgical procedure? a) Air vents b) Ceilings and walls c) OR bed control d) Shelving and storage bins a - CORRECT ANSWERS Terminal Cleaning must be done: a) Once during each 24-hr period b) Twice during a 24-hr period c) Once in a week-long period d) Twice in a week-long period c - CORRECT ANSWERS _________ recommend prompt cleanup of items stained with blood, tissue, or body fluids. a) Manufacturer guidelines b) Local, state, and federal regulations Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ b) Granulation c) Infected d) Primary union b - CORRECT ANSWERS In which order do the body's defence mechanisms take place during healing: 1. Seal the wound against infection 2. Stop the blood loss 3. Repair deeper tissue damage 4. Regenerate the natural epidermal covering 5. Clean up pathogens and debris in the wound a) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 c) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 d) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 a - CORRECT ANSWERS At what point in the healing process do most wound disruptions occur? a) Beginning of proliferative phase - (Phase 2) 2 to 10 days b) End of proliferative phase (Phase 2) 10 to 22 days c) Beginning of maturation phase (Phase 3) 21 days to 6 weeks d) End of maturation phase (Phase 3) 6 wks to 2 yrs d - CORRECT ANSWERS You are RN circulator on a laparoscopic appendectomy. Upon entering the abdomen, the surgeon encounters Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ purulent inflammation of the appendix and asks for a culture. The procedure is completed suing the laparoscope w/o need to open the abdomen. What should you document the wound class? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV b - CORRECT ANSWERS Which type of suturing technique is considered the strongest and MOST secure? a) Continuous b) Interrupted c) Purse-string d) Subcuticular c - CORRECT ANSWERS The most appropriate needle point for performing a vascular anastomosis is a: a) Blunt b) Cutting c) Taper d) Taper-cut d - CORRECT ANSWERS Using a neutral zone for passing sharp instruments and devices and not recapping needles, are examples of which type of a sharps hazard control method? a) Administrative controls b) Elimination of the hazard Periop 101 Final Exam 268Questions and Answers BRAND NEW Latest Update 2024/2025 GRADED A+ c) Engineering controls d) Work practice controls b - CORRECT ANSWERS Vicryl is a type of non-absorbable suture. a) True b) False a - CORRECT ANSWERS What type of needle point should you expect to be needed for suturing friable tissue such as the liver? a) Blunt b) Reverse cutting c) Taper c - CORRECT ANSWERS When performing a plastic surgery skin closure, which choice of suture size would be most appropriate? a) 15-0 b) 2-0 c) 5-0 d) 0 b - CORRECT ANSWERS The capacity of a suture to regain its former shape after being reformed is known as ________. a) Elasticity b) Memory c) Knot tensile strength d) Capillarity
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