Phlebotomy Practice National Exam Questions and Answers 2023, Exams of Nursing

Download Phlebotomy Practice National Exam Questions and Answers 2023 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Phlebotomy Practice National Exam Questions and Answers 2023 1. What color tube is used to perform a complete blood count? a. Gray top b. Lavender top c. Green top d. Marble top 2. Red-top tubes are also called “plain” tubes. Blood collected in these tubes are allowed to clot by normal coagulation process, which will take how long? a. 5 minutes b. 30 - 60 seconds c. 1 - 1.5 hours d. 3 hours 3. A patient came to the clinic for a low-grade fever or one month duration. As part of the laboratory work-up, the physician ordered an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). a. Red-top tube b. Lavender-top tube c. Light-blue top tube d. Green-top tube 4. Which of the following tubes is used for PT and PTT? a. Red-top tube b. Green-top tube c. Light-blue tube d. Yellow-top tube 5. The sample of blood from a capillary puncture after an excessive squeezing of the finger will be: a. Hemolyzed b. Contaminated with tissue fluid c. Infected d. Normal/Unchanged 6. Which of the following is incorrect about the lavender-top tube? a. It contains an anticoagulant which binds to calcium b. It is used to collect a specimen for complete blood count c. It must be inverted several times immediately after drawing to ensure uniform mixing of blood and anticoagulant d. It is used to collect a specimen for coagulation studies 7. As you are inserting a needle into a patient’s arm to draw a blood sample when he suddenly jerks. The needle comes out of the vein and pierces your index finger. Which of the following is the appropriate reaction? a. Scold the patient for jumping b. Wash your wound with soapy water as soon as possible and report the injury to your supervisor c. Wash your wound with bleach as soon as possible and report the injury to your supervisor d. Wash your wound with bleach, but don't report it 8. The additive in a green-top collection tube is: a. Lithium heparin/ Sodium Heparin b. Potassium Oxalate c. Sodium Citrate d. EDTA 9. Which of the following barrier protections MUST a phlebotomist use when performing skin puncture or venipuncture? a. Laboratory coat b. Gloves c. Face shield d. Mask 10. The additive on a pink collection tube is: a. Sodium polyantholesulfonate (SPS) b. Sodium Heparin c. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) d. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD) 11. When the body has had adequate rest and no food for at least 12 hours, it is said to be in: a. Steady state b. Homeostasis c. Basal state d. Hemostasis 12. Which of the following tubes will give serum from the specimen collected? a. Red/Grey top tubes b. Lavender top tubes c. Gray top tubes d. Yellow top tubes 13. Which section of the Clinical Laboratory will perform pregnancy tests on blood specimens? a. Chemistry b. Hematology c. Microbiology/ Serology d. Blood Bank 14. A patient experiencing hypoglycemia is having which of the following? a. High blood glucose level b. High cholesterol level c. Low blood glucose level d. Low cholesterol level 15. Which of the following can occur when the tourniquet is left on too long? a. Hypertrophy b. Hemolysis c. 55% of blood d. 65% of blood 32. When making a blood smear, the goal is: a. To smear the slide with blood as thickly as possible b. To smear the slide with blood as thinly as possible c. To get a feathered edge d. To cover the slide completely with blood 33. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs at the levels of the: a. Heart b. Alveoli c. Trachea d. Intestine 34. On three occasions, blood from Mr. Burns turned out hemolyzed. Mr.Burns is perfectly healthy and has no known disease that nay explain the hemolyzed sample. Which of the following would be the possible cause? a. The phlebotomist had been using the syringe method with an 18 gauge needle b. The phlebotomist had been using a needle that is 1.5 inches long c. The phlebotomist had been using a 25 guage needle d. The phlebotomist did not make any mistake at all 35. C&S is (Culture and Sensitivity) is studied by which of the laboratory sections: a. Chemistry b. Hematology c. Serology d. Microbiology 36. Before a blood donation is made, the donor should have which test checked? a. WBC count b. Blood glucose value c. Hematocrit or hemoglobin value d. Urine glucose valve 37. Point of care testing: a. Must be performed in a medical laboratory b. Must be performed in a CLIA approved medical laboratory c. Is typically performed at a patient’s bedside d. Requires direct supervision from a lab supervisor 38. The vacuum draw of the evacuated tube decreases with: a. Age b. Expense c. Temperature d. Needle gauge 39. Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions are control measures aimed at preventing the spread of disease at which point the Chain of infection? a. Agent b. Mode of Transmission c. Portal of Exit d. Susceptible Host 40. The infection transmitted by an exchange of body fluids with blood is considered? a. Airborne b. Blood Borne c. Vector Borne d. Indirect Infection 41. The innermost layer of a blood vessel is called: a. Connective tissue b. Muscular c. Endothelial d. Epithelial 42. The main BBP OSHA regulation requires which of the following step to prevent needlestick injuries occurring with phlebotomy procedures: a. Use of approved needle safety devices manufactured to cover the exposed needle immediately after the procedure b. Recap the needle after procedure c. Place needle in a designated plastic cup located on the phlebotomy tray d. Place contaminated needle in small biohazard bag 43. The phlebotomist was sent to a patient’s room to draw blood for coagulation studies. Which of the following is correct about this draw? a. The phlebotomist can use capillary tubes for the blood collection b. Draw a red top tube before the light blue tube c. Fill a light blue tube to the top d. Before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours 44. A patient has been taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of the following is most likely to be affected by it? a. Blood culture collection b. Blood culture results c. Bleeding time d. Glucose time 45. The liquid upper portion of a blood sample in a vacutainer tube after 5 minutes of centrifugation is called: a. Water b. Serum/ Plasma c. Buffy coat d. Blood elements 46. Microorganisms that cause disease are: a. Normal flora b. Nonpathogenic c. Pathogenic d. Hereditary 47. All the employees at risk of BBP exposure are required by OSHA to: a. Have a medical insurance b. Have a life insurance c. Vaccinate for HBV or sign a waiver d. PPD evaluation 48. In this type of blood vessel, you would find oxygenated and deoxygenated blood: a. Pulmonary artery b. Capillaries c. Pulmonary vein d. Aorta 49. Patient confidentiality is defined as: a. The patient’s right to authorize use of his/her information b. The patient’s right for better treatment c. The patient’s right to receive information d. The patient’s right to view his/her chart 50. Hemolyzed blood appears when: a. The blood takes on a white appearance in the collection tube b. Plasma layer appears pink or red within the collection tube c. There is a presence of dark, almost black blood in the collection tube d. Blood fails to separate into three layers within the collection tube 51. OSHA regulation requires that all healthcare personnel exposed to blood and other body fluids must receive a vaccination against: a. Hepatitis A virus b. Hepatitis B virus c. Hepatitis C virus d. Hepatitis Delta virus 52. Which of the following is a right under the Patient’s Bill of Rights? a. Decline medical treatments b. Know the medical status of family members in the hospital c. Refusal to pay for medical treatment d. Escort your specimens to and from the laboratory b. Light-blue tube c. Red-top tube d. Gray-top tube 67. The most frequently occurring laboratory nosocomial infection is: a. HIV b. HAV c. HCV d. HBV 68. The antiglycolytic agent that maintains glucose stability for three (3) days is: a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) b. Sodium polyanetholesulfonate (SPS) c. Sodium Citrate d. Sodium fluoride 69. The additive in the red/grey or red/blck speckled collection tube is: a. Sodium heparin b. No additive c. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) d. Thixotropic gel for serum separation 70. The proper order of draw for PT/PTT, CBC Ammonia level and Cardiac enzymes using the multi-draw method is: a. Lavender, red, light-blue, yellow, green b. Yellow, red, light-blue, green, lavender c. Light-blue, red, green, lavender d. Yellow, light-blue, red, green, lavender 71. Which of the following is not part of a complete blood count? a. Hematocrit b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Hemoglobin d. Differential 72. A test involving multiple collections of blood and urine over specified time intervals is called: a. HCG b. GTT c. PTT d. HCT 73. The additive in a grey collection tube is: a. Lithium heparin b. Sodium heparin c. Potassium oxalate d. No additive 74. Which tube is never centrifuged? a. Red top b. Light-blue tube c. Green top d. Lavender 75. The additive in a light-blue collection tube is: a. Sodium heparin b. Sodium citrate c. Sodium fluoride d. Sodium polyanetholesulfonate 76. What is the purpose of the tourniquet in a venipuncture procedure? a. To block arterial blood flow b. To enlarge veins so they are easier to find and enter c. To anchor the veins and prevent from “rolling” d. To create a barrier between oxygenated blood and sample collected 77. Postprandial means: a. Fasting b. Before a meal c. After a meal d. Before bedtime 78. A female patient complains to you that “it's against my religion to be touched by a male technician”. The appropriate response from the male technician is to: a. Refuse to perform any procedures without an apology b. Get a female technician to perform the tests c. Put on an extra pair of gloves and drape the patient to insure no contact d. Explain these are medical procedures not religious issues 79. The correct lead from the center of the heart to the positive pole of the right arm is: a. II b. III c. AVR d. AVF 80. The normal running speed of the EKG paper is: a. 50 mm/sec b. 25 mm/sec c. 50 m/sec d. 25 m/sec 81. An obese patient was sent to the laboratory for a complete blood count. Which of the following veins is most likely to be the only one that the phlebotomist can palpate? a. Median cubital vein b. Cephalic vein c. Basilic vein d. Antecubital vein 82. Which of the following vessels has valves? a. Artery b. Capillary c. Vein d. Arteriole 83. The infection transmitted by an exchange of body fluids with blood is considered: a. Airborne b. Blood borne c. Vector borne d. Indirect infection 84. Which is the most common complication from phlebotomy? a. Convulsions b. Petechiae c. Hematoma d. Hypovolemia 85. CDC is the abbreviation for: a. Center of Disease Connection b. Center for Disease Control and Prevention c. Civic Disease Control d. Civil Damage Center 86. Every spring, Mrs. KAthy Watts suffers from severe allergies. Which of the following would be the picture of her WBC differential count? a. Increased eosinophils b. Decreased lymphocytes c. Increased basophils d. Decreased monocytes 87. Lipemic blood is described as: a. Serum with purple color b. Serum with milky appearance c. Lymphatic fluid d. Urine with purple red colon 88. The phlebotomist is in a truma room waiting to draw blood from a patient who is under full cardiac arrest. The trauma tries unsuccessfully to revive the patient, and the physician pronounces time of death. When leaving the Emergency Department, the family of the patient asks how their loved one is doing. The phlebotomist’s correct response is: a. Tell them you’re not allowed to reveal that information b. Tell them the physician has just pronounced the time of death c. Tell them “we are doing everything we can” d. Tell them the physician will be with them momentarily 89. If a physician suspects drug abuse, which of the following specimens would be collected? a. Gastric fluid b. Urine c. CSF d. Synovial fluid 90. Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure? a. Remove the needle, apply pressure