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PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 Latest study guide questions and answers 100%correct updated 2021/2022, Exams of Nursing

PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 Latest study guide questions and answers 100%correct updated 2021/2022 GRADED A+

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2021/2022

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Download PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 Latest study guide questions and answers 100%correct updated 2021/2022 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Know what the secondary stage of the inflammatory response is 5. A client has a leg wound that is in the second stage of the inflammatory response. For what manifestation does the nurse assess? a. Noticeable rubor b. Purulent drainage c. Swelling and pain d. Warmth at the site ANS: B 1. The student nurse learns that the most important function of inflammation and immunity is which purpose? a. Destroying bacteria before damage occurs b. Preventing any entry of foreign material c. Providing protection against invading organisms d. Regulating the process of self- tolerance ANS: C 7. The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest acting? a. Artificial active b. Inflammatory c. Natural active d. Natural passive ANS: C 8. The nurse working with clients who have autoimmune diseases understands that what component of cell-mediated immunity is the problem? a. CD4+ cells b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Natural killer cells d. Suppressor T cells ANS: D 10. A nurse is assessing a client for acute rejection of a kidney transplant. What assessment finding requires the most rapid communication with the provider? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 18 mg/dL b. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine c. Creatinine of 3.9 mg/dL d. Urine output of 340 mL/8 hr ANS: C What drugs are used to treat OA? 2. A nurse in the family clinic is teaching a client newly diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) about drugs used to treat the disease. For which medication does the nurse plan primary teaching? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril) d. Client with a worse joint deformity since the last visit ANS: B 16. The nurse in the rheumatology clinic is assessing clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client taking celecoxib (Celebrex) and ranitidine (Zantac) b. Client taking etanercept (Enbrel) with a red injection site c. Client with a blood glucose of 190 mg/dL who is taking steroids d. Client with a fever and cough who is taking tofacitinib (Xeljanz) ANS: D 17. A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has an acutely swollen, red, and painful joint. What nonpharmacologic treatment does the nurse apply? a. Heating pad b. Ice packs c. Splints d. Wax dip ANS: B 1. The nursing student studying rheumatoid arthritis (RA) learns which facts about the disease? (Select all that apply.) a. It affects single joints only. b. Antibodies lead to inflammation. c. It consists of an autoimmune process. d. Morning stiffness is rare. e. Permanent damage is inevitable. ANS: B, C 4. The nurse working in the rheumatology clinic assesses clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for late manifestations. Which signs/symptoms are considered late manifestations of RA? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Feltys syndrome c. Joint deformity d. Low-grade fever e. Weight loss ANS: B, C,E Know what Sjogren’s syndrome is and how to diagnose it 13. The nurse working in the rheumatology clinic is seeing clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What assessment would be most important for the client whose chart contains the diagnosis of Sjgrens syndrome? a. Abdominal assessment b. Oxygen saturation c. Renal function studies d. Visual acuity ANS: D Know signs and symptoms of lupus and how to treat it, also know complications that can occur due to lupus 18.The nurse on an inpatient rheumatology unit receives a hand-off report on a client with an acute exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which reported laboratory value requires the nurse to assess the client further? a. Creatinine: 3.9 mg/dL b. Platelet count: 210,000/mm3 c. Red blood cell count: 5.2/mm3 d. White blood cell count: 4400/mm3 ANS: A 19. A client who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for many years is in the clinic reporting hip pain with ambulation. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Assess medication records for steroid use. b. Facilitate a consultation with physical therapy. c. Measure the range of motion in both hips. d. Notify the health care provider immediately. ANS: A 20. A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was recently discharged from the hospital after an acute exacerbation. The client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit and is distraught about the possibility of another hospitalization disrupting the family. What action by the nurse is best? a. Explain to the client that SLE is an unpredictable disease. b. Help the client create backup plans to minimize disruption. c. Offer to talk to the family and educate them about SLE. d. Tell the client to remain compliant with treatment plans. ANS: B 28. Aclient recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse evaluates that the client practices good self-care when the client makes which statement? a. | always wear long sleeves, pants, and a hat when outdoors. b. | try not to use cosmetics that contain any type of sunblock. c. Since | tend to sweat a lot, | use a lot of baby powder. d. Since | cant be exposed to the sun, | have been using a tanning bed. ANS: A a. Consult with the health care provider about administering both drugs to the client. b. Inform the client that the celecoxib will be started when he or she goes home. c. Teach the client that, since morphine is stronger, celecoxib is not needed. d. Tell the client he or she should not take both drugs at the same time. ANS: A Know the stages of HIV and the values of the CD4+cell count for each like stage 0,1,2,etc. 1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The clients CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals. ANS: A 4. A client with human immune deficiency virus is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care. ANS: C 1. A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others. ANS: A, B, C, D Know what an epi pen is and why it is used. What other information should you tell the patient? 8. A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen). What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. | dont need to go to the hospital after using it. b. | must carry two EpiPens with me at all times. c. | will write the expiration date on my calendar. pain from returning. How should the nurse respond? a. Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it. b. The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning. c. What do you understand about what happened to you? d. When did you start experiencing this indigestion? ANS: C What is a cardiac angiography and what complications can occur? 8. A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4.ANS: C Know locations to auscultate for cardiac assessment 20. A nurse assesses a client who has aortic regurgitation. In which location in the illustration shown below should the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to aortic regurgitation? a. Location A b. Location B c. Location C d. Location DANS: A Know the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure and what causes it? 1. A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure? a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident ANS: A 2. A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure? a. | have been drinking more water than usual. b. lam awakened by the need to urinate at night. c. | must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath. d. | have experienced blurred vision on several occasions. ANS: C 1. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion, restlessness c, Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. Cough that worsens at night ANS: A, B, E Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left- sided heart failure. What does a S3 gallop indicate? When do you see this? And why? 4. While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit. ANS: A What is vasotec? What are things the patient should know about it? 6. A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Avoid using salt substitutes. b. Take your medication with food. c. Avoid using aspirin-containing products. d. Check your pulse daily. ANS: A What is imdur and what are things the patient should know about it? 8. A nurse assesses a client after administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur). The client reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Initiate oxygen therapy. b. Hold the next dose of Imdur. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Possible drug-drug interactions e. Reason to take medication ANS: A, C, D, E Know what the post op care is for femoral-popliteal bypass and any complications that can occur 16. A client is 4 hours postoperative after a femoropopliteal bypass. The client reports throbbing leg pain on the affected side, rated as 7/10. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer pain medication as ordered. b. Assess distal pulses and skin color. c. Document the findings in the clients chart. d. Notify the surgeon immediately. ANS: B 17. A client had a femoropopliteal bypass graft with a synthetic graft. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection? a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care b. Assessing the clients temperature every 4 hours c. Clean technique when changing dressings d. Monitoring the clients daily white blood cell count ANS: A 2.A nurse is preparing a client for a femoropopliteal bypass operation. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering preoperative medication b. Ensuring the consent is signed c. Marking pulses with a pen d. Raising the siderails on the bed e.Recording baseline vital signs ANS: D, E Know what a DVT is and the treatment, and the clinical manifestations 20. A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates a priority outcome has been met? a. Ambulates with assistance b. Oxygen saturation of 98% c. Pain of 2/10 after medication d. Verbalizing risk factors ANS: B 21.A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Ambulate the client. b. Apply a warm moist pack. c. Massage the clients leg. d. Provide an ice pack. ANS: B d. How much pain medication do you take each day? ANS: A What is Xarelto? What is it used for? 2. A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best? a. It inhibits thrombin. b. It inhibits fibrinogen. c. It thins your blood. d. It works against vitamin K. ANS: A What is sickle cell crisis? How is it treated? What are the clinical manifestations? 1. A nurse caring for a client with sickle cell disease (SCD) reviews the clients laboratory work. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider? a. Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL b. Hematocrit: 30% c. Sodium: 147 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3 ANS: A 2. A client hospitalized with sickle cell crisis frequently asks for opioid pain medications, often shortly after receiving a dose. The nurses on the unit believe the client is drug seeking. When the client requests pain medication, what action by the nurse is best? a. Give the client pain medication if it is time for another dose. b. Instruct the client not to request pain medication too early. c, Request the provider leave a prescription for a placebo. d. Tell the client it is too early to have more pain medication. ANS: A 3. A client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. The nurse plans to start an IV. Which fluid choice is best? a. 0.45% normal saline b. 0.9% normal saline c. Dextrose 50% (D50) d. Lactated Ringers solution ANS: A 4. A client presents to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer oxygen. b. Apply an oximetry probe. c. Give pain medication. d. Start an IV line. ANS: A 24. A client with sickle cell disease (SCD) takes hydroxyurea (Droxia). The client presents to the clinic reporting an increase in fatigue. What laboratory result should the nurse report immediately? a. Hematocrit: 25% b. Hemoglobin: 9.2 mg/dL c. Potassium: 3.2 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 38,000/mm3 ANS: D 1. A nurse working with clients with sickle cell disease (SCD) teaches about self- management to prevent exacerbations and sickle cell crises. What factors should clients be taught to avoid? (Select all that apply.) a. Dehydration b. Exercise c. Extreme stress d. High altitudes e. Pregnancy ANS: A, C, D, E 23. Aclient admitted for sickle cell crisis is distraught after learning her child also has the disease. What response by the nurse is best? a. Both you and the father are equally responsible for passing it on. b. | can see you are upset. | can stay here with you a while if you like. c. Its not your fault; there is no way to know who will have this disease. d. There are many good treatments for sickle cell disease these days. ANS: B 22. Aclient has a sickle cell crisis with extreme lower extremity pain. What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Apply ice packs to the clients legs. b. Elevate the clients legs on pillows. c. Keep the lower extremities warm. d. Place elastic bandage wraps on the clients legs. ANS: C What is leukemia and how is it treated? 12. The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who has the priority Know the normal value for platelet count and what does it mean if it is high or low? 17. A client has a platelet count of 9000/mm3. The nurse finds the client confused and mumbling. What action takes priority? a. Calling the Rapid Response Team b. Delegating taking a set of vital signs c. Instituting bleeding precautions d. Placing the client on bedrest ANS: A 4. A client has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist with oral hygiene using a firm toothbrush. b. Give the client an enema if he or she is constipated. c. Help the client choose soft foods from the menu. d. Shave the male client with an electric razor. e. Use a lift sheet when needed to re-position the client. ANS: C, D, E Know complications of a blood transfusion and how to treat it 18. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What action is most important? a. Correctly identifying client using two identifiers b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained if required c. Hanging the blood product with Ringers lactate d. Staying with the client for the entire transfusion ANS: B 19. A nurse is preparing to hang a blood transfusion. Which action is most important? a. Documenting the transfusion b. Placing the client on NPO status c, Placing the client in isolation d. Putting on a pair of gloves ANS: D 20. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops anxiety and low back pain. After stopping the transfusion, what action by the nurse is most important? a. Documenting the events in the clients medical record b. Double-checking the client and blood product identification c, Placing the client on strict bedrest until the pain subsides d. Reviewing the clients medical record for known allergies ANS: B 6. A student nurse is learning about blood transfusion compatibilities. What information does this include? (Select all that apply.) . Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type AB. . Donor blood type B can donate to recipient blood type O. . Donor blood type AB can donate to anyone. . Donor blood type O can donate to anyone. . Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood ype B. ANS: A, D eQa2009 co 7. A client with chronic anemia has had many blood transfusions. What medications does the nurse anticipate teaching the client about adding to the regimen? (Select all that apply.) a. Azacitidine (Vidaza) b. Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) c. Decitabine (Dacogen) d. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) e. Methylprednisolone (Solu- Medrol) ANS: B, D 8. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to an older adult. Understanding age-related changes, what alterations in the usual protocol are necessary for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess vital signs more often. b. Hold other IV fluids running. c, Premedicate to prevent reactions. d. Transfuse smaller bags of blood. e. Transfuse each unit over 8 hours. ANS: A, B What is B12 anemia and what are some complications of this? 28. The nurse assesses a clients oral cavity and makes the discovery shown in the photo below: What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Encourage the client to have genetic testing. b. Instruct the client on high-fiber foods. c, Place the client in protective precautions. d. Teach the client about cobalamin therapy. ANS: D What does the nurse teach AIDS patients to help them avoid opportunistic infections? 14. A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The clients partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the clients mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best? 17. After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, Why is this important? How should the nurse respond? a. Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures. b. Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness. c. Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes. d. While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up. ANS: C 8. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.) a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia d. Increased ejection fraction e. Hypertensio n ANS: A, B, C What are risk factors for developing leukemia? 2. A student studying leukemias learns the risk factors for developing this disorder. Which risk factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Chemical exposure b. Genetically modified foods c. lonizing radiation exposure d. Vaccinations e. Viral infections ANS: A,C,E Know how to calculate the drop/min formula ANS: 31 gtt/min From Class A nurse is assessing an older patient for the presence of infection. The patients temperature is 97.6 F (36.4 C). What response by the nurse is the best? a. Assess the patient for more specific signs 12. A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is on the postoperative nursing unit after having elective surgery. The client reports that one arm feels like pins and c, Prepare to teach the client about an acetaminophen (Tylenol) regimen. d. Reassure the client that the problems will fade as the weather changes again. ANS: A 31. A client is getting out of bed into the chair for the first time after an uncemented hip replacement. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Have adequate help to transfer the client. b. Provide socks so the client can slide easier. c. Tell the client full weight bearing is allowed. d. Use a footstool to elevate the clients leg. ANS: A 36. Aclient comes to the family medicine clinic and reports joint pain and stiffness. The nurse is asked to assess the client for Heberdens nodules. What assessment technique is correct? a. Inspect the clients distal finger joints. b. Palpate the clients abdomen for tenderness. c, Palpate the clients upper body lymph nodes. d. Perform range of motion on the clients wrists. ANS: A 6. A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets. ANS: B 7. A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort? a. Administer sleeping medication. b. Perform most activities for the client. c. Increase the clients oxygen during activity. d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest. ANS: D 8. A client with HIV wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food b. Has decreased oral discomfort c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks d. Has a weight gain of 2 pounds/1 month ANS: D 9. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c, Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly ANS: D 1. A nurse works in an allergy clinic. What task performed by the nurse takes priority? a. Checking emergency equipment each morning b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained as needed c. Providing educational materials in several languages d. Teaching clients how to manage their allergies ANS: A 10. Aclient is in the hospital and receiving IV antibiotics. When the nurse answers the clients call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below: What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately. b. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter. c. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team. d. Reassure the client that these manifestations will go away. ANS: C
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