Portage Nursing Learning Patho/NUR 231 Module Exam Questions with Answers, Exams of Nursing

Download Portage Nursing Learning Patho/NUR 231 Module Exam Questions with Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Portage nursing Learning Patho/NUR 231 Module Exam Questions With Answers With Correctly Verified Solutions True/False: Persistent metaplasia can lead to dysplasia. True False True/False: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True Correct Answer False True/False: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is a type of dysplasia. Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 2 0 / 2.5 pts Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts True False True/False: Endometrial hyperplasia is a normal physiologic occurrence. True Correct Answer False Match the following: 1. Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease a. Validity 2. How likely the same result will occur if repeated b. Reliability 3. How a tool measures what it is intended to measure c. Sensitivity 4. People without the disease who are negative on a given test d. Specificity Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease Question 4 0 / 2.5 pts Question 5 10 / 10 pts c. Sensitivity It controls shape and movement Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes What factors are used by epidemiologic methods? Select all that apply. How disease is spread How to control disease How to prevent disease How to eliminate disease How to treat disease All of the above None of the above Question 10 1.88 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice A patient complains of a sore throat and headache. What are these examples of? Signs Symptoms Both A & B Multiple Choice Which of the following is NOT helpful to the clinician to make a diagnosis? Detailed history Physical exam Correct Answer Evidence based practice Laboratory tests Question 13 Question 12 0 / 2.5 pts Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Chemical agents (poison, alcohol) are examples of which of the following? Risk factors Clinical manifestations Pathogenesis Correct Answer Etiologic factors Define primary prevention and give an example: Your Answer: when the risk factors has to be remove to stop the disease from occurring example-eathing healthy / exercising to stay in shape or prevent heart disease.Giving vaccination to pervent disease in children The goal of primary prevention is to remove risk factors to prevent disease from occurring. Examples include taking folic acid while pregnant to prevent neural tube defects, vaccinating children to prevent communicable disease, eating healthy and exercising to prevent heart disease, and wearing seatbelts or helmets. Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary: Your Answer: apoptosis is the programmed of cell death.this process is necessary for cell dividing because it is removing unwanted cells to make way for new cell. Question 14 10 / 10 pts Question 15 10 / 10 pts Radiation treatment Lead toxicity Bacteria List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Your Answer: nervours tissue-can be find throughout the body and it's used for communication. muscle tissue connective tissue epithelial-(covers the outer surface of the body and lines the inner surfaces. Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment. b. Radiation injury c. Chemical injury d. Biologic agents Question 18 5 / 10 pts The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons. What term means “cell eating” and engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter? Your Answer: cell eating is refered to phagocytosis Phagocytosis What term means “cell drinking,” and engulfs small solid or fluid particles, as seen with proteins and electrolytes? Your Answer: cell drinking is refrered to pinocytosis Pinocytosis Give one function of a membrane potential: Your Answer: membrane potential can causes music contractions Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion What is the term that best describes the following process? A transport protein aiding a lipid insoluble or large molecule across the cell membrane that would otherwise not be able to pass through on its own. Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion facilitated diffusion Exam 2 Question 19 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 20 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 21 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 22 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Blood tests for tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? Your Answer: false,because tumor are usually elevated in benign conditions ,and in the early stages of malignancy they can't be elevated. False, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence. What is the most important procedure in diagnosing the correct cancer and histology? Your Answer: tissue biopsy because they play a critical role in dignosing the right cancer and histology tissue biopsy Explain the TNM system: Your Answer: is a staging system that was created by AJCC for the help study cancer.It is also very effective in classifieng cancers tumor componments. Classification goes as such: T relates to the local spread of the primary of the tumor and the size N relates to the involvement of the regional/location of the lymph nodes M is the extent of the metastatic invilvement T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. Question 2 3 / 3 pts Question 3 4 / 4 pts Question 1 3 / 3 pts What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it? Your Answer: angiogenesis is the delovement of new blood vessels with a tumor and tumorns need angiogenesis to grow development of new blood vessels within the tumor. They need it to continue to grow. What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer: proto-oncogenes protooncogenes What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer: they're gene that are associated with gene underactivity because of this it slows down cell division or may tell cell when to die. Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP53 A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor. Your Answer: I will tell her not to worry because leiomyoma is a non-cancerous tumor and it can be surgically remove and to always have a regular doctor visit two differences between a benign and malignant tumor is that has a well-differentiated cells and have slow progressive growth rate.Malignant tumor is more aggressive because it destroy tissue,grows rapidly and spread to other body parts and lacks well defined margins Question 11 3 / 3 pts Question 12 3 / 3 pts Question 13 10 / 10 pts Question 10 4 / 4 pts Leiomyoma is a benign tumor. (Leiomyosarcoma is malignant) Student can add any of the following: Benign tumors are well-differentiated cells, resemble the cells of tissues of origin, and have a slow, progressive rate of growth. They grow by expansion and remain localized to their site of origin, not capable of metastasizing. They develop a rim of connective tissue around the tumor called a fibrous capsule, which aids in surgical removal. Benign tumors are less of a threat unless they interfere with vital functions Malignant neoplasms invade and destroy tissue. They grow rapidly, spread to other parts of the body, and lack well-defined margins. They can compress blood vessels and outgrow their blood supply, causing ischemia and tissue injury. Surgery can be more difficult if it has spread. A 62-year-old man with a 30-pack year smoking history is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer with metastasis to the bone. (1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? Your Answer: 1) cancern that are spreads by metastatically is loose from the primary tumor that have extracellular matrix from the surrounding tumor,or has gain access to the blood vessle which it can grow and establish a blood supply. 2 some symptoms that may be presented are shortness of breath,chest or bone pain and cough 3) hw benefited from low dose chest CT that could be done yearly (1) Metastasis- a cancer cell must break loose from the primary tumor, invade the surrounding extracellular matrix, gain access to a blood vessel, survive its passage in the bloodstream, emerge at a favorable location, invade the surrounding tissue, begin to grow, and establish a blood supply. (2) Chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, bone pain. (3) Yearly low-dose chest CT. Malignant tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply. Variable rate of growth Spreads by metastasis Question 14 10 / 10 pts Question 15 1.5 / 3 pts Well-differentiated cells Fibrous capsule What are molecular and cellular mechanisms in genes that increase susceptibility to cancer? Select all that apply. Correct Answer Lack of cellular senescence Angiogenesis Ability to undergo apoptosis Mutations in growth factor signaling pathways Intact DNA repair genes List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Your Answer: 1)obesity Question 16 0 / 3 pts Question 17 4 / 4 pts List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Your Answer: observation-external genitalia palpation-lymph nodes lab test/procedure-pap smear Observation: skin, mouth, external genitalia Palpation: breast, thyroid, rectum and anus, prostate, lymph nodes Laboratory tests and procedures: Pap smear, colonoscopy, mammography Exam 3 Short answer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Your Answer: since there are too many autoimmune disorder,diagnosing is made by serological finding,history or physical testing.blood testing could have been a good way to test but since some blood are more generic can be elevated to show other diseases therefore it best go by finding that are listed. There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Multiple choice: Which cell is the first responder to phagocytose a foreign invader? Monocyte Question 1 5 / 5 pts Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 21 3 / 3 pts Basophil Eosinophil Dendritic cell Multiple Choice: What are the primary cells involved in the adaptive immune response? Antibodies Antigens Neutrophils Lymphocytes B lymphocytes produce what type of immunity? Your Answer: humoral immunity humoral Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 4 3 / 3 pts Multiple Choice: Which immunoglobulin is responsible in inflammation and allergic responses and combating parasitic infections? IgM IgE IgA IgD IgG Multiple Choice: Which cell type is an early responder and the most abundant in the body? Lymphocytes Eosinophils Basophils Question 6 2 / 2 pts Question 5 2 / 2 pts Monocytes True/False: During inflammation, blood vessels constrict to minimize tissue damage. True Correct Answer False True/False: Active immunity provides long lasting protection. Correct Answer True False True/False: B lymphocytes normally produce antibodies against host tissues. Question 11 0 / 3.5 pts Question 12 0 / 3 pts Question 13 0 / 2.5 pts True Correct Answer False Antibodies are also known as ? Your Answer: immunoglobulins immunoglobulins Multiple Choice: Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine? Type I Type II Type III Type IV Multiple Choice: Question 14 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 15 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 16 0 / 3.5 pts Which is NOT a type of type II hypersensitivity reaction? Correct Answer Antigen-mediated cellular inflammation antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction Complement- and antibody-mediated inflammation antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity complement-activated cell destruction Multiple Choice: A finding of diagnostic significance is the well-known association of HLA-B27 antigen with which of the following disorders? Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Ankylosing spondylitis HLA-B27 antigen is found in almost 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis Question 17 3.5 / 3.5 pts Neuron Renal tubular cell Fill in the blank As the CD4 T cell count decreases, the body becomes susceptible to . Your Answer: opportunistic infections Answer: opportunistic infections The time between HIV infection and seroconversion is called what? Your Answer: the window period Answer: the window period True/False: A person with HIV is not infectious when they are asymptomatic. True False Question 22 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 23 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 24 3.5 / 3.5 pts True/False: The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection. True Correct Answer False Multiple Choice: What cell mediator is the primary cause of vasodilation seen in acute inflammation? Endothelial cells Platelets Correct Answer Histamine Neutrophils Multiple Choice: Question 26 0 / 2.5 pts Question 27 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 25 0 / 2.5 pts Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which cell in the blood provides primary hemostasis? Platelets Endothelial cells Histamine Macrophages EXAM 4 The coagulation cascade involves each of the following except: Make thrombocytes Activate the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways Convert fibrinogen to fibrin Convert prothrombin to thrombin Which of the following are natural anticoagulants? Select all that apply. Factor II Question 2 0 / 2.5 pts Heparin administration Which of the following increases the strength of the muscular contraction? Wall tension Correct Answer Inotropic influence Peripheral vascular resistance Hypoxia Which of the following is true of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the kidneys Angiotensin II is a potent vasodilator Angiotensin II increases sodium reabsorption in the kidney by stimulating the secretion of aldosterone The PVR is decreased Question 6 0 / 2.5 pts Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following terms refers to the pressure the heart must generate to move blood into the aorta? Afterload Inotrope Preload Ejection fraction Multiple Choice What is the most specific test for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia? Ferritin RBC Total iron binding capacity Hematocrit Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia? Iron deficiency anemia, Thalassemias Folate deficiency, Sickle cell disease Sickle cell disease, Vitamin B12 deficiency Vitamin B12 deficiency and Folate deficiency Multiple Choice Which of the following is FALSE regarding sickle cell disease? Abnormality of HbS gene Blood vessel occlusion is a complication Average red cell lifespan is 60 days Can lead to encapsulated infections Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 10 2.5 / 2.5 pts Smoking cessation Weight reduction Multiple Choice: Which of the following is true of fatty streaks of atherosclerotic lesions? Present in adults only Can be symptomatic Form scar tissue and calcifications Consist of macrophages and smooth muscle cells Multiple Choice: 1. The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include each of the following except: a. Diastolic pressure b. Heart rate c. Left ventricular contractility d. Systolic pressure Fill in the Blank: 2. is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this increases, myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. Question 16 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 17 10 / 10 pts Multiple Choice: 3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? a. Heart failure b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocardial infarction d. Hypertension Multiple Choice: 4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? a. Decreased cardiac output b. Hypotension c. Hypoperfusion d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance Your Answer: 1) A 2)heart rate 3) C 4) D 1. A 2. Heart rate 3. C 4. D 1. Explain how ventricular hypertrophy is an adaptive mechanism: 2. What happens during exercise in someone with coronary artery disease? Your Answer: 1 by increasing the cardica output or physical myocardial changes Question 18 10 / 10 pts 2 they might have streangth the heart muscle and improve over all hearth or lower chances of heart attack 1. An increase in wall stress can be caused by an increase in preload or afterload. Ventricular hypertrophy is an adaptive mechanism by which the ventricle can offset the increase in wall stress. OR Blood pressure elevation increases the workload of the left ventricle by increasing the pressure against which the heart must pump as it ejects blood into the systemic circulation. Over time, the left ventricle hypertrophies to compensate for the increased pressure and work. 2. During exertion, the heart beats harder and faster to supply oxygen to the muscles. The coronary vessels vasodilate and increase blood flow to the cardiac muscle to meet its increased demand for oxygen. With atherosclerotic disease, the coronary vessel lumens are narrowed and blood supply to the heart is diminished. With exertion, the vessels cannot adequately vasodilate. This can manifest as chest pain or tightness and/or shortness of breath. 1. Hypertension is often called “the silent killer.” By the time symptoms of hypertension occur, the complications can affect the kidneys, heart, eyes, and blood vessels. What is this term called? 2. Left ventricular hypertrophy is a major risk factor for what other diseases? Name at least 2. Your Answer: 1 Target organ damage 2 it can cause heart diseases such as heart attack or storke 1. Target-organ damage 2. coronary heart disease, cardiac dysrhythmias, congestive heart failure, and sudden death. Multiple Choice: With increasing occlusion of the coronary vessel(s), the demands of the resting heart may become too great. When the patient experiences angina without exertion, or when the level of exertion necessary to cause anginal symptoms decreases, this is called what? Question 19 10 / 10 pts Question 20 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which pharmacologic treatment of hypertension has a mechanism of action characterized by reducing vascular smooth muscle tone (vasodilation) and reducing cardiac contractility and heart rate? Diuretics Calcium channel blockers Beta-blockers Ace-inhibitors Multiple Choice: Which arrhythmia is the most common chronic arrhythmia and incidence increases with age? Sinus bradycardia Sinus tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter Question 25 Question 24 2.5 / 2.5 pts 0 / 2.5 pts Which arrhythmias are dangerous because of severely reduced diastolic time and cardiac output? Select all that apply. Premature atrial contractions Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia Correct Answer Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation Premature ventricular contractions Atrial fibrillation Fill in the blank: are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis common among Mediterranean populations. Your Answer: Thalassemias Thalassemias Question 26 2.5 / 2.5 pts Fill in the blank: Thrombocytes are also known as . Your Answer: platelets Platelets Patient is found to have the above: 1. What risk factors mostly led to this disease state? 2. What is this person at risk for developing? 3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them? Your Answer: 1) obesity,high chilesteral valves,visceral fat and poor die 2) they're at risk od developing Atherosclerosis 3) they can start a healthy diet,stop smooking,reduce alcohol consumption or start taking blood pressure medication Answer: Picture is of an atherosclerotic plaque Question 28 10 / 10 pts Question 27 2.5 / 2.5 pts True Correct Answer False True/False: The accessory muscles are the main muscles of inspiration. True False diaphragm True/False: Excess surface tension makes lung inflation harder. Correct Answer True False Question 9 Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 8 0 / 2.5 pts 5 / 5 pts Fill in the blank: lowers the surface tension and makes lung inflation easier. Your Answer: surfactants Pulmonary surfactant is the flow of blood in the adjacent pulmonary capillaries. Your Answer: perfusion Perfusion Which of the following cells contribute to airway inflammation in asthma? Select all that apply. Eosinophils Mast cells Correct Answer Neutrophils Correct Answer Leukotrienes Question 10 5 / 5 pts Question 11 1.5 / 2.5 pts Lymphocytes Multiple Choice: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is most likely seen in which disease process? Bronchial asthma Chronic bronchitis Emphysema Bronchiectasis Multiple Choice: Histologically, chronic bronchitis would exhibit each of the following except: Enlargement of the airspaces Increase in goblet cells Fibrosis of the bronchiolar wall Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts respiration but if there is a higher rate of oxygen,it would suppresses respiratory drive and stimulus Their medullary respiratory center has adapted to the elevated CO2 levels and no longer responds to increases in PCO2. Therefore, a decrease in PO2 becomes the stimulus for respiration. If oxygen is given at too high of a rate, it suppresses the stimulus and the respiratory drive. Short answer: 1.) Your patient’s lung showed the following: what is the only treatment that can delay the progression of this disease? 2.) Which is more soluble in plasma: carbon dioxide or oxygen? Question 18 10 / 10 pts Your Answer: 1) the patient needs to go on a smoking cessation 2) Carbon dioxide 1.) smoking cessation 2.) Carbon dioxide Short answer Some people have the triad of asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis, and nasal polyps. They have asthma attacks in response to taking what medication(s)? Your Answer: Aspirin and Other NSAIDs Aspirin and other NSAIDs Multiple Choice: Each of the following can lead to atelectasis except: Pleural effusion Tumor mass Thrombus Question 19 5 / 5 pts Question 20 5 / 5 pts Mucous plug Multiple Choice: Asthma exhibits each of the following characteristics except: Bronchial swelling Mucus secretion Airway remodeling Hypertrophy of the submucosal glands Multiple Choice: Each of the following can be daily treatments for asthma except: Bronchodilators Correct Answer Oxygen therapy Inhaled corticosteroids Question 21 5 / 5 pts Question 22 0 / 5 pts Stage 4 Multiple Choice: A person reports a generalized depressed mood, changes in appetite, and irritability that gets worse as the day goes on. They also report that they sleep more than 8 hours which is affecting their productivity. What type of depression are they experiencing? Melancholic depression Atypical depression Depression with psychotic features Depression with catatonic features Multiple Choice: Each of the following statements is true regarding the organization of the nervous system except: Correct Answer The CNS has an afferent and efferent division The autonomic nervous system can be further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions Question 5 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 6 0 / 2.5 pts The CNS contains the hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain The PNS contains the cranial nerves Multiple Choice: Each of the following statements is true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: Neurofibrillary tangles are a result of an abnormal accumulation of amyloid in the blood vessels Neuritic plaques are composed of deteriorating nerve pieces that arrange themselves around a sticky protein core called amyloid beta (Aβ) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy contributes to the pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease Multiple Choice: Non-modifiable factors related to stroke include each of the following except: Male sex Hypertension Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts African American decent Family history Multiple Choice: Primary insomnia is characterized by each of the following except: Difficulty initiating sleep Difficulty maintaining sleep Waking up too early Can also be called comorbid insomnia Multiple Choice: A “drop attack” is another term for which type of seizure? Myoclonic seizure Clonic seizure Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 10 2.5 / 2.5 pts Answer: hypopnea Fill in the blank: utilizes electric impulses to inhibit or stop the abnormal nerve activity that causes tremor and other unwanted movement patterns associated with Parkinson’s disease. Your Answer: deep brain stmulation Answer: Deep brain stimulation Fill in the blank: Specialized ependymal cells that project into the ventricles and produce CSF are called the . Your Answer: choroid plexus Answer: Choroid plexus T/F – Make true if False Astrocytes help to form the blood-brain barrier which prevents toxins from the blood from entering the brain. Your Answer: false Answer: True Question 16 2 / 2 pts Question 17 2 / 2 pts Question 18 0 / 5 pts Question 19 5 / 5 pts T/F – Make true if False The average age of onset for major depressive disorder is mid-30s; however, the age of onset is increasing in recent times. Your Answer: false Answer: False, the age of onset is decreasing in recent times. T/F – Make true if False Vital signs increase during stage 1 of NREM sleep. Your Answer: false Answer: False, vital signs decrease during stage 1 of NREM sleep. T/F – Make true if False Wandering episodes are characteristic of severe Alzheimer’s disease. Your Answer: true Answer: False, wandering episodes increase in moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Short Answer Essay Explain the mechanism of electric synapses and how they contribute to the rapid propagation of an action potential. Your Answer: electric synapeses allow the passage of currents through the gap junctions.Gap junction than penetrate cells junction of neighboring cells which allows current to flow in both direntions Question 20 5 / 5 pts Question 21 0 / 5 pts Question 22 5 / 5 pts Answer: Electrical synapses allow the passage of current-carrying ions through small openings called gap junctions. These gap junctions penetrate the cell junction of neighboring cells allowing current to flow in either direction. Short Answer Essay You witness a seizure in which the person first exhibits a full body muscular contraction followed by a loss of consciousness and convulsions. Is this a generalized or focal seizure? Based upon this description, what specific type of seizure did this individual experience? Your Answer: this is a case of Generalize seizures and tonic-clonic seizure beccause in this type of seizure the person will experience tonic contraction of the muscles and lose consciouness. Answer: Generalized, Tonic-clonic seizure Short Answer Essay Describe the importance of brain activity that occurs during REM sleep. Your Answer: during REM there is a block in the increase sensory input making the brain not to process it.But there is still a internalized sensory that allows previously memories and the person is still able to have normal physiologic and psychologic functions. Answer: During this phase of sleep, incoming sensory input is blocked; the brain cannot process it. However, internalized sensory tracts are stimulated allowing previously formed memories to replay in one’s mind. Studies have shown that adequate time spent in REM sleep is necessary for normal physiologic and psychologic functioning during periods of wakefulness. Short Answer Essay A patient reports to the emergency department where you are working at 7 pm. They report that earlier that morning they began to experience numbness in their right leg. They had walked Question 23 5 / 5 pts Question 24 5 / 5 pts Question 25 5 / 5 pts Multiple Choice: Risk factors for gallstone formation include each of the following EXCEPT: Obesity Male gender Age (40’s) Pregnancy Multiple choice: Predisposing factors that may lead to gastroesophageal reflux include each of the following EXCEPT: Hiatal hernia Pernicious anemia Pregnancy Incompetent esophageal sphincter Question 3 5 / 5 pts Multiple choice Clinical presentation of irritable bowel syndrome can include each of the following EXCEPT: Abdominal pain or discomfort for at least 12 weeks duration Pain may be relieved with defecation Constipation or diarrhea may be present Correct Answer Blood in the stool Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include which of the following? Select all that apply. Correct Answer Aspirin therapy Eating acidic foods Correct Answer pylori infection Question 5 1.25 / 5 pts Question 4 0 / 5 pts Stress Correct Answer NSAID use Multiple Choice Gastric ulcers are worsened by . Duodenal ulcers are worsened by . A. Eating; not eating B. Not eating; eating C. Both a & b D. None of the above Multiple choice Each of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis EXCEPT: Granulomatous lesions Bloody diarrhea Question 6 5 / 5 pts Question 7 5 / 5 pts True False Short answer: What are the intermittent contractions that help to mix and move food along? Your Answer: It's the rhythmic movement Answer: Rhythmic movements True/False Activation of the peripheral nervous system decreases or stops the amplitude of the slow waves. True Correct Answer False Short Answer: lies between the mucosal and muscle layers of the intestinal wall, and is involved with controlling secretions, absorption, and contraction of each segment of the intestinal tract. Your Answer: Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 14 0 / 2.5 pts Question 15 2.5 / 2.5 pts the submucosal plexus Answer: Submucosal (Meissner) plexus Short answer: Food is converted in the stomach into a creamy mixture called? Your Answer: chyme Answer: chyme Short answer What are rhythmic movements designed to propel the chyme along the small intestine toward the large intestine? Your Answer: peristaltic contractions Answer: Peristaltic movements Short answer: What is the purpose of propulsive mass movements? Your Answer: it's part of the larger segment of the colon that helps move fecal matter and triggers the need for bowel movement. A large segment of the colon contracts as a unit, moving the fecal contents forward. These mass movements last about 30 seconds, followed by a 2-3-minute period of relaxation, then another contraction. This is what triggers the need for a bowel movement. Question 16 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 17 5 / 5 pts Question 18 5 / 5 pts True/False: Antibiotics should be used to treat all types of diarrhea. True False Fill in the blank: Consistently ignoring the urge to defecate can result in . Your Answer: Constipation Answer: constipation Multiple Choice: Clinical manifestations of cirrhosis include each of the following EXCEPT: Hemorrhoids Asterixis Esophageal varices Question 20 5 / 5 pts Question 21 0 / 5 pts Question 19 5 / 5 pts Elevated levels of ADH will lead to dilute urine. decreased levels of ADH will lead to dilute urine. Alcohol inhibits ADH. Which of the following statements is true regarding nephrons? It is divided into an outer medulla and an inner cortex It has 1 source of blood supply The glomerulus filters the blood while the tubule reabsorbs needed nutrients Low Na+ levels in the plasma and interstitial compartment is characteristic of which of the following fluid imbalances? Dehydration Correct Answer Water intoxication Edema Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 4 0 / 2.5 pts Tubular reabsorption is characterized by which of the following? The reabsorption of water and ions via passive means only Necessary solutes and fluids are reabsorbed into the tubular fluid Correct Answer Necessary solutes and fluids are reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries Which of the following is/are true regarding acid-base balance? (mark all that apply) Acid-base balance refers to the balance of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood Acid-base balance refers to the balance of the concentration of bicarbonate ions (OH-) in the blood Correct Answer Venous blood is characterized by a more acidic pH A higher concentration of OH- ions will increase the pH of the blood Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis is characterized by the following except: Question 6 0 / 2.5 pts Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 5 0 / 2.5 pts Typically caused by a streptococcal infection Associated with a poor prognosis as it often leads to CKD the prognosis is good when underlying cause is treated Accompanied by glomerular enlargement and hypercellularity Oliguria is often the first symptom Which of the following is characteristic of chronic transplant rejection? Correct Answer Involves humoral immunity It responds well to immunosuppressive therapy Involves increased T lymphocytes Which of the following is true of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol? It is the inactive form of vitamin D taken in through the skin via UV rays It is the inactive form of synthetic vitamin D Question 8 0 / 2.5 pts Question 9 0 / 2.5 pts Your Answer: erythroietin Answer: erythropoietin Fill in the blank: The causes CO2 to react reversibly with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3) to regulate blood pH. Your Answer: red blood cell Answer: brainstem-respiratory system Fill in the blank: A person who has a blood Mg2+ concentration of 3.3 mg/dL. Is considered to have . Your Answer: hypermagnesemia Answer: hypermagnesemia Fill in the blank: A drastic decrease in urine output accompanied by a disproportionate increase of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in comparison to serum creatinine levels is characteristic of failure. Your Answer: renal Answer: prerenal Question 15 0 / 2 pts Question 16 2 / 2 pts Question 17 2 / 2 pts T/F, if False make the statement True When blood pressure rises, the enzyme renin is released by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the nephron. Your Answer: false because juxtaglomerular cells usually response when there's a drop in pressure when there is any kind of stretch or changes in the vascular war Answer: False, when blood pressure drops, the enzyme renin is released by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the nephron. T/F, if False make the statement True Hyperkalemia can be caused by movement of K+ from the ECF to the ICF compartment. Your Answer: false it's cause by movement of K+ from the ICF to ECF compartment Answer: False, hyperkalemia can be cause by the movement of K+ from the ICF to the ECF compartment. Short Answer: Explain why renal flow is decreased with sympathetic activity. Your Answer: because sympathetic activity deverts blood to the heart,skeletal nuscle and brain which is control by the nervous system.therefore when there is a narrowing in the afferent arteriole,there will be a release of epinephrine which will most likely lead decrease of flow in the renal and GFR Answer: Sympathetic activity diverts blood to the heart, brain, and skeletal muscles. During these times the renal autoregulatory system may be superseded by nervous system Question 19 5 / 5 pts Question 20 5 / 5 pts Question 18 5 / 5 pts control. In this event, a narrowing of the afferent arteriole is caused by sympathetic nerve fibers followed by a release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla which leads to a subsequent decrease in renal flow and the GFR. Short Answer: A patient has a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and a subsequent electrolyte imbalance. Which electrolyte imbalance may they experience given this condition? Explain why pancreatitis would lead to this imbalance. Your Answer: Dehydration Pancreatitis would lead to dehadration due to water output that has been exceed by water intake Answer: Hypocalcemia. Acute pancreatitis causes the release of proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes. Free fatty acids are released during lipolysis in the pancreas. Ca2+ binds to these fatty acids removing them from the blood. Short Answer: A patient has a diagnosis of glomerular disease. Given what you know about the structural framework of the glomerular capillaries, what would be detected in this patient’s urine, and explain why this would happen. Your Answer: the urine will have blood and protein due to lock of prevention of red blood cells and plasma proteins which is provent by the glomerular capillaries from passing through the glomerular membrane into the filtrate is no longer being block from passing through Answer: Blood and protein may be present in the urine. Spaces within the basement membrane of the glomerular capillaries, under normal circumstances prevent red blood cells and plasma proteins from passing through the glomerular membrane into the filtrate. The disease process would compromise this. Short Answer: Question 21 5 / 5 pts Question 22 5 / 5 pts Question 23 5 / 5 pts Multiple Choice: The following are common signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome EXCEPT: Hypoglycemia Mood changes Muscle weakness Amenorrhea Multiple Choice: Each of the following are treatments of Addison’s disease EXCEPT? Hormone therapy for life Regular mealtimes Correct Answer ACE inhibitors Question 3 0 / 5 pts Question 2 5 / 5 pts Higher dose of hormones during stress Multiple Choice: Addison’s disease is due to which of the following: Adrenal gland dysfunction Decreased ACTH stimulation from the pituitary Decreased CRH from the hypothalamus All of the above None of the above An endocrine hormone is released into circulation to act on a target organ. True False Question 4 5 / 5 pts Question 5 2.5 / 2.5 pts A paracrine action occurs when a hormone exerts an action on the cells that produced it. True False Hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies. True False The production and release of hormones by the pituitary gland requires stimulation by the hypothalamus. True False What hormone plays a major role in the maintenance of body metabolism and growth and development in children? Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 9 0 / 5 pts Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts True Correct Answer False When the body is in starvation mode, it breaks down fat into ketones. True False Most hormones are controlled through negative feedback. True False People with type 1 diabetes can start treatment with an oral anti-diabetic agent. True Question 14 2 / 2 pts Question 15 2 / 2 pts Question 16 2 / 2 pts False Testing for diabetes should be done on everyone initially at age 60. True False A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What are 2 strategies to help him normalize his blood sugars? List 2 other macrovascular complications he is at risk for and how you would screen for them? Your Answer: 1) exercise, diet eating healthy wichwich will increase weaith loos may help contro his blood glucose levels. 2) other macarovascular complication are hypertension and hyperlipidemia and always checking blood pressure,sugar level as well as screening regularly Answer: (1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to control blood glucose levels. Even moderate weight loss of 5-10% of total body weight has been shown to improve glucose control. (2) Hypertension and hyperlipidemia – checking blood pressure and screening with a serum lipid panel. There are ways to prevent and/or control progression of diabetic kidney disease (nephropathy). Name 4 of them: Your Answer: Ways to prevent/control progression of diabetic nepgropathy is by testing urine microalbuin,tight glycemic control ,blood pressure control, and hyperlipidemia treatment Question 17 2 / 2 pts Question 18 5 / 5 pts Question 19 5 / 5 pts Answer: Tight glycemic control; blood pressure control (<130/80); hyperlipidemia treatment; smoking cessation; and limiting proteinuria through ACE inhibitors or ARBs, or protein restriction. Symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) include each of the following EXCEPT: Polydipsia Dehydration Fruity smell on the breath Bradycardia Which drug therapy for diabetes does not cause hypoglycemia and has a side effect of weight loss, making it a popular oral antidiabetic treatment? A. Biguanides (metformin) B. Insulin secretagogues (sulfonylureas) C. Thiazolidinediones (glitazones) D. α-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose and miglitol) E. DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, saxagliptin) A. B. C. Question 20 5 / 5 pts Question 21 5 / 5 pts