PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank)/Primary Professional Military Education/ Complete solution, Exams of Health psychology

Download PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank)/Primary Professional Military Education/ Complete solution and more Exams Health psychology in PDF only on Docsity! Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 2 The Culture of the Navy RED: THIS IS THE ANSWER BLUE: one of them is the answer (you guess) ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM SECTION 1: CHIEF PETTY OFFICER HISTORY, DUTIES, AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? ** hat device 2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? ** U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role? ** The top technical authority and expert within a rating 4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? ** Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues 5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? ** It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? ** The Retention Task Force of 1964 7. In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? ** Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command 8. During the early 1900’s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? ** Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer 9. On 28 April 1967, became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. ** GMCM Delbert Black 10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? ** Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention rates 11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? ** Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy 12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? ** broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation 13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? ** 1958 14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? ** Strengthen chief petty officer standards 15. According to the 1918 BlueJacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were P a g e 1 | 241 ** Technical expert and example setter SECTION 2: OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT P a g e 2 | 241 ** Fleet Readiness Plan 6. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? ** A 27-month cycle 7. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? ** a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan 8. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? ** 6 9. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? **After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations 10. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? ** Sea Basing 11. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? ** 6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days 12. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? ** Maintain its relevance 13. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? ** Approximately 16 months 14. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as . **homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism 15. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? ** When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase SECTION 4: MILITARY FORMATIONS 1. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the Sailors? ** Open ranks 2. What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? ** Preparatory 3. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? ** From most senior award to most junior 4. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? ** Attention 5. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? ** Precision and automatic response 6. During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. ** Baron von Steuben 7. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? ** To use as a tool to punish your Sailors 8. As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? ** Awards ceremony 9. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? ** Leaving the shipyards after 120 days 10. Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? ** Baron von Steuben 11. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. ** fear P a g e 5 | 241 12. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? ** FLANK P a g e 6 | 241 13. Sailors are in a , when placed in formation one behind the other? ** File 14. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? ** Refueling evolution 15. What is the distance between ranks? ** 40 16. A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. ** Element 17. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? ** inflection 18. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? ** OPEN RANKS 19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? ** Prior to the seasonal uniform change SECTION 5: MILITARY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS, AND COURTESIES 1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? ** The right front passenger seat salutes 2. What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? ** Salute 3. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ? ** Chief Master Sergeant 4. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? ** The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal 5. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? ** The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations 6. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? ** LEFT 7. Who exits a military vehicle first? ** The senior leaves first 8. What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? ** Sergeant Major 9. What is meant by “under arms”? ** When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon 10. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? ** At six paces or closest point of approach. 11. What is the definition of “prescribable items”? ** Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. 12. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? ** Staff Sergeant P a g e 7 | 241 ** stability 9. The current headquarters of the Fifth Fleet is located in . ** Manama, Bahrain 10. Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)? ** Fifth Fleet 11. Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? ** The establishment of an anti-Western/anti-United States nation in Iran 12. Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan during what operation? ** Operation ENDURING FREEDOM 13. The area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas? ** The western portion of the Indian Ocean, the Red and Arabian Seas, the Persian (Arabian) Gulf, Gulf of Oman and Gulf of Aden. 14. The past two decades have seen in Navy operations conducted in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR). ** an increase 15. Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation . ** IRAQI FREEDOM 16. During Operation DESERT STORM, a relatively small amphibious force consisting of 17,000 embarked Marines were able to tie up an Iraqi force of approximately soldiers. ** 80,000 17. When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? ** Late 1970’s 18. What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint operations? ** Operation EAGLE CLAW 19. U.S. Navy ships have operated in what is now the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) since the . ** early 1800’s SECTION 4: SIXTH FLEET 1. During the Civil War, the most well-known sinking of a Confederate commerce raider by a Union warship occurred when the USS Kearsarge sank the . ** CSS Alabama 2. In 1986, the Navy conducted Operation , which consisted of air strikes on Libya in retaliation for terrorist bombings in Germany. ** ELDORADO CANYON 3. The Sixth Fleet is assigned to . ** Commander, Naval Forces Europe 4. The Sixth Fleet’s responsibility to NATO include . Select all that apply. ** report to NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander Europe ** deter aggression against NATO members ** prepare to conduct maritime strike and amphibious/expeditionary operations 5. Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included . Select all that apply. ** laying some 60,000 mines ** convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean. ** clearing minefields after the war 6. Sixth Fleet’s commander is the maritime component commander of . Select all that apply. ** USEUCOM ** USAFRICOM 7. The U.S. maintained a presence in the Mediterranean in the years following World War II, because . ** of the threat posed by the Soviets to Turkey and Iran 8. During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in . Select all that apply. ** Southern Italy P a g e 10 | 241 ** Sicily ** North Africa P a g e 11 | 241 9. Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility encompasses . Select the best answer. ** the geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM 10. Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? Select all that apply. ** covers 20 million square miles of ocean ** covers 30 percent of the earth’s landmass ** touches more than 67 percent of the earth’s coastline ** encompasses nearly 40 percent of the world’s population 11. The Sixth Fleet received its designation in . ** 1950 12. Fleet was established to control all U.S. naval forces in Europe, including the Allies’ cross-channel assault at Normandy. ** Twelfth 13. The Navy’s first overseas installation was . ** Port Mahon on the Spanish island of Minorca in 1807 15. The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in . ** Naples, Italy 16. When commanding NATO’s Naval Striking and Support Forces, Sixth Fleet’s commander reports to . ** Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) 17. Select True or False: A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World War I. ** True 18. NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as . ** Commander, USEUCOM 19. Select True or False: The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in World War II. ** False SECTION 5: PACIFIC FLEET 1. In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in the Pacific? ** All the answers are correct. 2. What two subordinate numbered fleets compose the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet? ** Third Fleet and Seventh Fleet 3. Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet located? ** Pearl Harbor, Hawaii 4. Which of the following is NOT a current task of the Third Fleet? ** Monitoring the Straits of Hormuz and Bab al Mandeb 5. During the Civil War, what was the greatest threat in the Pacific? ** Confederate commerce raiders 6. Nearly percent of the world’s population lives within the area of responsibility (AOR) encompassed by the U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet. ** 50 7. Where is the headquarters for today’s Seventh Fleet located? ** Yokosuka, Japan 8. What external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of American sea power to the Pacific? ** The rising threat of Japan 9. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf? ** General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa. 10. When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii? ** 1940's 11. When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the Pacific? ** 1920's P a g e 12 | 241 etiquette? Juniors board the boat first. P a g e 15 | 241 12. If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation? Surface Warfare Lieutenant 15. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is . the burial at sea SECTION 2: SHIPS – CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS 1. You are standing watch at night as the Officer of the Deck (OOD) on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is . ** announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat 2. Ship launching ceremonies . ** began at the dawn of recorded history 3. Stars on Navy streamers . ** follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars 4. The U.S. Navy . ** was the last service to adopt battle streamers 5. The sloop Concord is notable because . ** it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman 6. While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) . ** All the answers are correct. 7. Before commissioning, a ship must . ** complete and pass a series of Sea Trials 8. The christening ceremony includes . ** naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow 9. Boat hailing protocols became necessary . ** in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required 10. Ships in the U.S. Navy . ** are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance 11. While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, . ** the Officer of the Deck (OOD) stands watch on the quarterdeck 12. Battle streamers . ** commemorate the services of Sailors in the past 13. Hailing protocols . ** are not published in any regulation 14. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy . ** first was recorded for the USS Constitution in 1797 15. Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” . ** All the answers are correct. 16. On modern ships, the quarterdeck . ** is designated by the Commanding Officer 17. All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT . ** walking on the port side 18. What is the tradition of the quarterdeck? ** All the answers are correct. 19. The Navy’s battle streamers . ** span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo 20. All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT . ** the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive P a g e 16 | 241 21. The “Returning Home Pennant” . P a g e 17 | 241 5. Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”? Select all correct answers: ** Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza. ** Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events. 6. A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was . ** Franklin D. Roosevelt 7. Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? ** All the answers are correct. 8. Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? ** A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860. 9. Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are . ** Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) 10. In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? ** All the answers are correct. 11. Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? ** To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 12. Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? ** A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860. 14. What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy? ** The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services. 15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? ** All the answers are correct. 16. The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? ** Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States. 17. proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? ** Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson 18. Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? ** All the answers are correct. 19. What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military? ** George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. 17. The author of “Anchors Aweigh,” Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? ** All the answers are correct. ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER SECTION 1: MILITARY ETHICS OVERVIEW 1. The Principle of Utility is All of the answers are correct 2. The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom.” Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’ core values and heritage 3. Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning,” “truth can not be known,” and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? Nihilism P a g e 20 | 241 4. The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty”. False P a g e 21 | 241 5. Character-based ethics argues right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue 6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: Freedom-based ethics 7. In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations True 8. A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies . a reason-based approach to truth and justice 9. Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. All the answers are correct 10. Freedom-based ethics focus on decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses 11. Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of character-based ethics 12. Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system Freedom-based ethics 13. Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. True 14. Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based,” “rule-based,” or . character-based 15. An ethical person is someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live 16. Relativism postulates All the answers are correct 17. The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number.” False 18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of . consequentialism 19. Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want,” “no one can stop me,” and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? Criminality SECTION 2: ETHICS IN THE PROFESSION OF ARMS 1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for me;” it does nothing to preclude evil. Egoism 2. Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral effectiveness 3. What constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? All the answers are correct. 4. Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the path to becoming a person of character. 5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development? Moral relativism P a g e 22 | 241 circumstances. The Code of Conduct 5. The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for P a g e 25 | 241 prisoners of war 6. Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war? The Uniform Code of Military Justice 7. Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? Truth is relative 8. The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. False 9. Select the order of the Navy's Core Values respectively matching the following portions of the Oath of Enlistment. “I will bear true faith and allegiance.” “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.” “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic.” ** Honor, Commitment, Courage 10. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape. 11. The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it . clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment 12. The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)? Ship, shipmate, self 13. In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal. True 14. When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important? This is an ethical dilemma which can not be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 15. The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is characteristics develop from corresponding activities 16. Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true? The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war.. 17. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape. 18. What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment? Responsibility 19. Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor 20. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 21. is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion. Commitment SECTION 4: THE JUST WAR TRADITION 1. The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack P a g e 26 | 241 2. The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back . more than 1600 years 3. While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. True P a g e 27 | 241 Which of the following statements is NOT true? ** This is absolutely prohibited by the Standards of Conduct. 5. Which of the following is NOT true? ** Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as door prizes at events such as Morale, Welfare, and Recreation fund raisers. 6. Which of the following would most likely be prohibited? ** A Commander’s husband works for a defense contractor that supplies the Commander's unit (she’s a department head) with supplies. Her husband is one of thirty executives at his company. She is invited to attend the contractor’s annual retreat with her husband. She is told by the contractor’s CEO that the spouses of all of the executives were invited. Upon arrival the Commander realizes that she is the only spouse in attendance and because of that, she and her husband are given a luxury suite while the other executives share double rooms. Because she was told all of the spouses were invited, she stays at the retreat. 7. While on official travel, a Commander is involuntarily bumped from her flight. The airline books the Commander on the next flight which won’t leave until the next morning and gives her one free round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the following statements is true? ** All of the answers are correct. 8. The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to . ** ensure Federal employees serve the public good 9. Which of the following statements is NOT true? ** The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 10. Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity? ** In order to fund its annual summer picnic, a command’s Morale, Welfare, and Recreation committee plans to hold a bake sale the week prior to the picnic. 11. Civilian Department of Defense employees who violate the Standards of Conduct may face . Select all answers that would make the above statement true: ** termination ** fines and prosecution by the Federal government 12. Which of the following would be prohibited? ** The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ship’s communication’s officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7.50 by the Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00. 13. Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited? ~ The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron. 14. Which statement is NOT true? ** Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code. SECTION 6: LAWFUL AND UNLAWFUL ORDERS 1. Which of the following is true? ~ Lawful orders can only be given to a service member from other service members. ~ All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful. 2. Which of the following is true? ** A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted under Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military 3. Which of the following statements is true? ** An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order. 4. An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do? ** Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT. P a g e 30 | 241 5. What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal? ** Refuse the order and report to higher authority. 6. Which of the following is NOT true? P a g e 31 | 241 ** A service member may only receive a lawful order from a service member who is senior to him or her in rank. 7. Which of the following is NOT true? ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. 8. In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wear United Nations beret and armband as part of his uniform as he believed that the order to do so was not a lawful order. Which of the following statements is true? ** A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful and he was convicted of failure to obey a lawful order. 9. The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is . ** discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for two years 10. A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true? ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish. 11. A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true? ** The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major. 12. A Third Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating . ** Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 13. Navy Reserve medical detachment, headed by a Reserve Component Medical Corps Captain, is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the following is true? ** The Commander may issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039. 14. The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer is . ** death during time of war 15. A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a member of the base police force. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the Seaman Recruit orders the LT to exit the automobile in order to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT refuses to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman Recruit’s supervisor, a LCDR arrives and orders the LT to exit the car and take the test. The LT complies and is found not to be impaired. Which of the following statements is true? ** The LT may be found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 16. provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior. ** Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1039 17. In order for a service member to be found guilty of Failure to Obey a General Order . ** it must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the general order was in effect and that the service member either violated or failed to obey the general order 18. A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following EXCEPT . ~ Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice ~ Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice 19. A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true? ** The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 20. What should a service member do when given an order that is unclear, but appears to be an unlawful order? Select all answers which make the above statement true: ** Ask for clarification of the order, in writing if necessary. ** Determine if the order is in contradiction to previously issued orders. P a g e 32 | 241 ** To complete tasks assigned to combatant commanders by the President or Secretary of Defense P a g e 35 | 241 15. Which of the following is a role of the United States Marine Corps? ** All the answers are roles of the United States Marine Corps. 16. functions authorize a Service to develop force structure to accomplish them. ** Primary 17. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** Congress assigns specific tasks, or missions, directly to the combatant commanders. 18. The Marine Corps is tasked with which Department of the Navy (DON) functions? ** Land operations and amphibious operations 19. Service-specific functions were initially outlined by President Truman in Executive Order 9877 in the late . ** 1940's SECTION 2: NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION 1. The statutory members of the National Security Council are the . ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, National Security Advisor, and the Director for Homeland Security ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs ~ President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and the Secretary of State 2. Combatant commanders are responsible directly to the . ** Secretary of Defense and the President 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE? ** The Chief of Naval Operations, as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, may submit advice to the President that is in disagreement with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. 4. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ~ The Secretary of Defense is in both the operational and administrative chains of command. ~ The Secretary of the Navy reports to the Secretary of Defense in the administrative chain of command. ~ The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is in the operational chain of command of every U.S. military unit. 5. The responsibilities of the Service Chiefs include all of the following EXCEPT . ** reporting to the Secretary of Defense as part of the operational chain of command 6. Which of the following statements is FALSE? ** The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is subordinate to the Service Chiefs. 7. Which statement is TRUE? ~ The functional combatant commanders are directly subordinate to the geographic combatant commanders. ~ The four geographic combatant commanders report directly to the Secretary of ~ The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is senior to the service chiefs. 8. The two types of Combatant Commands are . ** geographic and functional 9. Which of the following would make this statement FALSE? The Commandant of the Coast Guard . P a g e 36 | 241 ** as a military Service Chief, is a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff P a g e 37 | 241 ** National Security Strategy (NSS) P a g e 40 | 241 18. Select True or False: When a combatant commander uses military forces on foreign soil, the combatant commander of the region in which U.S. forces are employed, retains control of those forces. ** True 19. The instrument of national power is the primary means through which the U.S. engages with foreign nations or groups. ** diplomatic 20. The is the law that requires the President to prepare the National Security Strategy for Congress. ~ Goldwater-Nichols Act ~ Taft-Hartley Act ~ Bill of Rights SECTION 4: JOINT VISION FOR FUTURE WARFIGHTING 1. A Joint Operating Concept . ~ identifies broad principles and capability gaps ~ is placed in operational context by associated Joint Functional Concepts ~ identifies broad principles and essential capabilities 2. A joint concept is . ** a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives 3. Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus? ** Joint Integrating Concept 4. Required capabilities and attributes are identified by . ** Joint Functional Concepts 5. The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process . ** describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow 6. A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective . ** 8-20 years in the future 7. Full Spectrum Dominance is . ~ the ability to achieve superiority in technology across the joint community ~ the ability to control any situation or defeat any adversary across the range of military operations ~ the ability to control and fully exploit the entire range of the electromagnetic spectrum while denying the use of it by adversaries 8. Joint Functional Concepts . ** receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept 9. provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts. ~ The Joint Unification Concept ~ The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations ~ The Joint Operations Concept 10. A joint concept . P a g e 41 | 241 ** describes a particular military problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by logic and investigated through experimentation P a g e 42 | 241 ** It is the Navy’s vision for 21st century operations. 4. While “vision” establishes the Navy’s goals, is/are the way the Navy goes about achieving those goals. ** strategy 5. The need to implement a continual process of rapid concept and technology development that will deliver enhanced capabilities to our Sailors as swiftly as possible, is the idea behind which initiative of Sea Power 21? ** Sea Trial 6. Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters, especially as enemy area-denial efforts become more capable, is the focus of which fundamental concept of Sea Power 21? ~ Sea Advantage ~ Sea Shield ~ Sea Strike 7. operations are how the 21st century Navy will exert direct, decisive, and sustained influence in joint campaigns. ** Sea Strike 8. is an overarching effort to integrate warriors, sensors, networks, command and control, platforms, and weapons into a fully netted, combat force. ~ FORCEnet ~ INTERnet ~ STRIKEnet 9. An example of a past document that outlines the strategy used by the Navy in achieving its vision is . ** All the answers are correct. 10. is a fundamental concept of Sea Power 21 that accelerates expeditionary deployment and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater. ** Sea Basing 11. sets the Navy’s vision for future maritime operations. ** Sea Power 21 12. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental concept key to the Navy’s continued operational effectiveness as described in Sea Power 21? ~ Sea Basing ~ Sea Advantage ~ Sea Shield 13. This element of Sea Power 21 provides the nation with sea-based theater and strategic defense. ** Sea Strike 14. serves as the foundation from which offensive and defensive combat power is projected. ** Sea Basing 15. The Naval Operating Concept for Joint Operations outlines the used by the warfighter. ~ equipment P a g e 45 | 241 ~ information systems ~ tactics P a g e 46 | 241 16. In the October 2002 issue of the U.S. Naval Institute’s journal Proceedings, then-CNO Admiral Vern Clark introduced which outlines the Navy’s vision for the 21st century. ** Sea Power 21 SECTION 6: COOPERATIVE MARITIME STRATEGY 1. is a characteristic of maritime forces. ** All the answers are correct. 2. Which of the following are threats to national and world security and prosperity? ** All the answers are correct. 3. One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is . ~ narrower claims of sovereignty ~ downsizing of militaries ~ increased competition for scarce resources 4. Select True or False: Maritime forces lack the capability to approach deterrence with conventional, unconventional, and nuclear forces. ** False 5. The United States will employ to accomplish its strategic imperatives. ** All the answers are correct. 6. U.S. homeland defense efforts provide the highest level of security by integrating . ** All the answers are correct. 7. “ ” is a strategic imperative that can be accomplished through sea power. ** All the answers are correct. 8. is one of the most potentially disruptive forces to global stability. ** Major power war 9. Maritime forces provide decision makers with . ** All the answers are correct. 10. Select True or False: “Speed” is a characteristic of maritime forces. ** True 11. will be required to partner to counter the maritime domain’s emerging threats. ** All the answers are correct. 12. Which of the following is a theme used to develop the Cooperative Maritime Strategy? ~ Work with our partners around the world to prevent war. ~ Defend the homelands of friends and allies by achieving parity with other naval forces. ~ Support the development of a multipolar world. 13. One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to . ~ coerce foreign nations into signing security agreements ~ disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S. ~ assert control over civil authorities P a g e 47 | 241 Quebec. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies. ** False P a g e 50 | 241 15. The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States . ** formed militias for protection 16. One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was . ** the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation 17. Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19th century because . ** it did not see any threat to the existence of the nation 18. Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaws in America’s ability to fight small, low intensity conflicts? ** The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in Grenada 19. Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics. ** False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. 20. The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of . ** the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact 21. The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? ** All of the answers are correct SECTION 2: THE NAVY WAY OF WAR 1. The contemporary maritime strategy of the US Navy ** All answers are correct 2. One of the things that initiated the NPME program was an interest . ** an interest in reducing the degree of separation across individual officer communities 3. NPME and JPME are related to formal education for the younger generation of officers. ** True 4. Navigation is . ** An art of approximation. 5. Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available. ** True 6. In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree? ~ Not LORAN ~ GPS 7. According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to . ** ensure the ship is safe 8. By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will . ** have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication 9. All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril P a g e 51 | 241 during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is . ** Fire P a g e 52 | 241 3. Operational art is . ** Applies across all levels of war 4. Center of Gravity (COGs) can be ** All of the above 5. Centers of gravity (COGs) exist only at the tactical and operational levels of war. ** False 6. A center of gravity (COG) is always an enemy’s weakness. ** False 7. Operational art . ** deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectives 8. The concept of operational level of war developed . ** in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives 9. Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on . ** the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions 10. The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy . ** may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability 11. Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war? ** Tactical 12. The most significant preparation a commander can make is . ** to express clearly the objective of the operation to subordinate commanders 13. The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized . ** by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives 14. An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war? ** It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action 15. Commanders should focus their efforts on . ** concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness 16. Operational Art was “born” during the . ** period following World War I 17. The geographic areas of responsibility for geographic Combatant Commanders are established at what level(s)? ** Strategic 18. The principles of war . ** are a summary of the characteristics of successful military operations 19. The principles of war include . P a g e 55 | 241 ** surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplicity, offensive 20. The three components of military art are . P a g e 56 | 241 ** strategy, tactics, and operational art 21. In current joint and navy doctrine, centers of gravity . ** are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight 22. The enemy’s center of gravity . ~ can change particularly at the operational and tactical level ~ is unlikely to change as a major operation progresses at any level ~ can change particularly at the strategic and operational level 23. Generally speaking, the President, , function at the strategic level of war. ** the Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 24. Which of the following is correct? ** The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine. 25. The most significant preparation a commander can make is . ** to express clearly the objective of the operation to subordinate commanders 22. Which of the following is NOT true? Select one or more of the following: /-Electronic emission control does not contribute to the principle of security, rather it contributes to the principle of surprise. None of the answers are correct -/ The purpose of security is to never permit the enemy to acquire an unexpected advantage. -/ Gaining a thorough understanding of the enemy's strategy, doctrine and tactics enhances our ability to protect our forces 23. An enemy’s critical vulnerability . ~ is synonymous with the enemy’s center of gravity ~ is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemy’s ability to resist us ~ need not be determined if one has already determined the enemy’s center of gravity SECTION 3: DOCTRINE 1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? ** Doctrine is directive 2. Which of the following is NOT correct about Naval Doctrine Publications (NDP)s? ** NDPs include tactics, techniques, and procedures 3. Which of the following is NOT correct about Navy Warfare Publications (NWP)s? ** NWPs do not contain tactics, techniques, and procedures. 4. Which of the following is correct? ** Joint doctrine is the highest level of warfighting guidance 5. Which of the following is most correct? ** Some tasks on the UNTL may be based on future threats, and may not be considered mission- essential tasks by combatant commanders. 6. Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by . ** CNO and Commandant, USMC P a g e 57 | 241 ** initiation, development, approval, maintenance P a g e 60 | 241 27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine? ** Detailed threat profiles 25. Joint doctrine is based on . ** current capabilities JFMCC – CWC SECTION 1: INTRODUCTION No questions SECTION 2: COMMAND AND CONTROL 1. Identify the part of command and control that includes the “planning, directing, coordinating, and controlling of forces and operations.” ** Process P a g e 61 | 241 2. The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as . P a g e 62 | 241 21. OPCON and TACON: ** All of the answers are correct 22. U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are . ** May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution SECTION 3: JOINT FORCE MARITIME COMPONENT COMMANDER 1. From the list, SELECT ALL that may be typical JFMCC functions ** Command and Control ** Force Protection ** Logistics ** Fire Prevention 2. The Joint Force Commander (JFC) has the authority to organize forces to best accomplish the assigned mission based upon: ** The JFC’s vision and CONOPS 3. The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes? ** Better integrate military assets during operations. 4. During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the Soviet navy, it would be . ** fighting virtually independently of other U.S. and allied forces 5. The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders . ** the JFLCC and JFACC 6. According to the concept, the JFMCC . ** All of the answers are correct. 7. Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC? ** All of the answers are correct. 8. The functional component commander is usually the . ** service commander with the preponderance of forces assigned to the functional component 9. Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given . ** both OPCON and TACON 10. The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to . ** request specific support to execute assigned missions 11. The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to . ** All of the answers are correct. 12. The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander . ** will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service component commander 13. The Joint Force Commander has . ** wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force P a g e 65 | 241 14. Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training would: ~ Be put on the shelf until after the JTF operation is complete and the JFMCC stood down. ~ Remain the responsibility of the service component commander. P a g e 66 | 241 ~ Become the responsibility of the JFMCC 15. The JFMCC’s subordinate commanders include: ** Both CSG and ESG commanders. 16. The Joint Force Commander . ** may retain control of any function 17. The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to: ** Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commander’s campaign plan. 18. The MARSUPREQ is designed to . ** enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional components to request JFMCC assets 19. The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of: ** A service or component staff, augmented by service staff. 20. What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations? ** Sea control 21. The JFMCC concept is . ** still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized SECTION 4: COMPOSITE WARFARE COMMANDER (CWC) CONCEPT 1. Which element was NOT a key consideration in the development of the current CWC concept? ** Anticipated fleet-to-fleet operations 2. Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation . ~ assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical ~ is the traditional way of doing things 3. TACON . ** may be retained by the OTC 4. Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed? ** To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment 5. The CWC concept addresses defense against . ** All the answers are correct. 6. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because . ** that is where the needed C2 assets will be 7. The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is . ** determined by the OTC based on each individual situation 8. Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carrier Strike Group vulnerability? ~ None of the answers are correct. ~ Increased vulnerability 9. The common operating picture, or COP, includes . P a g e 67 | 241 1. Select the true statement with respect to the OTC and CWC. ** The understanding of command relationships by all commanders is one of the most important aspects of the CWC concept. 2. Select the commander that is NOT part of the CWC organization. ** Undersea Warfare Commander P a g e 70 | 241 3. CWC’s relationship to OTC is . ** always subordinate, even if OTC and CWC are filled by the same commander 4. Which of the following is NOT a Principal Warfare Commander? ~ Sea Combat Warfare Commander ~ Marine Expeditionary Unit Commander ~ Air Defense Warfare Commander 5. The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include . ** All the answers are correct. 6. Which of the following functions are NOT the responsibility of the CWC? ** Establishing mission objectives.. 7. Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to . ** assign missions to other Warfare Commanders 8. What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept? ** All the answers are correct. 9. Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by . ~ other Sector Warfare Commander ~ either the PWC or the CWC 10. Principal Warfare Commanders are . ** immediately subordinate to the CWC 11. The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to . ** the most capable and experienced air defense ship 12. Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure? ** Joint Task Force (JTF) commanders 13. Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment? ** OTC 14. What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar? ** The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their roles in it. 15. The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on . ** a carrier 16. TACON over any single asset can be . ~ held by only one commander and any given time ~ held by the CWC and the Functional Warfare Commander 17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a coordinator under the CWC concept? ** Interagency Working Group Coordinator 18. Which of the following functions are the responsibility of CWC? ** Developing plans in support of assigned missions 19. If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be . P a g e 71 | 241 ** All the answers are correct. P a g e 72 | 241 ** developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications 9. According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of . ** 20 NM 10. Important challenges for CWC include . ** All the answers are correct. 11. What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation? ** super high frequency radios SECTION 7: STRIKE: INTRODUCTION 1. Carrier Strike Groups are . (Select all that apply.) ** employed in a variety of sea control roles ** formed and disestablished as necessary so each may differ ** comprised of similar types of ships employing a Carrier Air Wing and Tomahawk land attack missiles 2. Which of the following describes Sea Strike? ** All of the above describe Sea Strike SECTION 8: STRIKE: ORIGINS AND DEVELOPMENT 1. Select the statement(s) illustrating how Operations DESERT SHIELD and DESERT STORM proved to be a learning experience for Navy strike warfare. ** All these statements illustrate how DESERT SHIELD and DESERT STORM proved to be a learning experience for Navy strike warfare. SECTION 9: STRIKE: CARRIER STRIKE GROUP 1. Select the statement(s) illustrating how the CV/CVN, embarked air wing, and the CSG contribute to Navy strike warfare. ** They provide a powerful, highly flexible, and adaptive strike capability, unmatched by any other nation's armed forces. ** They allow the United States very short response times to hotspots virtually anywhere in the world 2. All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. ** False 3. The Flexible Deployment Concept .Select one or more of the following: ** allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments of varied duration in support of specific national priorities ** provides more options to national leaders when contemplating how to response to specific global needs 4. Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile? ~ SSN-774 class ~ All the answers are correct. 5. Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navy’s strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability. P a g e 75 | 241 ** False 6. Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) are employed . P a g e 76 | 241 ** All the answers are correct. 7. The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class. ** False 8. The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to . ** sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order 9. Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling. ** False 10. Which of the following is not able to conduct long range strike missions? ~ SSN ~ FFG ~ DDG 11. Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile. ** False 12. The Navy’s Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier- based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades. ** False 13. Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by . ** All the answers are correct. 14. Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by . ** a Carrier Strike Group 15. Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander. ** False 16. The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. ** False The Aircraft Carrier 1. Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: ** None of the answers are correct. 2. The newest version of the Tomahawk can be . Select one or more of the following: ** redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver ** reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets 3. Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path? ~ Naval Component Commander, Strike Warfare Commander, TLAM firing unit P a g e 77 | 241 BLOCK 4 P a g e 80 | 241 Block 5 How the Navy Plans Its Operations REGIONAL AND CULTURAL AWARENESS SECTION 1: POLITICAL STRUCTURES 1. Which statement about international political structures is described by neorealism theory? ** States are the units of the international political structure, and they are functionally similar. 2. According to the systems theory of international politics, a political structure is defined . ** All the answers are correct. 3. During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were and their behavior was to a large part defined by . ** aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with 4. The fact that the world’s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace. ** Not true under all circumstances. 5. Neo-realist scholars, such as John Mearsheimer, argue that . Select all the correct answers. ** the attitudes of people in democracies do not differ substantially from the attitudes of authoritarian leaders with respect to the issue of the use of war as a foreign policy tool ** there is a not a sufficient body of evidence to prove democracies do not fight one another 6. Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) international system. ** multi-polar 7. The international system is generally defined by functions of differentiated units. ** False, because the international system is an anarchic system composed of like units (sovereign units). 8. Select True or False: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict. ** True 9. Select True or False: Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness required by the democratic format. ** True 10. Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue. ** True P a g e 81 | 241 11. In a multi-polar international system . Select all the correct answers. ~ the empowerment of non-state actors is always increased ~ the behavior of state actors is more stable than in a bi-polar international system ~ the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system P a g e 82 | 241 ** Principal goals of political life 3. The political culture of a collectivity living within a state . ** is shaped by the totality of all life’s influences on multiple generations 4. Political culture is not found in collectivities such as . ** None of the answers are correct. 5. Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality. ** True 6. Select True or False: In selecting individuals best suited to fill certain social roles, personality and culture may become blended as political culture biases. ** True 7. The danger of using political culture to explain all political actions . ** is that it ignores structural and institutional causes 8. Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism. ** False 9. Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the way they do in international affairs. ** True 10. Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons. ** False 11. Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon's position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors. ** True 12. Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader. ** True 13. If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that . ** All the answers are correct. 14. According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following EXCEPT are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impact on political action. ** whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state 15. Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because: ** All the answers are correct. P a g e 85 | 241 16. Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types. ** True P a g e 86 | 241 17. Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful. ** True 18. Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political behavior . ** only after the examination of structural and institutional causal factors has been exhausted 19. Political culture . ~ is frequently considered a scientifically useless concept by social scientists ~ Both the answers are correct ~ is often used as an explanation of political behavior by some political commentators 20. By understanding a collectivity’s political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person belonging to that collectivity. ** False 21. Political culture . ** represents a disposition in favor of one range of alternatives while giving another range of alternatives little or no attention 22. Select True or False: Because a culture is a collective attribute of society, knowledge of that society’s political culture will allow one to predict the response of an individual from that society to a given situation quite accurately. ** False SECTION 3: DEMOCRACY AND NATIONALISM 1. Select the term that most correctly completes this statement. Democracy can . ** often be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence 2. Select the most correct answer that reflects reasons that nationalism increases the risk of conflict during democratization. ** All the answers are correct. 3. In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because . ** of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influence of the Soviet Union 4. The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, EXCEPT . ~ ethno nationalism ~ mass participation in politics 5. According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is . ** Civic Nationalism 6. What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts? ** Inclusion 7. The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of . P a g e 87 | 241 22. As in , during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could promote international conflict. P a g e 90 | 241 ** Argentina 23. At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in . ** Chechnya 24. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to . ** Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society 25. In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because . ** Of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influence of the Soviet Union 26. The main reason for nationalistic violence is . ** Age old rivalries among people with different ethnic and cultural backgrounds 27. After World War II, the Emperor of Japan escaped prosecution and remained on the throne as a constitutional monarch . ** All the answers are correct. Section 4: THE FUTURE OF DEMOCRACY AND DEMOCRATIZATION 1. The optimistic scenario for democratization does NOT include which of the following elements: ** The United Nations will fulfill a mandate from a war-weary world to protect the resources of the planet. 2. Select the best answer identifying a characteristic(s) of democratization in the pessimistic scenario. ** All the answers are correct. 3. Select True or False: As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and importance. ** False 4. According to “The liberal democracy will triumph in the future”. ** None of the answers are correct. 5. Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule? ** Over eighty 6. The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is . ** Islam 7. Benito Mussolini’s prediction about the future Fascist Century . ** may come to pass in this century 8. Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the twenty first century may be the century of “collectivism”. ** False 9. George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing . ** a Balanced Perspective 10. The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, EXCEPT that . ** transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community P a g e 91 | 241 11. As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and importance. ** False 12. gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy. ** Samuel Huntington 13. Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except . ** Low debt 14. Benito Mussolini’s prediction about the future Fascist Century . ** May come to pass in this century 15. To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level, all efforts in the future should be focused on? ** Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor 16. Francis Fukuyama believes that . ** The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure future 17. Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule? ** Over eighty REGIONAL WESTERN HEMISPHERE SECTION 1: WESTERN HEMISPHERE 1. In which of the following conflicts was Mexico involved? Select all that apply. ** Mexican Struggle for Independence – 1810–1821 ** Mexican War – 1846–1848 2. North America includes . Select all that apply. ** Mexico ** Continental United States ** Canada 3. Which of the following statements about U.S. population is/are true? Select all that apply. ** Today’s U.S. population is in excess of 300 million. ** Ninety percent of the current population of the United States were born in the United States. 4. Which country has a President as the head of its executive branch? Select all that apply. ** United States ** Mexico 5. From which country does the majority of the world's cocaine supply originate? ** Colombia 6. Latin America is . ** one and one half times the size of the U.S. 7. Economic relations between the U.S. and Latin America are . P a g e 92 | 241 22. What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America? ~ Portuguese and English P a g e 95 | 241 ~ Spanish and Portuguese 23. According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), of heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin America. ** 82% 24. The U.S. is a major trade partner of Latin American countries. ** True 25. The religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is the predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America. ** Roman Catholic 26. Colombia alone produces of the world’s cocaine supply. ** 75% 27. The Panama Canal is . ** a critical economic path for commerce between the east and west coasts of the U.S. 28. The U.S. used the Monroe Doctrine for what purpose? ** To legitimize U.S. military interventions in Mexico, Central America, and the Caribbean 29. The longest river system in North America is the . ** Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio 30. The U.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the . ** Monroe Doctrine 31. was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th and 16th centuries. ** The Monroe Doctrine 32. The , found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world. ** Amazon River Basin 33. was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela. ~ Great Britain ~ Spain 34. is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru. ** The U.S. 35. Latin America has been home to which of the following indigenous peoples and civilizations? Select all that apply. -Maya /Toltec /Inca -Aztec 36. The links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. ** Panama Canal 37. have NOT significantly influenced the ethnic makeup of Latin ** Chinese P a g e 96 | 241 38. was the primary focus of U.S. policy in Latin America during the Cold War. ** Countering the Soviet Union and its allies 39. Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved? P a g e 97 | 241