Primary Professional Military Education graded A, Exams of Military Strategy and Training

Download Primary Professional Military Education graded A and more Exams Military Strategy and Training in PDF only on Docsity! Primary Professional Military Education THE CULTURE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 2) 5 ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM 5 Military Formations 5 Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 6 Fleet Response Plan 7 Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities 8 Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader 9 CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 10 Naval Customs 10 NAVY FLEETS 11 Second and Fourth Fleets 11 Fifth Fleet 12 Sixth Fleet 13 Pacific Fleet 14 CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 15 Customs and Traditions 15 Ships - Customs and Traditions 16 Honors and Ceremonies 17 ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER 18 Military Ethics Overview 18 Ethics in the Profession of Arms 19 Ethics and the Warfighter 21 The Just War Tradition 23 Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics 24 Lawful and Unlawful Orders 25 GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 3) 27 ROLES, MISSIONS, AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY 27 Roles and functions 27 NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION 28 NMO 28 STRATEGIC PLANNING AND GUIDANCE 29 Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces 29 Joint Vision for Future Warfighting 30 Sea Power 21 31 Cooperative Maritime Strategy 32 Primary Professional Military EducationHOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WAR (BLOCK 4) 33 THE AMERICAN WAY OF WAR 33 The American Way of War 33 Primary Professional Military EducationMISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT 113 Rules for the Use of Force 115 TECHNOLOGY IN THE MARITIME DOMAIN (BLOCK 6) 116 SENSORS 116 Force Multiplication Sensors 116 Sensor Fundamentals 118 Understanding the Frequency Spectrum 119 Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems 120 Maintaining Technical Superiority 121 Magnetic Sensors 122 Sonar 123 Radar 124 Electro-optic Technology 125 SPACE FORCE ENHANCEMENT 126 Military Space Mission Areas 126 Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance 127 Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment 128 Environmental Monitoring 129 Satellite Communications 130 Position, Time, Velocity, and Navigation 132 INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND FORCENET 133 Data and Information 133 Command and Control (C2) 134 Decision Making 135 FORCEnet 136 COMMUNICATIONS FOR THE WARFIGHTER 138 Communications for the warfighter 138 STEALTH TECHNOLOGY 139 Stealth Technology 139 EVALUATION OF NAVAL PLATFORMS 140 Evolution of the US Submarine 140 Evolution of the US Navy Surface Combatants 141 Evolution of Carrier Aviation 142 Primary Professional Military Education2The Cul ure of the Navy (Block 2) Enlisted Professionalism 2.1.1Military Formations Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? A: Precision and automatic response Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? A: From most junior to senior Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? A: Awards ceremony Q5: During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. A: Baron von Steuben Q6: Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days Q7: Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? A: Baron von Steuben Q8: What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? A: Preparatory Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. A: fear Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? A: Flank Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? A: Attention Q12: Sailors are in a , when placed in formation one behind the other? A: File Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? A: Refueling evolution Q14: What is the distance between ranks? A: 40 Q15: A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. A: Element Q16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? A: Inflection Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? A: OPEN RANKS Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system? A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good morale Primary Professional Military Education2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 1 When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? A: The right front passenger seat salutes Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? A: Left Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first? A: The senior leaves first Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? A: Sergeant Major Q25: What is meant by “under arms”? A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? A: At six paces or closest point of approach Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of? A: Chief Master Sergeant Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items? A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? A: Staff Sergeant Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? A: Salute Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ” A: Individual ship captains Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers? A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers Primary Professional Military Education2.1.5Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader 1 TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for? A: resource sponsors Q63: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q64: Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? A: Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform Q65: OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for . A: national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors Q66: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q67: Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and : A: warfare sponsor requirements Q68: Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations? A: Activity Manning Document (AMD) Q69: Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)? A: Mission and warfare sponsors Q70: OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a? A: methodical process Q71: In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? A: Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements Q72: For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? A: Enlisted Q73: The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines . A: manpower management Q74: The AMD is a single source document that provides? A: Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements Q75: How often is the EDVR published? A: Monthly Q76: What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength? A: Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS) Q77: Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution? A: AMD Q78: Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity? A: POE Q79: Placement is an advocate for and detailers are advocates for . A: Sailors, Navy Q80: What allows commands to download their AMD? A: TMMCA Q81: Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command? Primary Professional Military EducationA: EDVR Primary Professional Military Education1 Customs, Honors, and Traditions 2.1.6Naval Customs 1 Proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? A: Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson Q82: Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? A: To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 Q83: What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway? A: The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it. Q84: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet Q85: Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”? A: It is played today at many athletic events and parades. Q86: Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are . A: Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) Q87: Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? A: All the answers are correct. Q88: Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”? A: Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events. A: Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza. Q89: A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was . A: Franklin D. Roosevelt Q90: What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military? A: George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. Q91: In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? A: All the answers are correct. Q92: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters. Q93: Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? A: All the answers are correct. Q94: What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy? A: The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services Q95: Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? A: All the answers are correct Q96: The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? A: Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States. Q97: The author of “Anchors Aweigh”, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? A: All the answers are correct. Q98: Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service? Primary Professional Military Education2.1.8Fifth Fleet 1 The past two decades have seen in Navy operations conducted in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR). A: an increase 16 What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint operations? A: Operation EAGLE CLAW 17 The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting operations. A: Stability 18 Over of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet. A: 50% 19 What role did the U.S. Navy NOT play during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM? A: rescuing hostages 20 Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan during what operation? A: Operation ENDURING FREEDOM 21 When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? A: Late 1970’s 22 Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes . A: the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq 23 About of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz—a vital choke point. A: 90% 24 How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet? A: 0 25 Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)? A: Fifth Fleet 26 The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of . A: USCENTCOM 27 Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? A: Malacca Strait 28 Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet AOR? A: Not soviet invasion of Afghanistan 29 Fifth Fleets Headquarters is located in ? A: Bahrain 30 Which Fleet has the smallest AOR? A: 5th Fleet 31 Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation? A: Iraqi Freedom Primary Professional Military Education2.1.9Sixth Fleet 1 Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included . A: convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean 2 laying some 60,000 mines A: clearing minefields after the war 3 The Sixth Fleet is assigned to . A: Commander, Naval Forces Europe 4 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as . A: Commander USEUCOM 5 The Sixth Fleet received its designation in . A: 1950 6 A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World War I. A: True 7 During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in . A: Sicily A: North Africa A: South Italy 8 The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in . A: Naples, Italy 9 The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in World War II. A: False 10 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-halted as . A: Not sixth Fleet 11 Six Fleets area of responsibility encompasses . A: The geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM 12 Following the Civil War, ships of Africa Squadron were tasked to suppress . A: The Slave Trade 13 The Navy’s first overseas installation was established at . A: Port Mahon 14 Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility? (Select all that apply). A: All Answers Primary Professional Military Education2.1.10Pacific Fleet Q100: Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations involved the Seventh Fleet? A: All are correct Q101: During the Civil War, what was the greatest Threat in the Pacific? A: Confederate Commerce Raiders Q102: Which of the following was NOT a result of the Spanish-American War in the Pacific? A: Establishment of NATO Q103: The acquisition of the Philippines was important for the U.S. Navy because it allowed them to . A: establish a major operating base and repair facility in the Pacific Q104: The U.S. Navy's presence in what is now the Pacific Fleet dates back to what time era? A: Early 1800's Q105: During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy fourteen ships belonging to which country? A: Britain Q106: Which of the following was NOT a squadron established after the Civil War? A: East Indies Squadron Q107: Which external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of American sea power to the pacific? A: The rising Threat of Japan Q108: The AOR of today's Seventh Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas? A: From the international date line to the 68th east meridian, and from the Kuril Islands to the Antarctic. Q109: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Third Fleet located? A: San Diego, CA. Q110: In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in the Pacific? A: All the answers are correct. Q111: Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II? A: Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur Q112: When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii? A: 1940's. Q113: When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the Pacific? A: 1920's Q114: Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf? A: General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa Q115: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet located? A: Pearl Harbor, Hawaii. Primary Professional Military Education2.1.13Honors and Ceremonies 1 The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is A: side honors are rendered to the official Q137: There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are A: Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day Q138: Morning and evening colors refers to A: ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered Q139: The tradition of the shadow box A: dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the person’s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour Q140: The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is A: passing honors Q141: Gun salutes are currently offered A: in five second intervals Q142: In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered? A: A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit Q143: What is meant by “dressing ship”? A: Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival Q144: At the end of their careers, all officers may A: All the answers are correct Q145: Half-masting the national ensign A: is a symbol of mourning and respect? Q146: Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies? A: All officers and crew face the ensign and salute Q147: Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in A: MILPERSMAN 1800-010 Q148: Commanding Officer’s orders A: ship’s history Q149: Passing honors are A: All the answers are correct. Q150: The Change of Command Ceremony always includes A: all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir”, and “I stand relieved” Q151: Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because . A: in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable Q152: By custom, gun salutes are returned . A: Not only a single gun Q153: Upon the death of a President, the ensign is flown at half-mast for days. A: 30 days Primary Professional Military EducationEthics nd Professionalism for the Warfighter 2.1.14Military Ethics Overview 1 The Principle of Utility is A: All of the answers are correct Q154: The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom”. Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’ A: core values and heritage Q155: Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning”, “truth cannot be known”, and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? A: Nihilism Q156: The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty A: False Q157: Character-based ethics argues A: right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue Q158: Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: A: Freedom-based ethics Q159: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations A: True Q160: A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies A: a reason-based approach to truth and justice Q161: Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. A: All the answers are correct Q162: Freedom-based ethics focus on A: decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses Q163: Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of A: character-based ethics Q164: Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system A: Freedom-based ethics Q165: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. A: True Q166: Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based”, “rule- based”, or A: character-based Q167: An ethical person is A: someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live Q168: Relativism postulates A: All the answers are correct A: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number”. A: False Q169: Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of . A: consequentialism Q170: Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want”, “no one can stop me”, and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? A: Criminality Primary Professional Military EducationA: Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase: A: The greatest happiness for the greatest number Primary Professional Military Education2.1.16Eth cs and the Warfighter 1 In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? A: A prisoner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape. 2 The Geneva Convention allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be punishable by death if a guard is killed. A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape 3 A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa. A: False 4 is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty. A: Honor 5 Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy’s Core Values? A: Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics” 6 Is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances. A: The Code of Conduct 7 The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for A: Prisoners of War 8 Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war? A: The Uniform Code of Military Justice 9 Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? A: Truth is relative 10 The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service members to escape and due to their contributions to the enemy’s propaganda effort during which conflict? A: The Korean War 11 The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. A: False A: I will bear true faith and allegiance”. A: “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice”. A: “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic”. A: Honor, Commitment, Courage 12 In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape 13 The Oath of Enlistment is significant in the Profession of Arms because it A: clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment 14 The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)? A: Ship, shipmate, self 15 In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal. A: True 16 Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment? A: Loyalty Primary Professional Military Education17 When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important? A: This is an ethical dilemma which cannot be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 18 The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is A: characteristics develop from corresponding activities Q171: Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true? A: The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war. 19 Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? A: I will not try to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape. 20 What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment? A: Responsibility 21 Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? A: The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor 22 Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? A: A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 23 Is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion? A: Commitment 24 is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to do what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or professional temptation or adversity. A: Courage Primary Professional Military Education2.1.17The Just War Tradition 1 The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included A: self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack 2 The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back . A: more than 1600 years 3 While the moral burden of jus in Bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. A: True 4 The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires . A: that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force 5 Key principles of the jus in Bello are proportionality and . A: discrimination 6 In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. A: False 7 The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders. A: False 8 The moral principles of the Just War Tradition . A: help to set the military professional apart 9 Jus in Bello relates to . A: the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities 10 Jus ad bellum relates to . A: the justification for resorting to war 11 The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. A: False 12 Jus ad bellum and jus in Bello govern all aspects of war. A: True 13 The jus in Bello principle of discrimination requires that . A: non-combatants not be the direct object of attack 14 The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: A: Chaplains and medical personnel 15 The proportionality principle of jus in Bello requires . A: That the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation 16 The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on . A: political leaders 17 The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires A: reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good 18 All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions. A: True 19 The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of . A: theology, philosophy, and law 20 The two-key criteria jus in Bello criteria are . A: Discrimination and proportionality 21 Jus ad Bellum permits a nation to conceal its real reasons for going to war in order to gain an advantage over its enemy. A: False Primary Professional Military Education . A: Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice Primary Professional Military EducationQ184: The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer is . A: Death during time of war Q185: Which of the following is NOT true? A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. Q186: Which of the following is NOT true? A: A lawful order must relate to military duties. A: A service member may only receive a lawful order from a service member who is senior to him or her in rank. Q187: The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is A: Discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for two years Q188: A Navy Reserve medical detachment headed by a Navy Reserve Medical Corps Captain is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the following is true? A: The Commander may issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, and paragraph 1039. Q189: A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except A: Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice Q190: What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal? A: Refuse the order and report to higher authority. Q191: What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an unlawful order? A: Refuse to obey the order and report the incident to higher authority. Primary Professional Military Education 3Governance of the Navy (Block 3) Roles, Missions, and Functions of the Department of the Navy 3.1.1Roles and functions 1 Functions pertain to a Service’s activities in support of other services. A: Primary Q192: The mission of the U.S. Armed Forces is: A: To complete tasks assigned to combatant commanders by the President or Secretary of Defense. Q193: Since 1958, the primary task of the Services has been to . A: Provide trained and ready forces to the combatant commanders. Q194: Strategic deterrence is convincing a potential adversary that . A: All are correct Q195: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: Congress assigns specific tasks, or missions, directly to the combatant commanders. Q196: Amphibious operations is a Department of the Navy (DON) function primarily associated with: A: Congress Q197: Sea control is an important function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: A: It provides the ability to conduct operations in a specific area, while preventing and adversary, to use the same common area. Q198: From the beginning, Congress intended the U.S. Marine Corps to serve as a “second land army” in the event the U.S. Army required additional ground combat forces. A: False Q199: direct(s) that naval aviation shall be an integral part of the naval service and grant(s) it authority to develop aircraft, weapons, tactics, technique, organization, and equipment of naval combat and service elements. A: NOT CNO Q200: Which of the following is a role of the United States Marine Corps? A: All are correct Q201: Which of the following does NOT fall under the Department of the Navy? A: The Commandant of the Coast Guard A: D Q202: Functions authorize a Service to develop its force structure. A: Primary Q203: Maritime power projection can be displayed in the form of . A: All answers correct Q204: Service specific functions were initially outlined by President Truman in Executive Order 9877, during the late . A: Not 1970’s Q205: The role of the individual Armed Services is: A: To establish the lead in its respective form or domain of war: land, sea or air. Q206: Strategic sealift is a vital function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: A: Deployed Navy and Marine Corps forces need periodic resupply of consumable goods to sustain operations. Q207: The primary role of the U.S. Navy is to . A: Conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea. Primary Professional Military EducationNational Military Organization 3.1.2NMO 1 Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? A: Operational command of military units not involved in combat Q210: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A: The Chief of Naval Operations, as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, may submit advice to the President that is in disagreement with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. A: Each military unit has one chain of command …that provides the necessary support functions A: U.S. Special Operations Command is the lead Combatant Command in the U.S. Global War on Terrorism. A: The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is senior to the service chiefs. Q211: The two types of Combatant Commands are . A: Geographical and Functional Q212: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is subordinate to the Service Chiefs. A: The Chief of Naval Operations, as a Service Chief, has operational control of Navy special operations forces. A: The President has the authority to determine the members of the NSC A: The CoJCS is the op chain of command Q213: Which combatant commander is also the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)? A: U.S. Northern Command Q214: The statutory members of the National Security Council are the . A: President, Vice Pres, SecDef, Sec. of State Q215: Which of the following Combatant Commands has the support of NATO as one of its missions? A: U.S. European Command Q216: Which Combatant Commands have their headquarters outside of the United States? A: U.S. European Command (Germany) and U.S. Africa Command (Germany) Q217: Combatant commanders are responsible directly to the . A: SecDef, Pres Q218: Which of the following is NOT a Combatant Command? A: U.S. Military Sealift Command Q219: Which of the following would make this statement FALSE? The Commandant of the Coast Guard . A: As a military Service Chief, is a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? Q220: Which of the following statements concerning the Unified Command Plan (UCP) is FALSE? A: NOT prepared by SecDef, not set forth basic guidance Q221: Which statement concerning the National Security Council is TRUE? A: The Secretary of State is a member of the National Security Council. Primary Professional Military EducationStrategic Planning and Guidance 3.1.3Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces 1 The primary purpose of the National Military Strategy (NMS) is to implement the National Strategy. A: Defense Q222: Possessing a credible threat of military force tends to undermine the effectiveness of diplomacy. A: False Q223: The instrument of national power is the primary means through which the U.S. Engages with foreign nations of groups. A: Diplomatic Q224: Which organization coordinates the employment of America’s instruments of national power? A: National Security Council Q225: All other national strategies are subordinate to the . A: NOT Defense Q226: The National Strategy discusses the ways and means the Department of Defense will achieve its strategic objectives. A: NOT Military Q227: The provides a framework for establishing national priorities, choosing a strategic approach, and allocating resources necessary to achieve national goals. A: NOT Defense Q228: The is the law that requires the President to prepare the National Security Strategy for Congress. A: Goldwater-Nichols Act Q229: The is top-level strategic guidance that is prepared by the executive branch of government and signed by the President. A: Not NSS Q230: The National Strategies comprise the two capstone documents for the Department of Defense. A: Defense and Military Q231: The instrument of national power has no single center of control. A: Informational Primary Professional Military Education3.1.4Joint Vision for Future Warfighting 1 In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires . A: A transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community Q232: A Joint Integrating Concept is . A: A description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective Q233: Required capabilities and attributes are identified by . A: Joint Functional Concepts Q234: Joint Operating Concepts are concerned with what level of war? A: Operational Q235: Which of the following is NOT true? A: All are TRUE. Q236: A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective . A: NOT 10-30 years in the future Q237: The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan . A: Describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow Q238: A joint concept is . A: A visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives Q239: Joint Functional Concepts . A: Receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept Q240: A joint concept . A: Describes a particular military problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by logic and investigated through experimentation Q241: Joint concepts are developed and refined through . A: Experimentation Q242: The is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts. A: Capstone Concept for Joint Operations Q243: At the Joint level, the synchronizes the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities. A: NOT joint integration Q244: Joint Functional Concepts support . A: The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations and Joint Operating Concepts Q245: A Joint Operating Concept . A: Identifies broad principles and essential capabilities Q246: Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus? A: Joint Integrating Concept Q247: Full Spectrum Dominance is . A: The ability to control any situation or defeat any adversary across the range of military operation Q248: provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts. A: NOT JUC Primary Professional Military Education4How the Navy Thinks About War (Block 4) The American Way of War 4.1.1The American Way of War 1 Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaws in America’s ability to fight small, low intensity conflicts? A: The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in Grenada 2 During the American Revolution, the Continental Army . A: Was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation 3 The Second Seminole War . A: Became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory 4 Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (“volunteer”) forces and proof that the United States didn’t need to maintain a large standing army. A: True 5 Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics. A: False Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. 6 Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to . A: Avoid a protracted guerilla war waged by disgruntled Confederate soldiers 7 General Winfield Scott’s capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was . A: An example of conventional 19th century warfare 8 One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was . A: The absence of an immediate threat to the new nation 9 Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. . A: Quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army 10 The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States . A: Formed militias for protection 11 In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving west, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. A: False 12 The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of . A: The perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact 13 The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? A: All of the answers are correct 14 The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies. A: False 15 In the United States, the Battle of New Orleans was seen as . A: The defeat of the best army in the world by an American militia force 16 One of the reasons Congress unwilling to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was . A: The absence of an immediate threat to the new nation. 17 Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a Primary Professional Military Educationlarge standing army during the latter part of the 19th century because . A: It did not see any threat to the existence of the nation. Primary Professional Military Education18 Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on . A: The idea that the acquisition of colonies was incompatible with American values. 19 During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through . A: A combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the Continental Army, the militia and irregular forces 20 During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in . A: A series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemisphere 21 Today’s Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendants of the militias established by the early European colonists. A: True 22 Primary Professional Military EducationTheory of War 4.1.3Theory of War 1 The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized . A: By Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives 2 Carrier strike group and expeditionary strike group commanders generally operate at what level of war? A: Tactical 3 Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on . A: The level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions 4 An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war? A: The level of war varies, depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action 5 The concept of operational level of war developed . A: In order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives 6 The principles of war . A: Summarize the characteristics of a successful military operation 7 The principles of war include . A: Surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplicity, and offensive 8 The three components of military art are . A: Strategy, tactics, and operational art 9 The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy . A: May change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability 10 Commanders should focus their efforts on . A: Concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness 11 Operational art was “born” during the . A: Period following World War I 12 Operational art . A: Deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectives 13 In current joint and navy doctrine, centers of gravity . A: Are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight 14 The enemy’s center of gravity . A: Is most likely to change at the strategic level 15 In the military chain of command, the President, , functions at the strategic level of war. A: The Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 16 An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war? A: It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action 17 The “operational level of War” concept was developed . A: In order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives 18 Which of the following is correct? A: The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine. 19 The most significant preparation a commander can make is . A: To express clearly the objective of the operation to subordinate commanders 20 The geographic areas of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders are established at what level(s)? A: Strategic 21 Which of the following is NOT true? Select one or more of the following: A: None of the answers are correct 22 An enemy’s critical vulnerability . Primary Professional Military EducationA: Is synonymous with the enemy’s center of gravity 23 Is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemy’s ability to resist us? A: Need not be determined if one has already determined the enemy’s center of gravity Q265: The enemy’s center of gravity . A: Not(is unlikely to change…) A: Primary Professional Military Education Doctrine 4.1.4Doctrine 1 The UNTL is . A: A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war 2 Joint doctrine is based on . A: NOT(Current capabilities) 3 The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabling functions, and the organization and support of forces for sustained operations, is called . A: NWPs 4 All doctrinal publications are reviewed . A: Continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision 5 The joint doctrine development process has four steps: . A: Initiation, development, approval, maintenance 6 Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which . A: Link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations 7 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine? A: Detailed threat profiles 8 Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by . A: CNO and Commandant, USMC 9 Naval Warfare Publications are approved by . A: Commander, NWDC 10 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs? A: They are not related to NWPs. 11 Joint doctrine and TTPs in joint publications are . A: Authoritative and approved by the Chairman, JCS 12 Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force. A: True 13 Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception. A: False 14 Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive. A: False 15 Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. A: True 16 Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs? A: They are not necessarily related to NWPs. A: They are not descriptive in nature. A: They are not reviewed by NWDC. 17 The Navy Warfare Library provides . A: All publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site 18 Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine. A: True 19 Commanders of U.S. forces operating as part of a multinational command should follow . A: Multinational doctrine/procedures which have been ratified by the U.S. 20 Naval Warfare Publications are approved by . A: Commander, NWDC 21 The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through A: NWDC SIPRNET site Primary Professional Military EducationComposite Warfare Commander Concept 1 The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag- configured amphibious ship because . A: that is where the needed C2 assets will be 2 The littorals are: A: Areas near the shore and inland from the shore. 3 The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept . A: must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN) 4 Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carrier Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability? A: Increased vulnerability 5 Decentralization and command by negation are: A: NOT(Not central features of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC).) 6 After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission: A: Shifted in orientation to the littorals. 7 The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is: A: Determined by the OTC based on each individual situation 8 The common operating picture, or COP, includes: A: All of the answers are correct 9 Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed? A: To attempt to manage the complexity on the emnvironment. 10 Admiral Raleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because: A: In battle, there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage. 11 Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation: A: Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical. 12 The common operating picture, or COP, includes: A: All of the answers are correct. 13 The CWC is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to: A: Manage information overload 14 Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different weapon systems on a single ship . A: may be delegated to different warfare commanders 15 The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept are: A: Deep precision strikes on land targets. 16 The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against: A: All the answers are correct. 17 Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tactical Command’s (OTC’s) primary focus should be on: A: Fighting his or her ship 18 What is the cornerstone tenet of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? A: Command by negotiation 19 The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate: A: All of the answers are correct. 20 Tactical Control (TACON): A: May be retained by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) 21 The chain of command under the CWC concept . A: Must be established by the OTC in an OPGEN 22 TACON . A: May be retained by the CWC. A: Primary Professional Military EducationCWC Roles and Responsibilities 1 Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? A: Interagency Working Group Coordinator Q303: What is the role of preplanning of responses in the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? A: All of the answers are correct. Q304: The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) will have . A: Tactical Control Q305: Which of the following functions are the responsibilities of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)? A: Developing plans in support of assigned missions. Q306: If an alternate Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is designated, his or her functions would be . A: All of the answers are correct Q307: Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders? A: Secure Telecommunications Group Commander Q308: Which of the following functions are not the responsibilities of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)? A: Establishing mission objectives. Q309: What did Admiral Muston say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar? A: The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their roles in it. Q310: Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment? A: Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) Q311: Principal Warfare Commanders are . A: immediately subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Q312: CWC’s relationship to OTC is . A: always subordinate, even if Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) and Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) are filled by the same commander Q313: Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to: A: Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders. Q314: Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by: A: Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Q315: The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to . A: the most capable and experienced air defense ship Q316: The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include . A: All of the answers are correct. Q317: The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on . A: a carrier Q318: Which of the following is not part of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) structure? A: Joint Task Force (JTF) commanders Q319: Decentralized command is an effective approach because? A: It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives. A: It helps to prevent the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) from being overwhelmed by information overload. Q320: Which of the following is not a principal warfare commander? A: Marine expeditionary unit commander Primary Professional Military EducationJFMCC/CWC Challenges 1 The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means . A: All of the answers are correct. Q321: What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation? A: super high frequency radios Q322: Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to . A: developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications Q323: According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of . A: 20 NM Q324: What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive? A: Improved C4 architecture Q325: A downside of CWC’s dependency on communications is . A: All of the answers are correct. Q326: Important challenges for CWC include . A: All of the answers are correct. Q327: According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the . A: CWC creates broad war fighting specialists Q328: What are the challenges to the CWC concept? A: All of the answers are correct. Q329: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution. A: False Q330: Early on, the CWC concept was deemed by many to be . A: Too communications intensive Q331: Detractors of the CWC concept pointed out that combatants in SAGs, CSG, and ESGs were organized according to their instead of according to tasks involving their multi-mission capability. A: NOT(embarked senior officers rank) Q332: Which technology enables afloat forces to communicate more securely and to operate in a more dispersed manner? A: NOT(UHF,HF) Q333: Which of the choices below do NOT describe arguments against the CWC concept? A: It created broad war fighting specialist Q334: Over time, the CWC concept has remained surprisingly immune from the criticism normally leveled against doctrinal approaches to warfare. A: False Q335: As a defensive measure, forces afloat would typically operate in highly dispersed formations, sometimes covering an area of more than 40 square miles. A: False Q336: One of the CWC concept's many positive attributes is its contribution to increasing the number of "big picture" commanders in the battlegroup. A: False Q337: The formerly closed defensive posture of forces afloat required Principle Warfare Commanders, Functional Warfare Commanders, and Coordinators to rely on high frequency (HF) communications to issue commands and to communicate with each other. A: False 4.1.6 Primary Professional Military EducationQ354: During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Marine Corps aircraft . A: flew approximately one third of the total sorties flown by U.S. aircraft – an amount in direct proportion to their numbers in the U.S. air inventory Q355: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no “dumb” bombs were utilized. A: False Q356: How do the Navy’s two principal missions influence events on land? A: Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly influences those events Q357: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units. A: False Primary Professional Military EducationCarrier Strike Groups 1 The “Summer Pulse 04” exercise . A: utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world Q358: Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by . A: All of the answers are correct Q359: The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to . A: sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order Q360: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. A: False Q361: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling. A: False Q362: The Flexible Deployment Concept following: .Select one or more of the A: Allows units that have attained…, provides more options to national leaders… Q363: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group. A: False Q364: The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is . A: always a CV/CVN Q365: The Virginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf-class. A: False Q366: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile. A: False Q367: Which of the following is not able to conduct long range strike missions? A: FFG Q368: Carrier Strike Groups are dependent on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them. A: False Q369: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. A: False Q370: Which submarine class(s) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile? A: All of the answers are correct. Q371: The Navy’s Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades. A: False Q372: Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enrooted to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by . A: a Carrier Strike Group Q373: Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander. A: False Q374: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) are employed . A: All are correct Primary Professional Military EducationQ375: Guided missile destroyers provide the Carrier Strike Group with Antisubmarine Warfare (ASW) capability. A: True Primary Professional Military EducationQ379: Which of the following is the lowest ranking person authorized to suspend flight operations? A: Enlisted flight crew Primary Professional Military EducationCarrier Air Wing 1 Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by: A: All answers correct 2 Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a warning to friendly units” is the mission of: A: Airborne early warning 3 Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following: A: National Command Authority 4 Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings. A: Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing. A: The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system. A: Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War. 5 What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? A: All of the answers are correct. 6 What is the principal limitation of PGMs? A: Cost 7 Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets? A: Combat air patrol 8 Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions (JDAM) are: A: -Operates in adverse weather A: Converts “dumb” bomb into precision guided weapon 9 Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War? A: Laser guided bombs 10 What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy? A: PGMs 11 Which of the following statements are true concerning the size and composition of CVs and CAWs? A: Greater uniformity will follow phase-out of conventional carriers. A: Great variation in both Cc size and CAW composition since WWII. 12 What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? A: All of the answers are correct 13 The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following missions? A: ASW 14 “Circular Error Probability” refers to: A: Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit. 15 Concept of Operations (CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include: A: battle damage assessment 16 What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch? A: The embarked air wing 17 Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through “punctuated stability”; this refers to? A: Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability. Primary Professional Military EducationTomahawk Land Attack Missile 1 The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator . A: Is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination, and reporting strikes. 2 Programmed Warhead Detonation (PWD) . A: allows the missile to be detonated while flying directly over a target 3 Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile? A: survivability in a high threat environment 4 Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched Tomahawk missile? A: the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway 5 The Block IV or TLAM-E . A: substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile while cutting the cost in half 6 In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed with all the following except . A: the Joint Interface Control Officer 7 Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path? A: Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit 8 Which of the following is true? A: Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface combatants. 9 The assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch. A: Launch Sequence Plan (LSP) 10 Which of the following is NOT true? A: The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator is the Launch Area Coordinator's principal agent, responsible for leading the execution of TLAM strike operations. 11 Which of the following is true? A: The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the Tomahawk Executive Agent. 12 Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks . A: while submerged to avoid damage to the system 13 The newest version of the Tomahawk can be . A: reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets A: redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 14 The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes . A: either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube 15 Which of the following is NOT true? A: Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern. 16 The newest version of the Tomahawk can be . Select one or more of the following: A: redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 17 Submarines can communicate with surface unit’s . A: when operating at periscope depth 18 Terrain masking . A: involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target 19 Is the method of continuously matching altitude information from a radar altimeter to a preprogrammed radar map of the area below the missile so that it can accurately follow a detailed predetermined flight path? A: is the ability to detonate the missiles warhead while the missile is flying directly over a target, thus preventing the enemy from masking itself behind a hill or similar terrain feature Q380: Which of the following is FALSE? Primary Professional Military Education4.1.9Dom ins of Force Employment Surface Warfare (SUW) 1 Pair the following missiles with their primary missions: A: B1. Anti-radiation A. Harpoon A: D2. Air-to-surface close air support B. SLAM-ER A: C3. Land-attack C. Maverick A: A4. Low-level anti-ship D. HARM 2 The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets: A: All of the answers are correct. 3 Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by: A: Embarked helicopters and surface vessels 4 Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following? A: Mark 45, 5” 54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile 5 What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander? A: Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position. 6 “Combat boats” present great problems for conventional naval forces because they are: A: All of the answers are correct. 7 Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of “combat boats” has which of the following effects: A: Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces 8 Surface warfare includes coordination of surface, subsurface, land, and sea assets. A: True 9 Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include: A: Chemical weapons 10 Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to: A: All the answers are correct. 11 Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat? A: All the answers are correct. 12 Match the following missiles with their primary delivery craft: A: 1. SH-60 Seahawk A: A. Harpoon, HARM, SLAM-ER, Maverick A: 2. EA-6B Prowler A: B. Hellfire, Penguin A: 3. S-3B Viking A: C. Harpoon, SLAM-ER, Maverick A: 4. F/18 Hornet A: D. HARM 13 Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are: A: All the answers are correct. 14 A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of hostile contact; he is also required to . A: gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations 15 The Surface Warfare Commander is: A: Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to support the surface warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land Attack Missile command 16 Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode? A: Maverick 17 “Asymmetric threat” refers to: A: Threat from unconventional naval forces 18 Principal sources of threat to the task force includes A: Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines. Q384: The Surface Warfare Commander is: Primary Professional Military EducationA: NOT(always carrier Primary Professional Military EducationAir Defense 1 The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from: A: An AEGIS cruiser 2 Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include: A: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons. 3 Match each air defense principle with the appropriate definition. A: 1. Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy forces A: A. Defense in Depth A: 2. Establishing positions to absorb and weaken attacks A: B. EMCON A: 3. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats A: C. OPDEC A: 4. Denying or altering enemy use of electronics systems. A: D. Early Warning 4 The principal weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CVN) is a: A: Missile 5 Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats: A: Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings 6 Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group? A: E-2C Hawkeye 7 is the primary mission of air defense. A: Defense in Depth 8 Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases. A: True 9 Select the platforms with long range capabilities. A: Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers 10 Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission? A: Point defense ships and patrol craft 11 Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates: A: Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and security for departing and landing aircraft. 12 Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility. A: The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations. 13 Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations. A: False 14 The Air Defense Commander must be: A: None of the answers are correct 15 Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the use of certain electromagnetic systems during force operations? A: EMCON 16 Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment? A: Surveillance Q385: Non-organic air defense support refers to: A: All Q386: To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense enemy airborne platforms and weapons. A: All Q387: In the current environment, air defense is made difficult by: A: Q388: The absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations. Primary Professional Military EducationQ401: Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using radar in ASW operations? A: Radar is not able to detect targets as small as a periscope or snorkel exposed above the surface. Q402: The current submarine threat . A: is more likely to be a diesel-powered submarine Q403: In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be detected. A: Using passive sonar, a submarine typically will detect a surface ship before it is detected by that ship. Q404: Magnetic Anomaly Detectors . A: detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth’s magnetic field caused by the submarine’ Q405: During the search phase of an ASW operation, . A: Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted Q406: A ship’s degaussing system consists of one coil built into the ship to counter both vertical and horizontal magnetic fields. A: DE perming is the use of electrical coils built into a ship to counter the induced magnetism created as the ship passes through the earth’s magnetic field. Q407: The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are . A: prevention of mutual interference and water space management Q408: Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with . A: Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines Q409: Which of the following species of marine mammals are used for mine detection and marking? A: NOT(Dolphins and Seals) Q410: The Prairie Air System reduces a ship’s radiated noise by . A: Supplying air along the leading edge of the propeller blades Q411: When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle . A: (can be used to both counter…) Q412: Primary Professional Military EducationNaval Special Warfare 1 The Naval Special Warfare Command . A: is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders Q413: A clandestine operation . A: is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself Q414: A Naval Special Warfare Squadron . A: is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements Q415: The MK-V Special Operations Craft . A: is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon Q416: The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in . A: low to medium threat environments Q417: The Dry Dock Shelter allows . A: delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines Q418: MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by . A: Special Boat Teams Q419: The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the . A: Army Special Operations Command (USASOC) Q420: Select the statement that is NOT true. A: Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their actions. Q421: Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States . A: are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander Q422: The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) . A: is an 11-meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew Q423: Select the statement that is NOT true. A: Information Operations are generally directed at strategic or operational intelligence requirements. Q424: The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is . A: Counterterrorism Q425: Direct Action missions . A: involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions Q426: A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains . A: six SEAL platoons A: four SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) Q427: A SEAL team is composed of . A: a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons Q428: Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron? A: All the answers are correct. Q429: Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the mission. A: CP Q430: Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as . A: an NSW Squadron Q431: The Naval Special Warfare long-range dry submersible is the . A: NOT(ADDSV) Primary Professional Military Education4.1.10Naval Logistics Naval Logistics 1 The sustainment element of the logistics process is . A: the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations 2 The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is . A: the Military Sealift Command (MSC) 3 The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process? A: Distribution 4 The Military Sealift Command’s Combat Prepositioning Force . A: supports Army prepositioning requirements 5 Ready Reserve Force ships . A: are under Military Sealift Command control when activated 6 The bulk of the Navy’s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by . A: the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force 7 Operational logistics . A: encompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater 8 Prepositioned equipment—both afloat and ashore—is considered logistics support at the . A: strategic level 9 The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process? A: Distribution 10 The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies? A: Class V 11 For Navy transportation matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the . A: Chief of Naval Operations 12 The Navy’s two hospital ships . A: contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each 13 MSC’s Kilauea Class ammunition ships . A: have no armament 14 The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered . A: organizational-level maintenance 15 Which of the following is NOT true? A: Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ship’s company. 16 Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area? A: NOT(Health Services) 17 The Military Sealift Command’s largest combat logistics ships are the . A: Supply class T-AOEs 18 The Dry Cargo Office . A: handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled ocean liner service 19 The Military Sealift Command’s eight fast sealift ships . A: can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division 20 Repair parts are considered . A: Class IX supplies 21 Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups? Primary Professional Military EducationQ449: The Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander is an example of a . A: Functional component commander Primary Professional Military Education4.1.12Fundame tals of Information Operations Q450: Department of Defense (DOD) policy describes “information superiority” as . A: the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same Q451: Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups. A: Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations. A: Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary. A: Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations. A: Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and foreign audiences. A: Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security actions. Q452: Which of the following statements is true? A: Civil-Military Operations only take place in friendly or neutral operational areas. A: Civil-Military Operations only include those operations that occur subsequent to armed conflict. A: Civil-Military Operations may include military personnel performing functions that are normally the responsibility of a national government. A: Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations authorized to influence foreign target audiences directly. A: The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic warfare support. A: Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks. Q453: Information Operations are generally the responsibility of . A: the J-3 (Operations) Q454: The three dimensions of the information environment are . A: the physical, the informational, and the cognitive Q455: The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are: A: Computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation. Q456: The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by individuals or groups… A: Cognitive Q457: Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations’ ability to affect and defend decision making? A: Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by things such as language, culture and religion. Q458: Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT . A: prisoner of war interrogation Q459: Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence the dimension of… A: cognitive Q460: The combatant commanders’ plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by . A: the Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) Q461: Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from Primary Professional Military Educationtarget or adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of . Primary Professional Military Educationbroad range of land power options to shape the security environment. A: strategic responsiveness Primary Professional Military EducationQ479: Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following? A: The Air Assault Division’ A: The Mechanized Infantry Division A: The Airborne Division Q480: Light infantry divisions: Select all correct answers. A: -/-Can be rapidly deployed. A: -/-Perform well in urban operations. A: //Are deployable entirely by air. Q481: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift. A: False Q482: What are the “hidden” transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division? A: Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. A: Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. A: Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Light Infantry Division. Q483: Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations? A: UH-60L Blackhawk Q484: Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency? A: Sea-based operations Q485: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps. A: True Q486: What is the primary mission of a brigade? A: To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and shock effect Q487: In 2006, the army reorganized into three and ten A: army commands, army service components Q488: The most efficient way to deploy the army is using a A: combination of strategic airlift and sea lift Q489: Given their similarities, the concepts of battle space and area of operations are often used interchangeably by army commanders. A: False Q490: The army is comprised of divisions A: ten Q491: Heavy maneuver forces can maneuver strategically with ease and are ideally suited for operation in urban terrain. A: False Q492: Mechanized, armored, and air assault divisions require a significant amount of A: Logistic sustainment A: Strategic lift A: Time to assemble Q493: Mechanized infantry and armor are best suited for the A: open plains Q494: What is the lowest level of an army command at the operational level of war? A: Corps A: The army has 600,000 soldiers serving on active duty Q495: For the Army, its doctrine . A: Reflects the army’s approach to combat Q496: The Army’s only airborne division is the A: 82nd Airborne Airborne Division. Q497: As part of the Army’s redesign, it moved away from being a -centric force and transformed into a more flexible -centric modular combat team. A: NOT(regiment,battalion) Primary Professional Military EducationQ498: The Army’s critical combat support capabilities are embedded almost entirely in the . Select all that apply. Primary Professional Military Education4.1.15United States Marine Corps 1 The largest type of Marine Air-Ground Task Force that deploys for combat is called a . A: Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) Q514: The Marine Corps’ standing operational organizations are called . A: Marine Expeditionary Forces (MEFs) Q515: All Marine Corps components reinforce and support the . A: Marine Corps Operating Forces\ Q516: Due to the Marines’ rigid task force construct, they are usually assigned to operate independently of joint forces. A: False Q517: In order to deploy rapidly without the delays inherent to mobilizing reserves, the Marine Corps maintains its active force at about percent of its total force. A: 80% Q518: Historically, the Marine Corps has conducted operations of the ROMO. A: At the lower end Q519: The highly tailored nature of Marine Air-Ground Task Forces makes them unsuitable for service as the core around which a Joint Task Force headquarters may be formed. A: False Q520: The Marine Special Operations Command is under the operational control of . A: U.S. Special Operations Command Q521: The general functions and composition of the Marine Corps are described in . Select all that apply. A: Title 10, U.S. Code A: DoD Directive 5100.1 Q522: The Marine Corps utilizes Maritime Prepositioning Squadron(s) that contain a total of 16 ships to provide its strategic lift capability. A: Three Q523: The Marine Corps fields specialized forces that may be deployed outside of the MAGTF, these forces are: Select all that apply. A: Chemical Biological Incident Response Force A: Anti-Terrorism Battalion A: NOT(Just first 2) Q524: The personnel, bases, and activities that support the Marine Corps’ operating forces comprise the Marine Corps . A: Supporting Establishment Q525: Marine Air-Ground Task Forces are capable of being deployed to areas with no pre- existing infrastructure (roads, electrical power, etc.). A: True Q526: There are types of Marine Air Ground Task Forces. A: Four Q527: Marines are prepared to deploy into environments. Select all that apply. A: Austere Q528: The Marine Corps is organized into broad components. A: Four Q529: Which forces comprise the Marine Corps’ combatant command-level service components? Select all that apply. A: MARFORCOM A: MARFORPAC Q530: The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to . A: SECNAV Q531: The largest Marine Air-Ground Task Force is called a , which can contain as many 100,000 Marines. Primary Professional Military EducationA: Marine Expeditionary Force Primary Professional Military EducationQ532: Marines fight as an integrated air-ground-logistics task force under a single commander called a Commander. A: NOT(MARAG) Q533: Marines seek to avoid attrition by employing warfare against an adversary’s critical vulnerabilities. A: maneuver Q534: The “Three Block War” concept means that Marines must be able to . Select all that apply. A: Wage Convent…, perform stability…, engage in human… Q535: Approximately how many Marines are 25-years old or younger? A: ¾ Q536: Which of the items listed below are elements of a Marine Air-Ground Task force? Select all that apply. A: NOT(Ground,Aviation) Primary Professional Military Education Primary Professional Military Education4.1.17Special Operation Forces 1 A geographic combatant commander exercises control over all assigned special operations forces through a . A: Sub-unified theater special operations command Q552: USSOCOM’s origins can be traced to the aftermath of Operation . A: EAGLE CLAW Q553: USSOCOM is comprised principally of service members from the . A: ALL Q554: The Naval Special Warfare Command is located at . A: Naval Amphibious Base Coronado Q555: is charged with the responsibility of studying special operations requirements and techniques to ensure interoperability and equipment standardization among special operations forces. A: JSOC Q556: One of the four SOF truths is, “ ." A: Humans are more important than hardware Q557: The Army’s premier forced entry unit is the . A: 75th Ranger Regiment Q558: USSOCOM’s responsibilities are in nature. A: Global Q559: Which special operations aviation asset is used for both observation, and escort and attack missions? A: OH-6 Q560: USSOCOM is a Geographic Combatant Command (GCC). A: False Q561: is the only sub-unified command under USSOCOM A: JSOC Q562: The Army component of USSOCOM is located at . A: Fort Bragg Q563: There are active SEAL teams. A: Eight Q564: The Navy’s operate and maintain rigid-hull inflatable boats and special operations craft. A: Special Boat Teams Q565: are some of the missions performed by USSOCOM’s Special Tactics Group. Select all that apply. A: Combat rescue A: Combat weathermen A: Personnel recovery Q566: Extensive operational testing in mountainous and other harsh terrain has resulted in the CV-22 Osprey tilt-rotor aircraft being determined unfit for use by special operations forces. A: False Q567: USSOCOM is located at . A: MacDill Air Force Base, Florida Q568: In traditional warfare, relatively small levels of resources are required to find the enemy, while large amounts of resources are required to achieve a decisive victory. A: True Primary Professional Military EducationRange of Military operations 4.1.18Homeland Security Homeland Defense 1 Which command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission? A: Northern Command (NORTHCOM) 2 Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called and have been formally raised to an equal status with major combat operations. A: Nation Building 3 The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks. A: True 4 Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense? A: NOT(Land) 5 The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to guide, organize, and unify our Nation’s homeland security efforts. A: True 6 The provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities. A: U.S. Constitution 7 Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as “NEO”. A: False 8 A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector. A: True 9 In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond? A: Local police and fire departments 10 Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the “National Strategy for Homeland Security”? A: Maritime Interception. 11 What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States? A: Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 12 Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training. A: True Q569: National Security can be considered a subset of Homeland Security. A: False Q570: The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called ? A: The National Strategy for Maritime Security Q571: The responsibility for homeland security lies strictly with the Federal government. A: False Q572: Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense? A: Force Protection Q573: What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States? A: Unified Command Plan Q574: Which of the following will the military do in pursuit of its counterterrorism strategic framework? Primary Professional Military Education4.1.19Irregular Warfare 1 Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following? A: The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area Q583: Our national counterterrorism strategy included which of the following: A: Shift focus away from ungoverned spaces+??? 2 Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are . A: measures taken to preempt terrorism Q584: Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following? A: All of the answers are correct. Q585: Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s): A: All of the answers are correct. Q586: History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to . A: isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group Q587: Terrorism . A: became a more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001 Q588: Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by . A: All answers Q589: securing ventilation to enclosed spaces A: All of the answers are correct. Q590: Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)? A: NOT(sarin) Q591: Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following? A: All of the answers are correct. Q592: By definition, a nuclear weapon is . A: a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy Q593: The effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction . A: demand that troops devote resources preparing for their potential use Q594: In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that . A: promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism Q595: The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by . A: destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups Q596: Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations? A: Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses. Q597: Enhanced force protection . A: can cause frustration for affected personnel if left in place for extended periods Q598: Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations? A: They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes. Q599: The “4D Strategy” to combat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of terms? A: Defeat, Deny, Diminish and Defend. Q600: The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects? A: All of the answers are correct. Q601: Common actions to address an insurgency would include which of the following? A: Social, political or economic reforms.Civic action or amnesty programs. Primary Professional Military EducationQ602: Military guerillas tend to prefer which of the following? A: Modest engagements followed by withdrawal Primary Professional Military Education5How the Navy Plans Its Operations (Block 5) Regional and Cultural Awareness 5.1.1Political Stuctures 1 Neo-realist scholars, such as John Mearsheimer, argue that . A: NOT(ALL) Q603: Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness required by the democratic format. A: True Q604: A bi-polar international system is more conducive to peace than a multi-polar system. A: NOT(False,False) Q605: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue. A: True Q606: In a Uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system. A: True Q607: In a multi-polar international system . A: There is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international system A: The capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system Q608: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure. A: True Q609: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracy’s foreign policy toward other democracies. A: False Q610: Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) international system. A: multi-polar Q611: During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were and their behavior was to a large part defined by . A: aligned with either of the two superpowers, shifting alliances in order to realize economic gain A: aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with A: made impotent, what was dictated to them by the superpowers Q612: Joanne Gowa argues that . A: prior to 1914, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another as they were with non-democratic states A: prior to World War I, democracies were less likely to align with other democracies than with non-democratic states Q613: During the Cold War, the world was a(n) international system. A: bi-polar Q614: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn into office. A: False Q615: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by