POLITY 3 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024. Graded A+.pdf, Exams of Nursing

Download POLITY 3 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024. Graded A+.pdf and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! POLITY 3 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024. Graded A+ 651.26.Which is an example of direct democracy in India? (A) Zila Panchayat (B) Nagar Panchayat (C) Gram Sabha (D) Kshetra Panchayat correct answers (C) Gram Sabha Exp: Direct democracy is when people directly participate in decision making or policy initiatives. Gram Sabha which is village assembly consisting of all registered voters in area of Panchayat, as foundation stone of whole system of Panchayati Raj, through Village Panchayats or local government ensures that decision making power is with people i.e. direct democracy. 652.27.What is the structure of panchayati Raj? (A) Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha (B) Khap Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha (C) Khap Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat (D) Nagar Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha correct answers (A) Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha Exp: Through three tier structure of Panchayats, India provided for democratic decentralization and grassroot democracy. Three tier includes Zila Panchayat at district level, Block Panchayat or Panchayat Samiti at block or intermediate level and Gram Panchayat at village level. Though Gram Sabha is not a tier of Panchayati Raj System, at village level it works as foundation stone of whole system of Panchayati Raj. It works as recommending body only. 653.28.Which of the following is not an administrative function of a Village Panchayat? (A) Providing sanitation and drainage (B) Providing burial and cremation grounds (C) Providing college education (D) Maintenance of road correct answers (C) Providing college education Exp: Under Article-243(G) Panchayats in India has been conferred with 29 functional items to work at. These include providing sanitation and drainage, providing burial and cremation grounds, maintenance of roads, welfare of weaker sections, rural housing, fisheries etc. It also includes adult and non-formal education but does not include college education. 654.29.Which of the following constitutional Amendments gave a constitutional status to Urban Bodies- (A) 73rd (B) 74th (C) 71st (D) 72nd correct answers (B) 74th (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: 74th Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies in India. This also added Part-IX(A) and Twelfth Schedule in the constitution. Act provides for three types of Municipalities in every state - (i) Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area (ii) Municipal Council for smaller urban area. (iii) Municipal Corporation for larger Urban Area. 655.30.The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises Municipal elections under (A) Article 240 (1) (B) Article 243 (ZA) (C) Article 243 (K) (D) Article 245 (D) correct answers (B) Article 243 (ZA) Exp: Article-243(K) provides for elections to Panchayats. This article establishes the State Election Commission for superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats. Whereas Article-243(ZA) deals with election to municipalities which is to be conducted under superintendence, direction and control of State Election Commission. SSC CGL & CPO 2017 656.31.Who is the head of Municipal Corporation? (A) Prime Minister (B) Sarpanch (C) Governor (D) Mayor correct answers (D) Mayor (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: The head of Municipal Corporation is Mayor. Municipal corporation and urban local bodies came into effect after 74th amendment in the constitution. Municipal corporation are autonomous bodies aimed to provide civic services like drinking water, sanitation, sewerage etc. 657.32.Programme for capacity building of Elected Women Representatives (EWRs) of panchayats has been launched at _____. (A) Nagaur, Rajasthan (B) Ranchi, Jharkhand (C) Patna, Bihar (D) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh correct answers (B) Ranchi, Jharkhand (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Programme for capacity building of elected women representatives of panchayat has been launched at Ranchi, Jharkand. The programme was launched by Ministry of Women & Child 665.8.If the President declares emergency then this proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within _____. (A) 1 year (B) 6 months (C) 3 months (D) one month correct answers (D) one month (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Proclamation of imposition of National Emergency by President should be laid before both the houses of parliament and must be approved by them within one month after the proclamation is made. It is enforced for 6 months from the date of approval by parliament. 666.9.A proclamation of emergency, under Article 352, on account of war or aggression requires approval of the parliament within (A) One month (B) Two months (C) Four months (D) Six months correct answers (A) One month (SSC Tax Ass., Income Tax & Central Excise) 2007) Exp: Proclamation of imposition of National Emergency by President should be laid before both the houses of parliament and must be approved by them within one month after the proclamation is made. It is enforced for 6 months from the date of approval by parliament. 667.10.What is the period with in which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval? (A) Within one month (B) Within two months (C) Within four months (D) Within six months correct answers (A) Within one month (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Proclamation of imposition of National Emergency by President should be laid before both the houses of parliament and must be approved by them within one month after the proclamation is made. It is enforced for 6 months from the date of approval by parliament. 668.11.The President o f India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union (C) The Council of Ministers of the Union (D) Parliament correct answers (B) The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp:44th Amendment of constitution established that President can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only when the decision of Union Cabinet (i.e. Cabinet consisting of Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article-75) is conveyed to him in writing. 669.12.How many times have the President declared National emergency- (A) Once (B) Twice (C) Thrice (D) Never correct answers (C) Thrice (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: There have been three proclamations of National Emergency by President in India. In October 1962, at the time of Chinese aggression, it was proclaimed for the first time. Second time, in the wake of war with Pakistan, it was declared in December 1971. In June 1975, during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi, it was proclaimed for the third time for internal disturbance. 670.13.In India, which kind of emergency has been imposed only once- (A) Internal disturbance emergency (B) President's rule (C) External situation emergency (D) Financial emergency correct answers (A) Internal disturbance emergency (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2011) Exp: While the proclamations of National Emergency in 1962 and 1971 were made on the ground of "External aggression", the third proclamation of emergency was made on the ground of "Internal disturbance" in 1975. Financial Emergency has never been imposed whereas President's rule has been imposed more than a hundred times. 671.14.Which period below depicts internal emergency in India under article 352? (A) 26th June, 1974 to 23rd March, 1976 (B) 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 (C) 20th June, 1975 to 20th March, 1977 (D) 21st June, 1976 to 21st March, 1974 correct answers (B) 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-352, National Emergency was declared for internal disturbance from the period of 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 by the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad during the PrimeMinistership of Indira Gandhi. 672.15.Under which Article was Emergency in India declared in 1975? (A) Article 1 (B) Article 152 (C) Article 286 (D) Article 352 correct answers (D) Article 352 (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-352, National Emergency was declared for internal disturbance from the period of 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 by the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad during the PrimeMinistership of Indira Gandhi. 673.16.At the time of emergency in 1975, who was serving as the President of India? (A) Morarji Desai (B) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (C) V P Singh (D) Indira Gandhi correct answers (B) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-352, National Emergency was declared for internal disturbance from the period of 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 by the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad during the PrimeMinistership of Indira Gandhi. 674.17.Which year did President declare National emergency on internal dispute- (A) 1962 (B) 1965 (C) 1971 (D) 1975 correct answers (D) 1975 (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: President of India has declared National Emergency thrice. First two proclamations of emergency were made on ground of "External aggression" in 1962 and 1975 respectively. Third proclamation of National Emergency was made on ground of "internal dispute" in 1975. 675.18.During emergency imposed under Article-352, which of the following constitutional provisions stands suspended? (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Amendment Procedures (C) Fundamental Rights (D) Judicial Review correct answers (C) Fundamental Rights (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:During the proclamation of National Emergency under Article-352, Fundamental rights of citizens can be suspended. Article-19 is automatically suspended in case of emergency on grounds of war or external aggression whereas all other Fundamental Rights except rights under Article-20 and 21 can be suspended by President through a separate proclamation. 676.19.During an emergency all of the following fundamental rights are suspended, except (A) Six months (B) One year (C) Two years (D) Until it is repealed by the Parliament correct answers (A) Six months (SSC Sect. Offic. Audit 2003) Exp: State Emergency declared under the provision of Article-356 by President must be approved by Parliament within two months. After approval by parliament, it may remain in operation for not more than 6 months from the date of proclamation unless after 6 months parliament extends it. Parliament can extend it by approval after every six months. It can be withdrawn anytime by President. 684.27.In case State emergency is declared, it needs Parliamentary approval after every _____. (A) 6 months (B) 1 year (C) 2 years (D) 3 years correct answers (A) 6 months (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp : State Emergency declared under the provision of Article-356 by President must be approved by Parliament within two months. After approval by parliament, it may remain in operation for not more than 6 months from the date of proclamation unless after 6 months parliament extends it. Parliament can extend it by approval after every six months. It can be withdrawn anytime by President. 685.28.A Financial Emergency can be declared by applying (A) Article-360 (B) Article 361 (C) Artilce 370 (D) Article 371 correct answers (A) Article-360 (SSC Tax Assi., Income Tax Central Excise 2008) Exp: President of India can impose Financial Emergency by applying Article-360 if he or she is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which financial stability or credit of India or any part of it, is threatened. A proclamation under this article must be approved by Parliament within two months with simple majority. Once approved, it will remain in force till the President revokes it. 686.29.Under which Article of the constitution, the President of India can declare the financial emergency- (A) Article 360 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 364 (D) Article352 correct answers (A) Article 360 (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013, SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: President of India can impose Financial Emergency by applying Article-360 if he or she is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which financial stability or credit of India or any part of it, is threatened. A proclamation under this article must be approved by Parliament within two months with simple majority. Once approved, it will remain in force till the President revokes it 687.30.Which type of emergency has not been declared so far in India? (A) Internal emergency caused due to internal disturbances (B) External emergency caused due to external threat (C) State emergency, caused due to failure of constitutional machinery in the state (D) Financial Emergency correct answers (D) Financial Emergency (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Financial Emergency under Article-360 has never been imposed in India so far. Whereas Internal and External emergency which are part of National Emergency have been imposed once and twice respectively. State Emergency has been declared more than a hundred times. 688.31.In India, how many times has the President declared financial emergency- (A) Never (B) Two times (C) Three times (D) Once correct answers (A) Never (SSC CPO Exam 2015, SSC Matric Level 2002) Exp: Financial Emergency under Article-360 has never been imposed in India so far. Whereas Internal and External emergency which are part of National Emergency have been imposed once and twice respectively. State Emergency has been declared more than a hundred times. 689.32.During Financial Emergency all money bills passed by the state legislature are to be reserved for the consideration of the (A) Governor (B) Prime Minister (C) Parliament (D) President correct answers (D) President (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: During the proclamation of Financial Emergency, there is a provision that all money bills or financial bills passed by state legislature are to be reserved for consideration of President. And also salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving under State or Union can be reduced or curtailed. 690.33.Indian Constitution can be amended according to the procedure laid down in the following Article (A) Article 368 (B) Article 345 (C) Article 351 (D) Article 333 correct answers (A) Article 368 (SSC CHSL 20160) Exp: Constitution of India under Article-368 confers power to Parliament to amend the constitution and provides for its procedure. Amendment of constitution means addition, variation or repealing of any provision of this constitution. 691.34.Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with (A) Emergency Provisions (B) Right to primary Education (C) Right to Information (D) Amending Procedure correct answers (D) Amending Procedure (SSC Steno. Grade C & D 2016) Exp: Constitution of India under Article-368 confers power to Parliament to amend the constitution and provides for its procedure. Amendment of constitution means addition, variation or repealing of any provision of this constitution. 692.35.An amendment of the constitution may be initiated (A) By introduction by the President of India. (B) By introduction of a Bill in Rajya Sabha. (C) By the Governors of States. (D) By the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament. correct answers (D) By the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament. (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: An amendment of constitution may be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of parliament. It can be introduced by a minister or a private member. It is to be noted that constitutional amendment bill can only be introduced in Parliament and not in State Legislature. 693.36.The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended (A) By the State Legislatures acting together (B) By the Parliament alone (C) With the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures (D) Only on ratification by half of the States correct answers (B) By the Parliament alone (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Though there are some provisions of constitution which can be amended only after an address by both the houses of parliament and ratification by half of the states. But majority of provisions of constitution can be amended by Parliament alone by passing the bill with special majority. form of government all are elements of foundation of Republic of India which form basic feature of constitution and cannot be amended. 702.45.Which of the following amendment act is related to goods and services tax (GST)? (A) 101st (B) 118th (C) 257th (D) 94th correct answers (A) 101st (SSC CGL & CPO 2017) Exp: 101st Amendment Act and 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill provided for Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. It is an indirect tax which replaced multiple cascading taxes levied by Central and State Governments. It is applicable throughout the India. 703.46.Which article of Indian constitution has the provision for National Emergency? (A) Article 350 (B) Article 352 (C) Article 312 (D) Article 280 correct answers (B) Article 352 (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Article-352 of constitutional deals with National Emergency. President can promulgate on emergency in case of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Proclamation of National Emergency needs to be approved by Parliament within one month. 704.47.Under which article, President of India can proclaim constitutional emergency? (A) Article 32 (B) Article 349 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 360 correct answers (C) Article 356 Exp: Under Article-356 of the constitution, President if satisfied that state government is not carried out in accordance with the law, can declare constitutional emergency in state. The article was first time used in Punjab in 1954. 705.48.__________ amends the Constitution. (A) Ministry of Defence (B) Prime Minister's Office (C) Parliament (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India correct answers (C) Parliament (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Only Parliament has the mandate to amend the Constitution of India. However, there are certain provisions which can be amended only after obtaining two-third majority of strength of both the Houses and ratification of half the number of states. Eg. Any modification in Election of President and Vice President, Tax structures (Like GST). 706.49.Which among the following can be amended only by special majority in India? (A) Admission of New State (B) Salaries and allowances of Member of Parliament (C) Allowances of the President (D) Amendment of the Constitution via article 368 correct answers (D) Amendment of the Constitution via article 368 (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Amendment of constitution requires special majority which includes two-third of the majority of total strength of house. The constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either house of Parliament. 707.50.Which of the following can be amended by special majority? (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Rules of Procedure in Parliament (C) Admission of new state (D) Use of English language in Parliament correct answers (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV of the constitution and can only be amended by special majority. DPSP are borrowed from Ireland. DPSP are used as a yard stick to measure the performance of govt Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSP are not enforceable in court. 708.51.For how much time Financial Emergency can be proclaimed? (A) 6 months (B) 12 months (C) 24 months (D) No maximum period correct answers (D) No maximum period (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Financial emergency under Article 360 can remain operational for indefinite period of time until revoked by President. However, President declaration on Financial Emergency need to be approved by Parliament within two months. So far it has not been declared in India. 709.1.In which of the following state matter, centre can formulate any law with prior discussion with the state- (A) Assam (B) Rajasthan (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Kerala correct answers (C) Jammu and Kashmir (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Under Article-370, the Central government can formulate any law for the state of Jammu and Kashmir only after prior discussion with the government of the State. In case of Jammu and Kashmir, the power of Parliament to make laws for state are limited. While appointing the Governor, President should consult with the State. Article-352 can be partially applicable to Jammu and Kashmir. Preventive detention has no automatic extension to Jammu and Kashmir and Residuary powers lies with the States and not with the Centre. 710.2.Article-370 of constitution is applicable on which state- (A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram (C) Manipur (D) Jammu and Kashmir correct answers (D) Jammu and Kashmir (SSC CPO Exam 2005) Exp: Article-370 contains temporary and special provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. 711.3.What kind of right is "Right to vote"- (A) Human right (B) Civil right (C) Natural right (D) Political right correct answers (D) Political right (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013) Exp: Constitution of India provides for right to vote under Article-326. According to this article, a person above the age of 18 years has the right to vote in elections in India. This right to vote is political in nature. 712.4.Which of the following is a Political right- (a) Right to work (B) Right to education (C) Right to expression (D) Right to vote correct answers (D) Right to vote (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Political rights enable people to participate in establishment or administration of government. Right to vote, through which people participate in establishment of government, is a part of political right. 713.5.According to Indian constitution, which of the following is a Constitutional Body- (A) Finance Commission (B) National Development Council (C) Planning Commission (D) None of these correct answers (A) Finance Commission (SSC Multi Tasking CPO 2004, 13) (C) All members of Cabinet of States and Centre (D) Members of Estimates Committee correct answers (*) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: National Development Council was set up in 1952. Prime Minister is the Chairman of NDC. Members of Planning Commission, all Central Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of States are its members. It was created with an aim to strengthen and mobilize effort and resources of nation for balanced and rapid development of country. It is an extra constitutional and non-statutory body. 722.14.Who is the Chairman of National Integration Council- (A) Prime Minister (B) Finance Minister (C) Home Minister (D) President of India correct answers (A) Prime Minister (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: NIC was set up in 1961 by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to fight against Racism, Communalism and Regionalism. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of NIC. 723.15.Under which of the following Article of Indian constitution, the verdict of Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in Supreme Court- (A) 323 A (B) 329 (C) 343 C (D) 343 K correct answers (A) 323 A (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Article-323(A) of the Constitution provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals which can be created by an act of Parliament for the adjudication of disputes relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of government servants. Any verdict of this tribunal can be challenged in Supreme Court. 724.16.The National Green Tribunal looks after the cases related with- (A) Criminal Cases (B) Cases related to conservation and security of historical sites (C) Civil Cases (D) Environment and Forest Conservation correct answers (D) Environment and Forest Conservation (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 by an act of Parliament. It looks after the matters related with environment and forest conservation. Whereas criminal matters are looked after by Criminal or Session Courts and civil matters by Civil Courts. 725.17.Which of the following body was not set up by constitutional provisions- (A) Finance Commission (B) Planning Commission (C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Election Commission correct answers (B) Planning Commission (SSC Tax Asst. .Exam 2007) Exp: Planning Commission was not set up by constitutional provisions. It was set up on 15 March 1950 by an executive order. It was a non-constitutional body and supreme organ of planning for social and economic development. It has been replaced by NITI Ayog in 2015. 726.18.Planning Commission of India was- (A) A Constitutional Body (B) A Free and Autonomous Body (C) A Statutory Body (D) A Non-Constitutional Body correct answers (D) A Non-Constitutional Body (SSC SO, 2006) Exp: Planning Commission was not set up by constitutional provisions. It was set up on 15 March 1950 by an executive order. It was a non-constitutional body and supreme organ of planning for social and economic development. It has been replaced by NITI Ayog in 2015. 727.19.When was the Planning Commission set up- (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1949 correct answers (A) 1950 (SSC Matric Level, CGL Tier 1 2008, 13) Exp: Planning Commission was not set up by constitutional provisions. It was set up on 15 March 1950 by an executive order. It was a non-constitutional body and supreme organ of planning for social and economic development. It has been replaced by NITI Ayog in 2015. 728.20.The term of members of Union Public Service Commission is- (A) 3 years or upto the age of 58 (B) 5 years or upto the age of 60 (C) 6 years or upto the age of 65 (D) 6 years correct answers (C) 6 years or upto the age of 65 (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: As per the provisions of Article-316, the term of members of UPSC is 6 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier. A person who holds office as member of public service commission, on expiration of his term of office, is ineligible for re-appointment to that office. 729.21.Which of the following is a feature of civil services India- (A) Neutrality and unbiasedness (B) Temporary political executive relations (C) Partiality (D) All of these correct answers (A) Neutrality and unbiasedness (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Civil services in India strengthen the executive organ of State. Neutrality and unbiasedness are the important feature of this. 730.22.Any member of Union Public Service Commission can be removed by- (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (D) Chairman of UPSC correct answers (A) President (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: As per provisions under Article-317, President can remove the Chairman or members of UPSC from the office if he is adjudged an insolvent, engaged in any paid employment outside his office and unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. 731.23.Bureaucarcy performs- (A) Only Administrative Acts (B) Only Judicial Acts (C) Only Legislative Acts (D) Administrative, Quasi-Judicial and Quasi-Legislative Acts correct answers (D) Administrative, Quasi-Judicial and Quasi-Legislative Acts (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: A bureaucracy is an administrative body of government officals, assigned with the task to implement the government policies at all levels. It is also assigned of Quasi-Judicial and Quasi- Legislative acts due to growing complexities. 732.24.How can a new All India Service be introduced- (A) By doing Amendment in the Constitution (B) By Legislative Command (C) By passing a Resolution under Article 312 (D) By Law correct answers (C) By passing a Resolution under Article 312 (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-312 of the Constitution, any resolution for creation or abolition of an All India Service can only be introduced in Rajya Sabha first. All India Services comprises IAS, IFS and IPS. A common feature is that members are recruited by Centre, but placed under administrative control of State. 733.25.Union public service commission ________ employees of All India Services- (D) 7% correct answers (C) 6% (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: As mentioned under Representation of People Act, 1951, any party can be recognized as a National Party if it secures six percent of total valid votes polled in four or more States at a General Election to the Lok Sabha or to the Legislative Assembly and in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any State or States. National Parties are entitled to use a symbol for its candidates across the country. 741.33.The money of candidates for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly is forfeited- (A) When he loses the election (B) When he could not secure 1/4 votes (C) When he could not secure 1/5 votes (D) When he could not secure 1/6 votes correct answers (D) When he could not secure 1/6 votes (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: If a candidate secures less than one-sixth of total valid votes in election of Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, his/her money which is submitted to the Returning Officer as a security while filing nomination, will be forfeited. 742.34.The 'Right to Vote' in elections of the parliament is a- (A) Fundamental Right (B) Constitutional Right (C) Legal Right (D) Natural Right correct answers (C) Legal Right (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: Right to vote is a legal right. It is an universal adult suffrage which means every person who has attained the age of 18 years and is not barred by any law, has the right to caste his/her vote. 743.35.Constitutional Majestic means- (A) Constitution defined by the king (B) Drafting of constitution by the king (C) Election of king by the people (D) Use of power by king under the ambit of constitution correct answers (D) Use of power by king under the ambit of constitution (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Constitutional Majestic means a government in which the King is the head of the constitutional State e.g.- United Kingdom. 744.36.Who was the second Chief Election Commissioner of India- (A) Sukumar Sen (B) S.P.Sen Verma (C) K.V.K.Sundaram (D) T.Swaminathan correct answers (C) K.V.K.Sundaram (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: K.V.K.Sundaram was the second Chief Election Commissioner of India. His term was from 1958 to 1967. 745.37.The Model Code of Conduct, issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections, is- (A) A command by the Supreme Court of India (B) Agreement between all registered political parties (C) Stipulated in Constitution (D) Specified in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 correct answers (B) Agreement between all registered political parties (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp: Election Commission of India's Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect of speech, polling day, polling booths, election manifestos, processions and general conduct. All parties after agreement have given consent to the Election Commission to take disciplinary action against a candidate or party in case of violation of Model Code of Conduct. 746.38.Which of the following does not fall under the juridiction of Election Commission- (A) Election of Prime Minister of India (B) Election of the President (C) Recognition to political parties (D) Allocation of signs to political parties correct answers (A) Election of Prime Minister of India (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: As mentioned under Article-324, election of President is the responsibility of Election Commission. Recognition to political parties and allocation of signs to political parties fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission under Representation of People Act, 1951. Election of Prime Minister does not fall under jurisdiction of election commission rather Prime Minister is nominated by the members of political party having majority in Lok Sabha. 747.39.Which was the first state in India to conduct the Election during delimitation- (A) Tamilnadu (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Karnataka correct answers (D) Karnataka (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: Karnataka held the election in 2008 during the delimitation. Delimitation implies demarcation of electoral constituencies based on population census. 748.40.Who said that "I don't accept a politics without religion"- (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Gandhi (C) Vinoba Bhave (D) Jaiprakash Narayan correct answers (B) Gandhi (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: According to Gandhiji, without religion the idea of polity is quite unimaginable. In this context, he believed that religion should continue to remain a method and medium of our work. The word religion does not refer to extremist ideologies. It only means faith in particular moral system. That is why, Mahatma Gandhi said that "I don't accept politics without religion" 749.41.To whom, "The Union Public Service Commission presents its report"- (A) President (B) Parliament (C) Lok Sabha (D) Rajya Sabha correct answers (A) President (SSC CHSL Exam 201(D) Exp: According to provisions under Article-323, it shall be the duty of UPSC to present a report of the work done by the commission to President annually. Thereafter, President shall cause the report to be tabelled in Parliament. 750.42.When was National Commission for Minorities established- (A) 1980 (B) 1989 (C) 1990 (D) 1992 correct answers (D) 1992 (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. National Minority Commission was set up to safeguard the interest of minorities, identified on basis of language or religion. The Commission consists of Chairperson, Vice Chairman and 5 other members to be nominated by President. 751.43.Who was the President of Chinese Communist Party at the time of freedom of China- (A) Zhou enlai (B) Den Xiaoping (C) Mao Zedong (D) Liu Shaoqi correct answers (C) Mao Zedong (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: The Communist Party was instrumental in establishing the People's Republic of China on 1st October, 1949. Mao Zedong who was the President of Chinese Communist Party at the time of freedom of China, is also known as the founding father of People's Republic of China. (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 7 correct answers (B) 15 (SSC Stenographer 2011) Exp: The I.C.J. is composed of fifteen judges elected for nine-year term by the U.N. General Assembly. It is headquartered in Hague, Netherlands. 761.53.Which of the following had signed with President Ayub Khan on Tashkent agreement- (A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Lal Bahadur Shashtri (D) Indira Gandhi correct answers (C) Lal Bahadur Shashtri (SSC Stenographer 2005) Exp: The Tashkent Declaration which was signed on 10 January 1966, was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan following the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965. This agreement was signed by India's the then Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri (who died the next day) and Pakistan's President Ayub Khan, ending the 17-day war. 762.54.Who was in favour of a democracy without parties- (A) Jay Prakash Narayan (B) Bhupendra Nath Dutta (C) M.N.Roy (D) Jawaharlal Nehru correct answers (A) Jay Prakash Narayan (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: Nonpartisan Democracy (also known as no-party Democracy) is a system of representative government or organization in such a way that universal and periodic elections take place without reference to political parties. It was supported by Jay Prakash Naryan. 763.55.Which of the country has single-party system- (A) Mongolia (B) Spain (C) Chile (D) China correct answers (D) China (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The Communist Party of China (CPC) is the founding, ruling and only political party of the People's Republic of China (PRC). 764.56.The concept of Lokpal has been taken from- (A) Britain (B) America (C) Scandinavian countries (D) France correct answers (C) Scandinavian countries (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The concept of an Lokpal has been borrowed from Sweden. The Lokpal in India has jurisdiction over all Members of Parliament and Central Government employees in cases of corruption. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013 by Parliament, following the Jan Lokpal movement led by Anna Hazare. 765.57.Which of the following resist Liberty and Freedom- (A) Centralization (B) Decentralization (C) Privatization (D) Nationalization correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The centralization of resources is a hurdle in Freedom and Liberty. 766.58.The success of Democracy depends on- (A) The right to oppose (B) Right to unity (C) Right to individual liberty (D) Right to property correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The success of democracy depends on the right to criticize and oppose. For a successful democracy, it is necessary that there should always be pressure of citizens, society, press and media on government. 767.59.The states of India are demanding more autonomy than centre in the areas of- (A) Legislative (B) Administrative (C) Financial (D) All of these correct answers (D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Indian states are demanding more legislative, administrative and financial autonomy from Centre. Sarkaria commission also suggested measures to grant more autonomy to states. 768.60.Which of the following language was given the status of "Classical language" by the central government- (A) Guajarati (B) Tamil (C) Marathi (D) Malayalam correct answers (B) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2011) Exp: Currently Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Odiya and Malayalam are the classical languages. Classical language is the official status accorded by Governement of India. The onus to designate classical status rest upon the Ministry of Culture. 769.61.When did Sri Lanka gained its independence? (A) 4 February,1948 (B) 16 March,1962 (C) 26 March,1972 (D) 15 February,1938 correct answers (A) Exp: Sri Lanka gained its independence on February 4, 1948. Like India, Sri Lanka also remained under control of Britain for a long period of time. During colonial regime, it was named Ceylon. 770.62.In which form of government the rulers are elected by the people? (A) Autocratic (B) Democratic (C) Martial law (D) Aristocratic correct answers (B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: In democracy, rulers are elected by people through voting rights. However elected representatives are not considered as the rulers but public servants working on behalf of public. 771.63._____ is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of polities - one at the regional level and the other at the national level. (A) Feudalism (B) Democracy (C) Federalism (D) Aristocracy correct answers (C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Federalism ensures government entities at different level. One at centre, other at state and local government at lowest tier. Federalism delineates the power of government at all levels. The subjects of all three form of government are enumerated in centre list, state list and concurrent list. 772.64.In which of the following American President had visited to China in 1972 to strengthen diplomatic relations- (A) Richard Nixon (B) George Bush (senior) (C) D.Eisenhower (D) J.F. Kennady correct answers (A) (SSC MTS 2013) (A) Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Bentham (D) Robert mill correct answers (B) Exp: Rousseau said "Man is born free but always in shackles". He intended to say that people deserve to be free but they are chained by societies in which they live. A society may legitimately coerce its people only when they agree to be ruled by that society. 783.75."The soul of India lives in villages" whose statement is this- (A) Vinobha Bhave (B) Jay Prakash Narayan (C) Jawahr Lal Nehru (D) Mahatma Gandhi correct answers (D) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: More than 68% of population lives in villages and depends mostly on agriculture and small scale industries which contributes significantly in economy and moreover Gandhi was supporter of decentralization. That is why Gandhi said "The soul of India lives in villages". 784.76."Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you" whose statement is this- (A) G.B.Shaw (B) Carpentar (C) Lord Bryce (D) Appa Dorai correct answers (B) (SSC CPO Exam 2011) Exp: Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you" this statement was made by Carpentar in his book "Towards Democracy". 785.77.Who said this "Good citizen makes good state and bad citizen makes bad state"- (A) Plato (B) Rousseau (C) Aristotle (D) Laski correct answers (A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Plato said "Good citizen makes good state and bad citizen makes bad state" 786.78.In which country, there is federal government- (A) China (B) USA (C) Cuba (D) Belgium correct answers (B) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: In America, there is federal form of government. Federalism separates power between governments at different levels. 787.79.Which Country has the first woman Prime Minister in the world- (A) India (B) Sri Lanka (C) Israel (D) Pakistan correct answers (B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Sirima Ratwatte Dias Bandaranaike, commonly known as Sirimavo Bandaranaike, was a Sri Lankan stateswoman and politician and the modern world's first female head of government. 788.80.Which of the following countries is governed by a King- (A) Afghanistan (B) Iran (C) Iraq (D) Saudi Arabia correct answers (D) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: Saudi Arabia is a Monarchy. It is a system of government in which one person reigns, usually a King or Queen. 789.81.CTBT denotes- (A) Arms control measures (B) Drug control measures (C) Financial control measures (D) Trade control and regulation correct answers (A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty by which countries agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environment, for military or civilian purposes. It was adopted by the United Nation General Assembly on 10 September 1996. 790.82.Who supported the concept of "Public desire"- (A) Hume (B) Hegal (C) Kant (D) Rousseau correct answers (D) (SSC Section Off.Exam 2006) Exp: The concept of "Public desire" was supported by Rousseau. In his book "Social contract", he said that the rule is in the hands of desire of public. 791.83.The new official language of United Nations is- (A) Chinese (B) Spanish (C) Russian (D) Arabic correct answers (D) (SSC CGL 2012, SSC MTS 2013) Exp: In 1973, Arabic became the official language of UN by proposal number 3190(28). Other official languages of UN are English, French, Chinese, Spanish and Russian. 792.84.In which of the following, there is possibility of Arbitrary Rule- (A) Single-party system (B) Two-party system (C) Multi-party system (D) Two and multi-party system correct answers (A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2010) Exp: The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation, as opposed to being governed by arbitrary decisions of individual government officials. In Single party system, due to absence of opposition, there are many possibilities of misuse of power through arbitrary rule. 793.85.Which are the two forms of Democracy- (A) Parliamentary and Presidential (B) Direct and Indirect (C) Monarchical and Republican (D) Parliamentary and King correct answers (B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2010) Exp: Democracy is of two types - direct and indirect. In direct democracy people participate directly in policy initiatives and decision making. Whereas in indirect democracy decision making is done by the representatives elected by people. 794.86.What is the Example of Direct Democracy in India- (A) District Panchayat (B) Nagar Panchayat (C) Gram Sabha (D) Kshetra Panchayat correct answers (C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Gram Sabha is an example of direct democracy. It is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters of that village. 795.87.Which of the following is necessary for the development of Democratic Institutions- (A) Agricultural Economy (B) Single-Party System (C) Armed Forces (C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya correct answers (A) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: The Bodoland Territorial Council is a territorial council established in Assam as per the Memorandum of Settlement of February 10, 2003. 804.96.In which year, there was dominance of one party in India- (A) 1971 (B) 1977 (C) 1962 (D) 1967 correct answers (B) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: Indian National Congress dominated the nation from 1951-52 to 1977. It was badly defeated in the elections of 1977. 805.97."Shimla Pact" between India and Pakistan is in- (A) 1972 (B) 2001 (C) 1965 (D) 1971 correct answers (A) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: The Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan on July 2, 1972 in Shimla. It was signed by the then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi and her counter-part Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, President of Pakistan in a bid to reverse the consequences of 1971 war (i.e. to bring about withdrawl of troops and an exchange of Prisoners of wars). 806.98.Who was the leader of Russia at the time of signing of The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation- (A) Nikita Khrushchev (B) Leonid Brezhnev (C) Yuri Andropov (D) Mikhail gorbachev correct answers (B) (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp: The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Co-operation was a treaty signed between India and the Soviet Union in August 1971 that specified mutual strategic co-operation. The treaty was a significant deviation from India's previous position of non-alignment in the Cold War. 807.99.Who has propounded term "Rainbow Coalition" originated from politics and policies- (A) Pranav Mukharji (B) Barack Obama (C) Mitt Romney (D) A.B.Vajpayee correct answers (B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: A Rainbow coalition is a political alliance of several different groups, representing social, ethnic and other minorities. It was propounded by Barack Obama. 808.100.The ballot papers were used firstly in- (A) Ancient Greece (B) England (C) Australia (D) USA correct answers (A) (SSC CGL 2012) Exp: Ballot papers were first used in ancient Rome in 139 BC, but citizens of Greece had used it earlier in the form of broken pieces of clay pots. 809.101.What is multiple voting system- (A) Every citizen votes three different votes (B) Only high officials vote for more than once (C) Candidates vote more than one (D) Registered voter votes once and other special eligible voters vote more than once correct answers (D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Plural voting is the practice whereby one person might be able to vote multiple times in an election. In Belgium, plural voting was introduced in 1893 and applied for elections from 1894 to 1919 as a way to limit the impact of universal suffrage. Every male citizen over the age of 25 years got one vote for legislative elections, but some electors got up to 2 supplementary votes according to some criteria. 810.102.Under which ministry, Central Pollution Control Bureau works- (A) Health and family welfare (B) Oil and petroleum (C) Social welfare (D) Environment and forest correct answers (D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF). It was established in 1974. 811.103.Which of the following crops is banned by the Supreme Court of India- (A) Lathairus (B) Genetically modified brinjal (C) Bt cotton for export (D) Bt cotton for domestic usages correct answers (B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Bt Brinjal has been banned in India by the Supreme Court of India. 812.104.In which of the following country, the judges of federal court are appointed by two houses of Federal Legislature- (A) Switzerland (B) Germany (C) Canada (D) A and B both correct answers (D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: In Switzerland, the judges are appointed for six years by both houses of Federal Legislature and in Germany also, they are appointed by the both houses of legislature. 813.105.What occurs under direct democracy in Switzerland- (A) Natural growth (B) Disorganized growth (C) Artificial growth (D) None of these correct answers (A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Natural growth occurs under direct democracy in Switzerland. 814.106.What is the term of President of Switzerland- (A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 1 year (D) 3 years correct answers (C) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: The President of the Switzerland is the presiding officer of the seven-member Swiss Federal Council, Switzerland's executive. He/she is elected by the Federal Assembly for the term of one year. 815.107.What is the name of two chambers of Swiss federal chambers- (A) Senate and House of representatives (B) House of Lords and House of Commons (C) National Council and Council of States (D) None of these correct answers (C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: National Council and Council of States are the two houses of federal assembly of Switzerland. 816.108.Who said "Adolf Hitler is Germany and Germany is Adolf Hitler. He who is committed to Hitler is committed to Germany"- (A) Maharashtra (B) Manipur (C)Madhya Pradesh (D) Mizoram correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: 'BIMARU' is an acronym formed from the first letters of names of Indian States of - Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. This term was coined by Ashish Bose in 1980's. 826.118.In which year was the First Five Year Plan launched in India? (A) 1921 (B)1931 (C)1941 (D)1951 correct answers (D) Exp: First five year plan was presented by first Prime Minister of India, Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru in year 1951. This plan was mainly focussed on development of primary sector i.e. mainly agriculture. 827.119.Who is the former body builder, who became a film star and a Governor? (A) Sylvester Stallone (B)Dwayne Johnson (C)Arnold Schwarzenegger (D) Steve Austin correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Arnold Schwarzenegger is an Australian-American Actor, Producer, Author, Body builder. He became Governor of California which is the most populous state of U.S.A. 828.120.To be a voter in India, what is the minimum qualifying age? (A) 24 Years (B) 22 Years (C) 20 Years (D)18 Years correct answers (D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions under Article-326, minimum qualifying age to be a voter in India is 18 years. 829.121.Bahujan Samaj Party was founded in (A) 1925 (B) 1955 (C) 1984 (D) 2001 correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded in 1984 by Kanshi Ram. It is one of the 7 National Parties in India which is currently headed by Mayawati. 830.122.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party "BSP"? (A) Bharatiya Samaj Party (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (C)Bharatiya Sangh Party (D)Bahujan Sangh Party correct answers (B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded in 1984 by Kanshi Ram. It is one of the 7 National Parties in India which is currently headed by Mayawa. 831.123.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party "CPIM"? (A) Common Party of India (Marxist) (B) Common Party of India (Movement) (C)Communist Party of India (Movement) (D)Communist Party of India (Marxist) correct answers (D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Communist Party of India (Marxist) which is abbreviated as CPI(M) or CPM, is a party that emerged out of a split from Communist Party of India in 1964. This party is concentrated in States of Kerala, West Bengal and Tripura. 832.124.Nationalist Congress Party was founded in ______. (A) 1925 (B) 1955 (C) 1984 (D) 1999 correct answers (D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Nationalist Congress Party(NCP) which was founded in 1999 and headed by Mr. Sharad pawar, is one of the seven National Parties in India. Other national parties are Indian National Congress, BJP, CPI, CPI (M), BSP, AITC. 833.125.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party "NCP"? (A) Nationalist Congress Party (B) National Congress Party (C)National Communist Party (D) Nationalist Communist Party correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Nationalist Congress Party(NCP) which was founded in 1999 and headed by Mr. Sharad pawar, is one of the seven National Parties in India. Other national parties are Indian National Congress, BJP, CPI, CPI (M), BSP, AITC. 834.126.United Progressive Alliance was founded in? (A) 1951 (B) 1998 (C) 2004 (D) 1980 correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: United Progressive Alliance(UPA) was formed after 2004 general election in India. Sonia Gandhi, who is chairman of Indian National Congress, is also the chairman of UPA. It consists of 10 parties. 835.127.The Look East Policy in India was started by which of the following Prime Ministers? (A) Rajiv Gandhi (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (C) P.V. Narasimha Rao (D) Manmohan Singh correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: "Look East Policy" is an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with South East Asian countries in order to strengthen its standing as a regional power. It was enacted during government of Prime minister P.V Narsimha Rao in 1991. 836.128.English is the official language of______ (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Meghalaya (C)Assam (D) Goa correct answers (B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: An official language is a language that is given a special legal status in a particular country or state. Meghalaya has English as its official language. Whereas Chhattisgarh, Assam and Goa has Hindi, Assamese and Konkani respectively as its official languages. 837.129.Marathi is the official language of _________. (A) Chandigarh (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C) Daman and Diu (D) Delhi correct answers (B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Marathi is the official language of Dadra and Nager Haveli along with Gujarati and Hindi. Delhi and Chandigarh have Hindi and English respectively as its official languages. Daman and Diu has Gujarati along with Konkani and Hindi as its official language. 838.130.Konkani is the official language of _________. (A) Lodha committee (B) Parekh committee (C) Sena committee (D) Akhil committee correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Lodha Committee was a three member committee headed by retired Chief Justice of India, R.M. Lodha. It was formed in 2015 which recommended changes in structure and working of BCCI. 847.139.Telugu is the official language of _________. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Assam (D) Bihar correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Telugu which is also one of the six languages designated as classical languages of India, is official language of Andhra Pradesh. It is ranked third by number of native speakers in India. The official languages of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam and Bihar are English, Assamese and Hindi respectively. 848.140.Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India? (A) Morarji Desai (B) Sukumar Sen (C) Sardar Patel (D) V.S Ramadevi correct answers (B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-324 of constitution establishes office of Election Commission which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Sukumar Sen was first Chief Election Commissioner of India who served from 1950 to 1958. 849.141.As per John Locke, an English philosopher and physician, which is not a Natural Right? (A) Liberty (B) Equality (C) Property (D) Right to Vote correct answers (D) Exp: John Locke was a prominent western philosopher who conceptualized rights as natural and inalienable. There rights are not dependent on any law of any particular government or culture. They are universal. John Locke believed in natural right to life, liberty, equality and property. Right to vote is a political right. 850.142.The Article 343 of the Indian Constitution is about (A) Number of seats for the Lok Sabha (B) Number of seats for the Rajya Sabha (C)Hindi as official language (D)Special status to Kashmir correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-343 of Indian constitution is about official language of Union and according to this article, it shall be Hindi in Devanagri Script. 851.143.Since Independence, India has been ruled by the Indian National Congress for how many years? (A) 18 (B) 26 (C) 39 (D) 49 correct answers (D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Indian National Congress which is the oldest political party in India (since 1885), has ruled the India for 49 years since independence. Currently, the country is ruled by National Democratic Alliance lead by Bhartiya Janta Party. 852.144.In which form of government priests rule in the name of God? (A) Fascism (B) Monarchy (C) Theocracy (D) Oligarchy correct answers (C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Theocracy is a form of government in which priests rule in the name of God. It is a government by divine guidance or by officials who are regarded as divinely guided. 853.145.English is the official language of _________. (A) Chandigarh (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C) Daman and Diu (D) Delhi correct answers (A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: English is official language of Chandigarh. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has recognised Gujarati, Marathi and Hindi whereas Daman and Diu has recognised Gujarati, Konkani and Hindi as its official languages. Hindi is official language of Delhi. 854.146.Urdu is the official language of _________. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) West Bengal (D) Jammu & Kashmir correct answers (D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Urdu is official language of state of Jammu and Kashmir. Whereas English, Telugu and Bengali are official languages of Arunachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal respectively. SSC CGL & CPO-2017 855.147.Is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. (A) Autocratic (B) Monarchic (C) Democratic (D) Authoritarian correct answers (C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Autocratic : Government in which one person possess unlimited power. Autocratic rulers used fear and control to gain total power. Monarchic : A state or a nation governed by hereditary right. Democratic : It is a form of government in which head of state is elected by people. Authoritarian : It is a form of government featuring centralisation of powers with limited freedom being given to its subjects or citizens. 856.148.Who said 'The God, who gave us life, gave us the liberty at the same time'? (A) Marx (B) Plato (C) Jefferson (D) Locke correct answers (C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: It was said by Thomas Jefferson. He was chief architect of Declaration of Independence of USA and later served as the third President of USA. 857.149.Which form of government believes in giving equal rights and opportunities for women and men? (A) Feminist (B) Secularist (C) Castiest (D) Communalist correct answers (A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Feminist government believes in ensuring equal rights and opportunities for men and women, both nationally and internationally. Sweden was deemed to have the first feminist government in the world. This doctrine believes in extending economic, social and political rights to woman as that of men. 858.150.When power is shared among different organs of government, then it known as _____. (A) Community Government Exp: Political theory of Fascism started in Italy under the leadership of Benito Mussolini. Thomas Carlyle was known as the founding father of Fascism. 867.159.Who among the following supports customary rights? (A) Ritchie (B) Locke (C) Plato (D) Heller correct answers (A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Customary rights are based on custom and traditional practices. Ritchie extended its support for customary rights. In India, forest dwellers and members of tribal and indigenous communities are entitled to enjoy their customary rights. 868.160.Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT? I. In federal government, power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary. II. Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics. III. Communal politics is based on the belief that one religion is superior to that of others. (A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II and III correct answers (B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: All statements are correct and self explanatory. 869.161.What is the term of office of Chief Election Commissioner of India? (A) Five years (B) Six years (C) Five years or 60 years of age (D) Six years or 65 years of age correct answers (D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Chief Election Commissioner holds the office for 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Election commission comprises of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioner. All three of them have equal say. In case of deadlock, decisions are taken through voting. 870.162.Coup is _____. (A) Sudden overthrow of a government illegally (B) A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of normal administration and justice (C) Territory under the immediate political control of another state (D) All options are correct. correct answers (A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Coup is a term denoting conspiracy to topple government illegally. Middle east countries have experienced many such instances eg. Egypt. 871.163._____ government is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own mistake. (A) Democratic (B) Monarchic (C) Authoritarian (D) Autocratic correct answers (A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Democratic government is better than all forms of government. Democracy means government of the people, for the people and by the people. It gives opportunities to individual, organization and entity to rectify the discrepancies. 872.164.Which among the following describes Public Interest group? (A) Organizations that promote interest of particular section of group (B) Organization that promote common interest (C) A Struggle launched for resolution of a social problem (D) Organization that mobilizes people with a view to win political power correct answers (B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Organization and bodies that promotes the common interest of all without any discrimination is called Public Interest Groups. These groups promote environmental protection, human right and consumer rights. 873.165.Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to alter Scheduled Area? (A) Supreme Court of India (B) High Court of State (C) Prime Minister of India (D) President of India correct answers (D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Only the President of India has the power to make any changes in Scheduled Area. Fifth schedule of constitution is concerned with administration of scheduled areas and also contains procedures for scheduling, rescheduling and alteration of scheduled areas. 874.166.Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of the NITI Aayog in India? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Vice President (D) Finance Minister correct answers (B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog is government think tank and is formed in 2015 after replacing Planning Commission. NITI Aayog is an acronym of National Institute For Transforming India. It was formed by a resolution passed by Cabinet. It is non-constitutional and non-statutory body. 875.167.Who is the father of 'Utilitarian School of Thought'? (A) Hegel (B) Bentham (C) James Mill (D) Locke correct answers (B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are known as the Father of 'Utilitarian School of Thought'. Utilitarianism emphasize on maximizing the good, that is to bring about the greatest amount of good for the greatest number. 876.168.Which of the following is not a good argument in favour of democracy? I. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens II. Democracies are more prosperous than others III. Democracies resolve conflicts in a better way (A) I and II (B) Only III (C) Only II (D) II and III correct answers (C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: It cannot be explicitly stated that democracies are more prosperous than other. Undoubtedly, democracies have enhanced the dignity of citizens and ensured resolution of conflicts in better manner. 877.169.What is a voluntary union of sovereign and independent states called? (A) Federation (B) Unitary state (C) Confederation (D) None of these correct answers (C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Confederation is the term used for voluntary union of sovereign and independent states. The classic example was U.S.S.R. In 1991 it disintegrated and many states claimed independence. Ultimately confederation was broken resulting in formation of many states. 878.170.In a ______ government, the final decision making power must rest with those elected by the people.