Psychology Test Bank, Exercises of Psychology

Download Psychology Test Bank and more Exercises Psychology in PDF only on Docsity! 1 Multiple-Choice Testbank Chapter 1 Psychological Tests: What Are They and Why Do We Need Them? 1 One of the major achievements of psychology in the twentieth century was A the development and application of psychological tests B the application of tests during the First World War C the development of the Deviation IQ D the solution of the mind-body problem 2 Psychological tests are used to A help make decisions about people B promote self-understanding C measure psychological constructs D all of the above 3 Psychological tests are A more relevant to psychological theory than practice B more relevant to psychological practice than theory C important tools for psychological research D rarely used in research settings 4 James McKeen Cattell coined the term mental test in which decade? A 1880–1889 B 1890–1899 C 1900–1909 D 1910–1919 5 The first intelligence test was developed by A Binet and Simon B Spearman C Stanford and Binet D Terman and Wechsler 6 The first theory of intelligence was developed by A Binet and Simon B Spearman C Stanford and Binet D Terman and Wechsler 2 7 Evidence of psychological testing can be traced back to A cavemen challenging each other to lift heavy stones B selection of candidates for the Roman senate C public service examinations in ancient China D Hammurabi’s code of civil law 8 The Army Alpha was A dependent on the ability to read and write B a precursor of the Army Beta C an early index of reliability developed by military psychologists D the highest grade of achievement on a set of tests developed for the US army during the First World War 9 Spearman’s g refers to A a method of factor analysis devised by Spearman B Spearman’s theory of intelligence C a statistic devised by Spearman as an index of intelligence D the common element in all cognitive tests 10 Porteus developed an early performance test based on A block design B mazes C non-verbal cues D drawing people 11 The Queensland Test was specifically designed by McElwain and Kearney to avoid dependency on A Spearman’s g B motor performance C language of administration D mental age 12 Wechsler based his concept of verbal and performance scales on A the Army Alpha and Beta B subscales from the Stanford-Binet test C the ideas of mental age and chronological age D Spearman’s theory of intelligence 13 The Deviation IQ is based on the notion of A delinquency as a factor affecting the development of intelligence B mental age versus chronological age C a z-score D verbal versus performance scores 14 The first self-report test of personality was developed by A McElwain B Simon C Terman 5 C a large sample of individual items D the use of multiple symbols 30 A psychological test can become obsolete when A psychological theory develops to render the basis of the test obsolete B society changes to render the content of items less appropriate C society changes to render the tests norms obsolete D all of the above Answers for Chapter 1 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 6 Chapter 2 Psychological Testing and Assessment: Processes, Best Practice, and Ethics 1 Compared to psychological testing, psychological assessment is usually A undertaken to answer more complex referral questions B undertaken in two sessions C cheaper D less time consuming 2 What is psychological assessment primarily used for? A legal decision making B report writing C research D answering referral question(s) 3 _____ is a subprocess of _____ A psychological testing; observation B psychological testing; interviewing C interviewing; psychological assessment D psychological assessment; observation 4 Psychological tests are better than other means of psychological assessment because they A are cheaper B have norms C have face validity D are suitable for measuring all psychological constructs 5 Which of the following is not usually used in psychological assessment? A psychological testing B counselling C interviewing D observation 6 The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is an example of a(n) _____ test A individual-administered B group-administered C computer-administered D criterion-referenced 7 The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory – 2 is an example of a _____ test A criterion-referenced 7 B performance C self-report D self-scoring 8 The Bader Reading and Language Inventory is an example of a _____ test A group-administered B computer-administered C norm-referenced D criterion-referenced 9 Psychological testing is _____ as part of psychological assessment A rarely used B always used C over-used D used, if appropriate, 10 Which of the following areas of psychology does not use psychological tests in practice? A forensic B social C educational D clinical 11 Which of the following is usually not included in the test catalogue of a publishing company? A purpose of tests B price of tests C independent reviews of tests D administration time of tests 12 Which of the following can be used to find out which tests have been published? A Tests in Print B test catalogue of Psychological Corporation C Encyclopaedia Psychologica D any textbook on psychological testing 13 Which of the following statements is correct? A test developers do not always follow guidelines relating to psychological testing published by the American Psychological Association B the Mental Measurements Yearbook reviews both published and unpublished psychological tests C test developers always follow guidelines relating to psychological testing published by the American Psychological Association D the Mental Measurements Yearbook reviews only unpublished psychological tests 14 The Mental Measurements Yearbook provides A the norms of psychological tests B the prices of psychological tests 10 29 At the Royal Commission into Deep Sleep Therapy, the use of psychological tests by the psychologist involved was criticised because A the tests were too expensive B the tests used were not developed in Australia C the tests used were not developed to diagnose improvements in psychiatric conditions D none of the above 30 According to the textbook, the Psychologists Registration Board of New South Wales was established A before the Royal Commission into Deep Sleep Therapy B at about the same time as the Royal Commission into Deep Sleep Therapy C after the Royal Commission into Deep Sleep Therapy D at about the same time as the establishment of the Australian Psychological Society Answers for Chapter 2 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. C 11 Chapter 3 Test Scores and Norms 1 Raw scores and linear transformed scores based on them have A the same mean B the same standard deviation C the same relationship among scores D the same range 2 Transforming scores on psychological tests is done primarily to A protect the privacy of the test taker B aid interpretation of the scores C make the scores more manageable D make the scores available for research 3 Criterion referencing of test scores A provides direct access to their meaning B is only the first step in giving them meaning C is always done with psychological tests D applies properties of the normal curve 4 Norm referencing of test scores A compares scores among test takers B requires data gathering with a reasonably large sample C has been used since the early history of psychological testing D all of the above 5 Non-linear transformations of test scores A do not make use of the equation for a straight line B are inferior to a linear transformation C preserve all the features of the original scores D are seldom used with modern psychological tests 6 A T score transformation A gives rise to a distribution of scores with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10 B has the same mean as the original distribution of raw scores C is derived using a non-linear transformation D is named after Terman, who was the first to use the transformation 7 Percentiles A is another name for scores expressed as per cent correct B express the person’s score in terms of where it lies in a distribution of scores C are only used when other transformations are not possible D provide a normal distribution of scores 12 8 z scores A can be computed when either an estimate of the mean or an estimate of the standard deviation is available B require access to a table of the normal curve for their calculation C were used by Wechsler in the first edition of his test of intelligence D are rarely used in scoring psychological tests 9 Which of the following is not a linear transformation? A stanine score B T score C z score D standard score 10 What proportion of scores in a normal distribution lie above a z score of 1? A 50 per cent B 16 per cent C 25 per cent D 10 per cent 11 If a z score of 1.33 is obtained we know that the person’s raw score A is above average B is lower than the scores of most others on the test C is about average D falls at the 84th percentile 12 A score higher than 65 on an MMPI scale is of interest because A most people obtain scores in that range B clinical experience suggests that it is C it is more than 1.5 standard deviations above the mean D it is well above the 50 per cent correct mark 13 Percentiles can be calculated in a number of ways. Which of the following is not a way of calculating a percentile? A graphically from a plot of the cumulative distribution of scores B by formula C from tables of the normal curve D from the equation of a straight line 14 Because normalised standard scores follow a normal distribution they A preserve the differences among the original raw scores B have the same mean as the original raw score distribution C are attractive to test constructors D do not require the use of the normal curve for their interpretation 15 A score of 115 on a version of Wechsler’s test of intelligence means that the score A is well below average B is one standard deviation above the average score on that version C is equivalent to a z score of 1.115 15 Answers for Chapter 3 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B 16 Chapter 4 Reliability 1 According to classical test score theory, what happens to the true score variance as error in a measure increases? A it increases B it decreases C it remains constant D classical test score theory makes no statement on this point 2 According to classical test score theory, a test score is made up of A true score variance and nonsystematic variance B observed score variance and true score variance C observed score variance and error variance D observed score variance and systematic variance 3 The wording of several items on a psychological test makes it more likely that test takers will endorse the ‘Yes’ rather than the ‘No’ option. This is best described as A systematic variance in the test B unsystematic variance in the test C clever item writing D a problem for the test taker 4 Systematic error in a test exerts what kind of effect on test scores? A random B consistent C unknowable D inconsistent 5 Another way of talking about the reliability of a test for a particular purpose is to talk about its A dependability B validity C utility D discriminability 6 The proportion of observed score variance attributable to random error is known as A the reliability coefficient B the coefficient of nondetermination C the error coefficient D one minus the reliability coefficient 7 Test-retest reliability is sometimes referred to as A stability 17 B consistency C long-term reliability D concurrent reliability 8 The domain sampling model proposes that A items in a test are a random sample from a population of possible items B the only items possible have been used in the test C items have been sampled without replacement D the majority of items have the same content 9 The domain sampling model as originally conceived could not deal well with A split half reliability B internal consistency reliability C equivalent forms reliability D test-retest reliability 10 Which of the following procedures does not yield an estimate of the reliability of a test? A correlating the total of all even-numbered items with the total of all odd-numbered items B correlating the total of items in the first half of the test with the total of items in the second half of the test C correlating each item with the total score on the test D finding the average of the correlation of each item with every other item 11 Estimating test reliability by correlating scores from two administrations of the test 6 months apart assumes A the trait being measured changes over time B the trait being measured is essentially episodic in character C the trait being measured does not change over time D there is a systematic practice effect on the test 12 The reliability of expert judgment can be estimated by A correlating the judgments made by a panel of experts over a number of instances of judgment making B counting the frequency of instances in which a panel of experts disagree C finding the proportion of instances in which a panel of experts is undecided D averaging the number of decisions a panel of experts gets wrong 13 Inter-rater reliability A overcomes the problems of test reliability B is a special case of test reliability C cannot be estimated statistically D uses the same formula as that used for equivalent forms reliability 14 The concept of ‘domain sampling’ in the psychometric theory of reliability refers to A sampling persons from the population with whom a test may be used B sampling items from the population of possible items that could be used in a test C sampling tests from the population of tests available to measure a construct 20 30 Reliability of an assessment device can be improved within limits by A increasing its length (e.g. using more items) B decreasing the time taken to administer it C supplementing it with the judgment of the assessor D replacing it with the judgment of the assessor Answers for Chapter 4 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 21 Chapter 5 Validity 1 The validity of a psychological test for a given purpose A depends on the theory and data available to support its use B is determined at the time the test is developed C is an immutable characteristic of the test D depends on the judgment of those who developed the test 2 The first test developer to be concerned with the issue of test validity was A Charles Spearman B David Weschler C Alfred Binet D Charles Stanford 3 The validity of a psychological test was first considered from the perspective of …validity and only subsequently from the perspective of _____validity A predictive; construct B construct; predictive C predictive; concurrent D concurrent; predictive 4 Constructs are A invented by psychologists B given by the order of nature C found in psychological test data D peculiar to the theory of test validity 5 Content validity A has no role in test development B is another name for construct validity C is relevant in developing achievement tests D was relied on by Binet and Simon in their work in test development 6 Members of the general public to whom psychological tests are administered A have no way of knowing what a test is about unless told by the test administrator B can often guess the nature or purpose of a test from the items included in it C always know what a test is about D can never guess the range within which their score on the test will lie 7 In determining predictive validity we need to have A a highly select group with respect to the construct being assessed B a way of judging the appropriateness of the content of the test items C another test of the same construct D a criterion relevant to performance on the test but external to it 22 8 A test of scholastic aptitude is administered at the beginning of first semester and the academic performance of the sample is examined at the end of the first year of university (i.e. two semesters later). A failure to find a high-to-perfect correlation between test scores and academic performance A indicates the test lacks predictive validity B indicates the test lacks concurrent validity C is highly unlikely D may indicate a lack of test validity but may also reflect intervening effects unrelated to scholastic aptitude 9 In the standard approach to predictive validity, the validity coefficient is estimated by A the slope of a straight line relating test scores and criterion B the distance of the straight line relating test scores and criterion from the X axis C the distance of the straight line relating test scores and criterion from the Y axis D the length of the straight line relating test scores and criterion 10 The standard method for fitting a regression line to a set of data is referred to as A an approximation B the least squares method C the Procrustes method D regression to the mean 11 The basic formula for the correlation between two variables is A the average of the z scores for the two variables B the average of the cross products of the raw scores for the two variables C the average of the raw scores of the two variables D the average of the cross products of the variables expressed as z scores 12 A test with a validity coefficient of 0.4 improves the prediction of the criterion by A 40 per cent relative to that based on a random process B an unknown amount C the square of the validity coefficient, i.e., 16 per cent D 1 minus the validity coefficient, i.e., 60 per cent 13 When the predictive validity of a psychological test is compared to the prediction that would be made if no test were available, we speak of A concurrent validity B incremental validity C face validity D construct validity 14 In the regression approach to predictive validity the estimate of error is referred to as the A standard error of the mean B standard error of estimate C standard error of measurement D standard error of the criterion 15 Decision theory was developed to help with decisions being made where 25 30 Examining the validity of a test A helps refine our understanding of the construct operationalised in the test B extends the range of application of the test C provides a better test D all of the above Answers for Chapter 5 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. D 26 Chapter 6 Test Construction 1 The empirical approach to psychological test development A begins with a sound theory B relies on the frequency of endorsement of items by selected groups C continues to be the major approach to the construction of personality tests D ensures that all items in the test have high face validity 2 The first step in constructing a psychological test is to A determine the sample size to which the test is administered B review the relevant literature C identify a likely publisher for the test D be clear about the construct or constructs to be assessed with the test 3 Psychological tests A conform to the highest possible form of measurement B seldom achieve more than a statement about rank order in terms of the characteristic of interest C provide for a true zero in terms of the characteristic D invariably specify equal intervals on their measurement scales 4 Because 0˚C does not represent the complete absence of heat, the Celsius scale cannot be considered A a ratio scale B a reliable scale C a random scale D a representative scale 5 The Mental Measurements Yearbook is A a catalogue of test reviews B a classification scheme for mental disorder C an encyclopaedia of psychometrics D a handbook of good practice in assessment 6 According to S S Stevens, which of the following is not a type of measurement? A ordinal B interval C dichotomous D nominal 7 The model of measurement that underlies many commercially available psychological tests is A the manifest trait model B the weak true score model 27 C S S Stevens’s measurement types D the Guttman model 8 A trace line for an item relates A the outline of the item to the specification of the construct B the inverse of the strength of the trait to item frequency C the proportion of items correct to the strength of the underlying trait D the likelihood of endorsement of the item to the strength of the underlying trait 9 Item Response Theory is a stricter model for test construction than classical true score theory in that it A specifies the parameters of the trace line B requires more of the items in the test to conform to the model C uses a steeper trace line D includes classical true score theory as a special case 10 In using Item Response Theory in practice A item difficulty is often selected as the focus of interest B the assumptions of the theory are ignored C items of equal difficulty are sought D items of intermediate difficulty are sought 11 Thurstone’s model for item construction calls for a A linear trace line B monotonic trace line C non-monotonic trace line D deterministic trace line 12 Thurstone’s approach to the construction of attitude scales was replaced for most practical purposes by one developed by A Rensis Likert B Louise Guttman C Georg Rasch D Charles Spearman 13 Scalogram analysis implies that a person’s position on a trait indicates A whether they will get a test item right or wrong B that they are more likely to get the item right than wrong C that they are likely to get the item right or wrong but it is by no means certain D that they will be unsure of the correct response 14 Multiple choice tests provide more than two options for each question to overcome the problem of A faking B carelessness C defensiveness D guessing 30 29 The item validity is the A correlation of the item score with the total score on the test B correlation of the item with an external criterion measure of the construct being tested C average correlation of the item with all other items D correlation of the item with the average score on all other items 30 The discriminability of an item refers to the capacity of the item to A separate those that are high and low on the trait of interest B distinguish between minority and majority groups C identify those who get the item correct D identify those who get the difficult items right Answers for Chapter 6 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. A 31 Chapter 7 Clinical and Mental Health Testing and Assessment 1 For psychologists who work in the mental health setting A referral questions are usually not provided by either the clients or other professionals B referral questions provided by the clients are usually realistic and answerable C referral questions provided by other professionals are usually realistic and answerable D it is important to clarify the referral question for a client to make it realistic and answerable 2 Case history data for a client in a mental health setting A should be collected with the relevant privacy policies of government departments in mind B should not be collected from the client C is not usually required D is usually inaccurate 3 The clinical interview is a useful psychological assessment technique for psychologists who work in a mental health setting because A a lot of information about the client can be collected very quickly B it is more accurate than other psychological assessment techniques C it is more valid than other psychological assessment techniques D it enables psychologists to elicit information that is not readily available from the client’s record or file 4 Which of the followings is not a function of the clinical interview? A providing information B identifying malingerers C verifying information D establishing rapport 5 Information commonly obtained during a clinical interview includes A client history (e.g., medical, family, educational and vocational, psychological) and attitude towards mental health problems B demographic data and attitude towards mental health problems C demographic data and client history (e.g., medical, family, educational and vocational, psychological) D demographic data and the background of the relevant referral agents 6 Which of the following areas are usually covered in a Mental Status Examination? A appearance, orientation, affect, thought content and process, insight 32 B appearance, orientation, tendency to lie, thought content and process, insight C CT scan, appearance, orientation, affect, insight D orientation, affect, thought content and process, insight, CT scan 7 The DSM-IV-TR was published by the A American Psychological Association B Australian Psychological Association C American Psychiatric Association D World Health Organization 8 The DSM-IV-TR contains a list of psychiatric disorders and a client is classified in terms of a set of _____ axes or clinically important factors A three B four C five D six 9 Which of the following is not a common criticism of the DMS-IV-TR? A it is atheoretical B it is comprehensive C it is low in reliability and validity D it adheres too closely to the medical model 10 Which of the following is the most commonly used intelligence test throughout the world? A Stanford-Binet – Fifth Edition B Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale – Third Edition C Raven’s Progressive Matrices D Gardner Multiple Intelligence Test 11 The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale – Third Edition was developed for adults between _____ and _____ years old A 16 and 89 B 16 and 90 C 17 and 89 D 17 and 90 12 Which of the following is not a verbal subtest of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale – Third Edition? A Digit Span B Vocabulary C Arithmetic D Matrix Reasoning 13 Which of the following is not a performance subtest of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale – Third Edition? A Letter-Number Sequencing B Digit Symbol-Coding 35 27 Which of the following statements has been used to support the validity of the Depression Anxiety Stress Scales? A clinical psychologists report it is useful B it has a very high coefficient alpha C there are significant correlations between Depression Anxiety Stress Scales and the Beck Depression Inventory and Beck Anxiety Inventory D it has a high inter-rater agreement 28 A psychological report is important because A it is required by the Australian Psychological Society B it is required by psychologists’ registration boards in Australia C it allows the client and the referral agent to challenge the results in a court of law if they do not agree with the psychologist’s conclusion and suggestions D it allows the client and the referral agent to understand the rationale of the psychologist’s conclusions and suggestions 29 According to Shellenberger and Brenner, a good psychological report A is individualised rather than general, is theory-focused, and is written and delivered on time B is general rather than individualised, is theory focused, and is written and delivered on time C is individualised rather than general, answers the referral question directly, and is written and delivered on time D is general rather than individualised, answers the referral question directly, and is written and delivered on time 30 Which of the following is not a commonly used heading in a psychological report? A Relevant Theory B Relevant Background C Results and Interpretation D Recommendations Answers for Chapter 7 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. C 30. A 36 Chapter 8 Organisational Testing and Assessment 1 The first great impetus to psychological testing in industry came from A the development of the Army Alpha and Army Beta during the First World War B the publication of Hugo Munsterberg’s general psychological text for industry C the establishment of the Institute of Industrial Psychology by C S Myers in London in 1918 D the formation of the College of Organisational Psychologists of the Australian Psychological Society in 1993 2 Performance appraisal refers to A appraising a person’s performance on a psychological test B scoring a person’s performance on a psychological test C the assessment of worker’s performance on the job D a particular approach to management which emphasises psychological assessment 3 Quantitative criteria are usually deficient in terms of A quality B validity C reliability D relevance 4 BARS stands for A Biodata Administered with Reliability and Significance B Behavioural Assessment of Relevant Standards C Behavioural Assessment for Recruiting and Selection D Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale 5 BOS stands for A Behaviourally Ordered Selection B Behavioural Observation Scale C Biographic Orientation Score D Behavioural Orientation Scale 6 The first step in developing BARS and BOS is A the development of a frequency-of-observation scale B content analysis of job behaviours C location of anchors along the entire length of the scale D critical incident job analysis 7 All raters involved in performance appraisal need A several years of managerial experience B several years of observation experience C training 37 D BARS 8 Desirable behaviours frequently observed and undesirable behaviours infrequently observed form the theoretical basis of A BOS B BARS C graphic rating scales D performance appraisal 9 Which of the following is not a performance appraisal method? A rank ordering B job preview C paired comparisons D supervisor ratings 10 Technology is to job performance as drugs are to A medicine B sport C pharmacies D headaches 11 The two main types of job performance are A input of the worker and input of the technology B working and doing C supervisor observations and peer observations D task performance and contextual performance 12 Contextual performance is mainly composed of A organisational citizenship behaviours B interpersonal skills C labour market conditions D office layout and soft furnishings 13 In personnel selection, the process of appointing everyone who applies for a position and then retaining only those whose performance is satisfactory after some period of time is referred to as A job sampling B selection by fiat C selection on the criterion D post-appointment selection 14 The main problem with selecting on the criterion is that A it is a form of job try-out B it has low validity C it is only applicable to a few jobs D it is extremely expensive 15 A false positive in personnel selection is 40 Answers for Chapter 8 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 41 Chapter 9 Neuropsychological Testing and Assessment 1 The brain is made up of neurons and glia. The main function of glia is A holding neurons together B conducting nerve impulses C providing nutrients to neurons D producing neurotransmitters 2 The three main types of neurons are A reception neuron, conduction neuron and action neuron B sensory neuron, motor neuron, and conduction neuron C sensory neuron, conduction neuron, and action neuron D sensory neuron, motor neuron, and interneuron 3 The brain stem comprises A pons, basal ganglia, and recticular formation B cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and basal ganglia C medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum D cerebellum, basal ganglia, and recticular formation 4 The structure Y in the following figure is the A tail of caudate B head of caudate C putamen D globus pallidus Note to lecturer: To create more questions, you can substitute the letter Y with the other letters shown on the diagram. 5 The structure X in the following figure is the 42 A cerebellum B cortex C pons D medulla oblongata Note to lecturer: To create more questions, you can substitute the letter X with the other letters shown on the diagram. 6 Which of the following functions is usually associated with the limbic system? A motor B speech C somatosensory D regulation of emotion 7 Which of the following functions is usually associated with the basal ganglia? A motor B speech C somatosensory D regulation of emotion 8 Which of the following sets of lobes is associated with executive function? A frontal B temporal C parietal D occipital 9 Which of the following sets of lobes is associated with auditory perception? A frontal B temporal C parietal D occipital 10 Which of the following sets of lobes is associated with memory function? 45 C memory D attention 26 Human attention is not a unitary construct and is considered to comprise A focused attention, selective attention, and executive attention B attention span, focused attention, and selective attention C attention span, selective attention, and executive attention D focused attention, attention span, and immediate attention 27 Executive function is not a unitary construct and is considered to comprise A concept formation, memory, and problem solving B concept formation, planning, and problem solving C attention span, planning, and problem solving D concept formation, planning, and motor strength 28 Aphasia literally means no A motor strength B sensation C language D attention 29 Most neuropsychological tests of memory and learning are involved in the assessment of A implicit memory B semantic memory C episodic memory D short-term memory 30 The Purdue Pegboard is a test of motor dexterity and was originally developed to A select assembly line workers B detect brain damage C select school children D estimate IQ Answers for Chapter 9 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 46 Chapter 10 Forensic Psychological Testing and Assessment 1 The word ‘forensic’ means A criminal B justice C of or used in connection with courts of law D investigation 2 Compared to other branches of professional psychology, forensic psychology is A relatively young B relatively old C based on theories D not based on theories 3 Before the recognition of forensic psychology as a specialty area of psychology A psychologists had not been asked to appear in courts as expert witness B psychologists had been asked to appear in courts as expert witness C psychologists were not interested in contributing to the working of the legal and criminal justice systems D psychologists were not allowed to contribute to the working of the legal and criminal justice systems 4 According to the textbook, one of the major contributions of forensic psychology is A assisting lawyers in preparing prosecution/defence cases B acting as expert witness in court C changing public opinion about criminal behaviour D forensic psychological testing and assessment 5 The primary purpose of forensic psychological testing and assessment is A to assist those who work in the legal and criminal justice system to make decisions B to enable forensic psychologists to act as expert witnesses C to help with law enforcement D to help suspects in criminal cases 6 When psychologists in other professional areas (e.g., clinical, neuropsychological, organisational) engage in forensic assessment A they are not expected to follow guidelines and ethics in forensic psychology B they are expected to follow guidelines and ethics in forensic psychology C they are required by law to consult a forensic psychologist D they are required by law to consult a lawyer 47 7 According to Ogloff and Douglas, the results of forensic assessment are needed if they are found by the court to be A of assistance to the prosecutors B provided by a registered forensic psychologist C relevant and related to one or more legal standards raised by a case D of assistance to the defence lawyers 8 In deciding whether forensic psychological evidence is admissible in a court of law, which of the following requirements must be satisfied? A the evidence is required by the judge or jury to assist in decision making B the evidence is provided by a suitably qualified professional C the evidence is based on scientific facts or data that are widely accepted by other experts in the area D all of the above 9 Compared to other witnesses in a court case, an expert witness A may provide factual information as well as offer an opinion B cannot be prosecuted for perjury C may offer an opinion but not provide factual information D is not subjected to cross-examination 10 According to Heilbrun, which of the following is not a requirement for selecting psychological tests to use in a court case? A to use commercially available tests that are documented in at least two sources B to use a test that has a standardisation sample with n = 1000 C to make sure the test chosen is applicable or suitable to the person being assessed D to use a test that is directly relevant to the legal issue involved, or at least use a test that assesses psychological constructs that are relevant to the legal issue 11 In Australia, the minimum length of university training required for membership of the College of Forensic Psychology, Australian Psychological Society, is A 4 years B 5 years C 6 years D 7 years 12 In Australia and other Commonwealth countries, the three main jurisdictions are A criminal, civil, and family B criminal, civil, and high C family, high, and criminal D local, family, and high 13 Forensic assessment is considered different from therapeutic assessment because A the validity of the tests used is different B the time required to conduct assessment is different C the tests used for assessment are different D the purpose of assessment is different 50 29 In malingering assessment, the term sensitivity is defined as A proportion of simulators correctly classified B proportion of non-simulators correctly classified C proportion of simulators incorrectly classified D proportion of non-simulators incorrectly classified 30 Which of the following is not a limitation of forensic assessment? A low reliability and validity B time required to complete assessment C susceptibility to faking of self-report instruments used D small sample size used in most validation studies Answers for Chapter 10 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B 51 Chapter 11 Educational Testing and Assessment 1 Herbart’s five-step process was A experience an activity, reflect on that experience, extract the general principles, apply them to a new situation, and repeat the process B start with a case study, tell a story, summarise the story, extract the lesson, and apply it to a new situation C motivate the subject matter, present the material, integrate it with what is already known, extract the lesson, and apply it to a new situation D motivate the subject matter, present the material, integrate it with what is already known, emphasise general principles, and facilitate practice 2 Achievement tests assess A past learning B future learning potential C need for achievement D innate potential 3 Aptitude tests assess A past learning B future learning potential C need for achievement D innate potential 4 Summative assessment refers to A the sum of the correct answers on a test B using assessment devices to facilitate learning C assessment devices used for evaluative purposes D the format of particular test items 5 Formative assessment refers to A using assessment devices to facilitate learning B assessment devices used for evaluative purposes C the sum of the correct answers on a test D the format of particular test items 6 A take-home exam is a good example of A aptitude assessment B summative assessment C achievement assessment D formative assessment 7 Local norms refer to A parent’s attitudes towards testing 52 B test norms developed for particular geographical regions C local government policy on testing and assessment D tests designed by a teacher for use in a particular class 8 The WISC–IV is a good example of A a test designed for preschool children B an individually administered achievement test C an individually administered aptitude test D a formative mode of assessment 9 What are the index scores that can be calculated from the WISC–IV? A Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, Processing Speed Index B Verbal Index, Perceptual Index, Performance Index, Full Scale Index C Verbal IQ, Performance IQ, Full Scale IQ D Similarities Index, Block Design Index, Digit Span Index, Coding Index 10 The purpose of supplemental tests in the WISC–IV is to A complement supermental tests B extend the range of abilities sampled C complement fundamental tests D give test administrators choice over which subtests to use 11 When computing the index scores on the WISC–IV, how many substitutions are permitted? A none B one C two D three 12 When computing the Full Scale IQ on the WISC–IV, how many substitutions are permitted? A none B one C two D three 13 J C Raven invented the progressive matrices in an attempt to develop a pure measure of A Spearman’s g B matrix reasoning C progressive intelligence D performance IQ 14 Raven’s progressive matrices were designed to be A self-training B self-administering C used with only a small section of the population D used only by people who are colour-blind 55 Answers for Chapter 11 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. C 56 Chapter 12 The Future of Testing and Assessment 1 The theory of multiple intelligences posits the existence of A a new intelligence for every person tested B transpersonal, suprapersonal and artistic intelligences C practical intelligence D interpersonal and intrapersonal intelligence 2 Practical intelligence involves A knowledge of processes and procedures B knowledge of facts and figures C knowledge of practical skills like woodwork and car maintenance D knowledge of how to cheat other people without being caught 3 Tacit knowledge is A declarative knowledge gained through instruction B procedural knowledge gained through experience C knowledge of tacits D knowledge of how to do well on tests 4 Emotional intelligence is A knowledge of emotional states B the ability to feign emotions when necessary C the ability to recognise and control one’s own and others’ emotions D the emotional reaction that occurs when completing an intelligence test 5 Automatic page turning is A using a computer to present a pencil-and-paper test B working through a test booklet without paying adequate attention C working through a test booklet with the help of an assistant to turn the pages, if necessary D an Internet test in which the pages are hyperlinked 6 The cross-mode correlation between non-speeded computerised and pencil-and-paper tests is about A 0.30 B –0.72 C –0.85 D 0.97 7 MAT is to CAT as MANOVA is to A ANOVA B CANOVA C ANCOVA 57 D PAVLOVA 8 CAT involves A Computer Assisted Tomography B a computer continuously monitoring an examinee’s performance and presenting items depending on the person’s performance so far C a computer scoring a large number of tests and providing a report that is most appropriate for each person D the application of classical test theory 9 Tailored testing involves A testing clothing manufacturers B tailoring a test to an organisation’s needs C adapting test content to an examinee in real time D tailoring feedback to a person’s emotional state 10 Which of the following statements is true? A SAT is more efficient than CAT B CAT is more efficient than MAT C MAT is more efficient than CAT D CAT, SAT and MAT are equally efficient 11 A disadvantage of MAT is A the frequent chopping and changing between item types B its multidimensional adaptability C its prolonged administration time D a MAT is basically a collection of CATs 12 Another disadvantage of MAT is A its latent factor-centred design B its dependency on Item Response Theory C an examinee is required to complete a CAT before moving onto a MAT D an examinee is required to remember the instructions of all subtests simultaneously 13 Item-generation techniques are easy to apply to A verbal items B figural ability items C open-ended questions D projective tests 14 The idea behind item-generative testing is that A new items are delivered via the Internet as soon as they become available B examinees generate their own items as they work through the test C teams of dedicated item writers are continuously updating new versions of the test D the computer randomly generates new items based on an underlying rule or algorithm