Questions And Answers With Rational Questions And Answers With Rational Questions , Exams of Nursing

Download Questions And Answers With Rational Questions And Answers With Rational Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 [Date] ANCC IQ domain 3 Questions And Answers With Rational 1. The PMHNP treating a patient for schizophrenia on ziprasidone orders an electrocardiogram. Which QTc interval result places the patient at greatest risk for torsades de pointes? - 300-500 milliseconds - 500-700 milliseconds - 160-260 milliseconds - 100-200 milliseconds Correct Ans:- - 500-700 milliseconds Rationale: A patient with a QTc interval of 500-700 milliseconds is at higher risk of developing torsades de pointes. 1. A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only known antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia? - Invega (iloperidone) - Abilify (aripiprazole) - Latuda (lurasidone) - Clozaril (clozapine) Correct Ans:- - Clozaril (clozapine) Rationale: Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic medication that has been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia. 2 [Date] 1. A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the following actions? - Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely. - Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor closely. - Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. Correct Ans:- - Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. Rationale: The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or symptoms. . When evaluating a woman with major depressive disorder, which of the following would not be a major consideration in the differential diagnosis? Prior episodes of depression Any episodes of hypomania Any periods without sleep yet no fatigue Prior pregnancies Correct Ans:- - Prior pregnancies 1 5 [Date] Correct Ans:- - Schizotypal personality disorder Rationale: Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by ideas of reference and magical thinking. 1. In the American Journal of Psychiatry, you read an article that discusses a recent study's evidence that the nicotine exposure in pregnant women increases the risk for schizophrenia in offspring (i.e., 38% increased likelihood of schizophrenia in young adults whose mothers smoked heavily while pregnant). This inspires you to translate this information in practice and teaching roles as a nurse practitioner. What considerations are needed to translate this in to practice based on the best evidence? - Determine if any other psychiatric or medical journal articles have commented on the validity or generalizability of the original stud. - If the research is published in a peer-reviewed journal such as the American Journal of Psychiatry, it is sound research. - Analyze the original and repeat studies for methodical rigor and verify that there were randomized or non-randomized clinical trials with the same results. - Analyze the original study only to determine that the research is sound and meets the criteria for effectiveness of an intervention. Correct Ans:- - Analyze the original and repeat studies for methodical rigor and verify that there were randomized or non-randomized clinical trials with the same results. Rationale: Research Utilization begins with the idea of putting an innovation to use in practice. The level of the evidence must be considered. The best of the best evidence comes from reviewing several randomized clinical trials of the same thing with the same results. Second to 6 [Date] that are several non-randomized trials about the same thing with the same results. Single randomized or non-randomized trials make up level 2 evidence regarding the effectiveness of an intervention. 1. In distinguishing borderline personality disorder from chronic post-traumatic stress disorder related to childhood sexual abuse and victimization, which of the following would be more indicative of borderline personality disorder? - Irritability or intense outbursts of anger - Efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment - Affect lability often associated with intense fear - Feeling of detachment or estrangement from others Correct Ans:- - Efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment Rationale: One hallmark of borderline personality disorder is the frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment and the other is a pervasive pattern of unstable and intense personal relationships characterized by alternating between extremes of idealization and devaluation. Affect lability, intense fear, irritability, intense anger, and feelings of detachment or estrangement are seen in both chronic PTSD and borderline personality disorder. 1. Which of the following atypical antipsychotic medications has U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for treatment of bipolar depression when combined with fluoxetine (Prozac)? - Risperidone (Risperdal) - Quetiapine (Seroquel) - Olanzapine (Zyprexa) - Aripiprazole (Abilify) 7 [Date] Correct Ans:- - Olanzapine (Zyprexa) Rationale: Olanzapine in combination with fluoxetine (Symbax) is FDA approved for the treatment of bipolar depression. 1. A pervasive pattern of grandiosity, lack of empathy, and need for admiration suggests the diagnosis of which of the following personality disorders? - Schizotypal - Narcissistic - Borderline - Paranoid Correct Ans:- - Narcissistic Rationale: The essential features of narcissistic personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy that begins by early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. 1. Mr. Jones, a 78-year-old male patient, presents to the PMHNP for a follow-up medication appointment. Mr. Jones' depression has been successfully treated with citalopram 20 mg by mouth daily. During the visit, Mr. Jones complains that in the last 2 or 3 weeks, he has had nausea, fatigue, feeling weak, with a headache and decreased appetite. Which action would be the most appropriate for Mr. Jones? - Assess for other symptoms of hyponatremia and check a serum sodium level- Discuss selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor discontinuation syndrome and stress the importance of medication adherence. 1 0 [Date] - Thyroid function tests, creatinine, pregnancy test Correct Ans:- - Thyroid function tests, creatinine, pregnancy test Rationale: Lithium is known for its low margin of safety, making frequent monitoring necessary. Common side effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, nephrotoxicity, hypothyroidism, tremors, leukocytosis, acne, psoriasis flares, hair loss, and edema. Because of these effects, it is important to get thyroid function tests and renal function tests (creatinine) before starting any patient on this medication. Lithium is also teratogenic and has been associated with cardiac effects, so a pregnancy test is necessary before beginning lithium therapy. 1. Which of the following findings would raise concern in an annual exam of a 76year-old woman? - Blood pressure 130/86; pulse 82; respirations 25 - AST 85 u/L; ALT 45 u/L - Fasting glucose 76 mg/dL; Hg 11.8 gm/dL; HCT 38% - Height 65 inches; weight 140 lbs. Correct Ans:- - AST 85 u/L; ALT 45 u/L Rationale: Height, Weight (calculated BMI of 23) all vital signs, glucose, hemoglobin, and hematocrit are within normal limits for a 76-year-old woman. The AST is elevated (normal range 5-40 units per liter of serum) and ALT is normal (range 7-56 units per liter of serum). When AST > ALT, one suspects chronic liver disease or recent post myocardial infarction. Further assessment is warranted including rule out of alcohol dependence. 1. A new patient comes to you on a medication regimen of: Adderall XR 30 mg 1 mg 1 1 [Date] PO QAM, Seroquel 300 mg PO QHS, Mirtazapine 45 mg PO QHS, Diazepam 5 mg PO TID, Zolpidem 10 mg PO QHS and Zolpidem 10 mg PO QHS in addition if initial dose does not help the patient to sleep. You confirm the medication regimen with the patient's past records. You diagnose the patient with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, Panic Disorder, Major Depressive Disorder, attention Deficit Disorder, and Alcohol Use Disorder-moderate by history in recovery. You treat the patient and find that the patient is resistant to changing the past medication regimen. The patient calls you stating that the pharmacy will not refill the Zolpidem at this time. The patient wants you to rewrite the script so that the medication is available. In checking with the pharmacy, you find out that the patient has potentially used 60 tablets of Zolpidem in a 20- day period. Your best action is to: - Refill the order for the medication. Then, send the patient for a Chemical Dependency Evaluation. The patient is on too many sedative-type medications and is harming himself. - Refill the order for the medication as requested. This medication has not harmed the patient so far. - Discontinue the prescription for the Zolpidem. Talk to the patient about the overuse of Zolpidem and the danger it poses to his health and well-being. - Give an order for the Zolpidem. Talk with the patient about the danger of using too much sleeping medication. Then, discontinue the medication. Correct Ans:- - Discontinue the prescription for the Zolpidem. Talk to the patient about the overuse of Zolpidem and the danger it poses to his health and well-being. Rationale: Zolpidem is a hypnotic medication for the short-term management of insomnia. It can be stopped abruptly without significant harm to the patient other than rebound insomnia. You are 1 2 [Date] protecting your patient by stopping the dangerous misuse of a hypnotic medication. You must also discuss the ramifications of the misuse with the patient and attempt to help him by giving him a rationale for the discontinuation and a healthy plan for managing the insomnia. 1. Making an evidence-based decision regarding implementation of an intervention includes current research evidence and all of the following except the: - Availability of healthcare resources - Generalizability of findings - Patient's clinical status, circumstances, and preferences - Clinician's expertise Correct Ans:- - Generalizability of findings Rationale: Generalizability refers to a particular study's findings and to what extent those findings are applicable to patients in other practice stings. The other responses along with current research evidence comprise the four domains of evidence-based decision making and practice. 1. Which of the following lab findings would raise the greatest concern when prescribing Lithium? - Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL - Serum Na+ 120 mEq/L - Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL - Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 115 mL/min Correct Ans:- - Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL 1 5 [Date] 1. Which of the following interventions does not have evidence-based findings that demonstrate reduced symptoms in individuals with non-combat related posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? - Anticonvulsants - Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) - Eye-movement, desensitization, and reprocessing (EMDR) - Exposure-based cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) Correct Ans:- - Anticonvulsants Rationale: Randomized placebo controlled clinical trials have not demonstrated efficacy or PTSD symptom improvement by anticonvulsants. SSRIs are evidence- based pharmacologic interventions for PTSD. EMDR and exposure-based CBT demonstrate the best evidence among non-pharmacologic interventions. 1. A middle-school boy repeatedly lies, steals, bullies peers, instigates fights, and inflicts harm without feeling any regret or remorse. These are characteristics of which disorder? - Oppositional defiant disorder - Conduct disorder - Antisocial personality disorder - Disruptive behavior disorder Correct Ans:- - Conduct disorder Rationale: Conduct disorder is a childhood disorder characterized by serious violations of social norms, including aggressive behavior, destruction of property, and cruelty to animals. These children often lie to achieve short-term ends, may be truant from school, run away from home, 1 6 [Date] and may engage in petty larceny or other delinquent behaviors. Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by persistent pattern of disobedience, argumentativeness, angry outbursts, low frustration tolerance, and tendency to blame others for misfortunes. Children with either conduct disorders or oppositional defiant disorders often have comorbid ADHD or learning disabilities and encounter academic and social failure and acquire a bitter or hostile attitude. Disruptive behavior disorders encompass a broad category of childhood disorders that include conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and ADHD. Antisocial personality disorder is an adult psychiatric disorder that cannot be diagnosed until an individual is 18 years or older and has met criteria for conduct disorder prior to age 15 years. 1. Following best practice guidelines, which pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic treatments are the best studied and have the highest level of evidence for the treatment of nightmares in adults with Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)? - Quetiapine (Seroquel) and eye-movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) - Prazosin (Minipress) and Image Rehearsal Therapy - Venlafaxine (Effexor) and hypnosis - Clonidine (Catapres) and progressive muscle relaxation Correct Ans:- - Prazosin (Minipress) and Image Rehearsal Therapy Rationale: Image Rehearsal Therapy and prazosin are the best studied and have the highest level of evidence for the treatment of nightmares in adults with PTSD. 1 7 [Date] 1. A PMHNP treating a 32-year-old woman after hospitalization for postpartum psychosis after the birth of her first child needs to consider which as the most important risk factor when monitoring her response to treatment? - Subsequent pregnancies are associated with increased risk of another episode, as high as 50 percent. - As many as two thirds of patients have a second episode of an underlying affective disorder during the year after the baby's birth. - Incidence of postpartum psychosis is about 1 to 2 per 1,000 childbirths and 50 to 60 percent of affected women have just had their first child. - Data suggest that an episode of a postpartum psychosis is essentially an episode of a mood disorder, and is usually an indicator of bipolar disorder. Correct Ans:- - Data suggest that an episode of a postpartum psychosis is essentially an episode of a mood disorder, and is usually an indicator of bipolar disorder. Rationale: All of these statements are true; however, after the initial resolution of psychosis, subsequent monitoring for symptoms of bipolar disorder is essential. Risk for bipolar disorder and symptom relapse poses greater risk than major depressive disorder alone. Education about risk for postpartum psychosis in subsequent pregnancies is secondary concern 1. Which of the following is not characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD)? - APD is correlated with low dopamine levels in the frontal cortex implicated in aggression and impulsivity. - APD is identified predominantly in European and Western industrialized countries. 2 0 [Date] Correct Ans:- - Fluoxetine (Prozac) Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is the only SSRI medication to have FDA approval for the treatment of major depression in children and adolescents. 1. The PMHNP evaluates a 3-year-old male and makes the diagnosis of attention deficit disorder. Following the Food and Drug Administration's labeling of approved medication for children, which medication can be started in a child at age 3? - Bupropion (Wellbutrin) - Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Daytrana, Quillivant XR, Aptensio XR) - Amphetamines (Adderall, Dexedrine, Vyvanse) - Fluoxetine (Prozac) Correct Ans:- - Amphetamines (Adderall, Dexedrine, Vyvanse) Rationale: Only amphetamines are approved in children ages 3 and older. Methylphenidate and guanfacine are approved in ages 6 and older, fluoxetine and bupropion are not approved under the age of 8. 1. You are seeing a client for an initial psychiatric evaluation. The client complains of persistent irritability, racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, distractibility, episodes of unusually high energy, and auditory hallucinations. The episodes of disturbed mood last approx. 5 days and the psychotic symptoms occur even if mood is euthymic. The most likely diagnosis is: - Schizoaffective disorder bipolar type - Bipolar I disorder with psychotic features - Schizophrenia 2 1 [Date] - Bipolar II disorder with psychotic features Correct Ans:- - Schizoaffective disorder bipolar type Rationale: In schizoaffective disorder, the psychotic symptoms usually continue in the absence of prominent mood symptoms. 1. When suspecting a patient has neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which laboratory values would help confirm the diagnosis? - Leukopenia and decreased creatine phosphokinase - Leukocytosis and elevated creatine phosphokinase - Leukocytosis and thrombocytopenia - Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis Correct Ans:- - Leukocytosis and elevated creatine phosphokinase Rationale: With NMS, a patient has an elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK) due to skeletal muscle breakdown and an elevated white bold cell (WBC) count. 1. After two weeks of treating a client for psychosis, the client develops symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). The following factors enable the PMHNP to differentiate NMS from serotonin syndrome: - Rigidity, hyperreflexia, orthostatic hypotension - Hyperthermia, leukopenia, tachycardia - Autonomic instability, diaphoresis, tremors - Mutism, leukocytosis, myoglobinuria Correct Ans:- - Mutism, leukocytosis, myoglobinuria 2 2 [Date] Rationale: NMS can be differentiated from serotonin syndrome by the presence of mutism, leukocytosis, dysphagia, and laboratory evidence of muscle injury, i.e. elevated CPK, myoglobinuria, or rhabdomyolysis. 1. A 20-year-old male with no previous psychiatric history arrives at the emergency room with his roommate. The roommate reports that the patient has been acting erratic for the past month, talking to people who do not exist, walking around naked, and accusing the roommate of spuing on him. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits and his neurological examination does not show any abnormalities. The most important first laboratory test would be which of the following? - Liver function tests - Complete blood count - Toxicology test - Non contrast CT scan of the brain Correct Ans:- - Toxicology test Rationale: The key points with this patient are the absence of a previous psychiatric history and the duration of symptoms. Before diagnosing a mental illness, it is necessary to rule out the effects of a substance. 1. Which laboratory test should be ordered to rule out a medical cause of dementia symptoms? - Thiamine - Albumin - Vitamin B12 2 5 [Date] Correct Ans:- - I recommend that you take in 360 calories of a carbohydrate at bedtime to induce sleepiness. Rationale: You must eat 360 calories of food to get proper absorption of Lurasidone (Latuda). If you do not, you only get ½ of the medication absorbed into the body. In addition, protein tends to awaken people while carbohydrates tend to make them sleepier. Turkey is the exception because it contains Tryptophan. 1. A patient presents for a clinic appointment and tells the PMHNP, "My depression is a little better, but I read about acupuncture, and I want to add this to my treatment." What is the PMHNP's best response to this patient? - Acupuncture has been found to help some individuals with depression. While data is limited, if this is something you would like to consider, let's talk about where you might find a reputable practitioner for acupuncture treatments. - Integrative therapies have no effectiveness in improving depressive symptoms, and if your depression has not improved and you have not achieved remission of your symptoms, I recommend that we increase your antidepressant. - Integrative therapies such as acupuncture are not well studied, and I cannot recommend that you add this to your current treatment. - Acupuncture is one of many integrative therapies, but it has the least effectiveness in improving depression. Correct Ans:- - Acupuncture has been found to help some individuals with depression. While data is limited, if this is something you would like to consider, let's talk about where you might find a reputable practitioner for acupuncture treatments. 2 6 [Date] Rationale: Research studies involving administering acupuncture for the treatment of depression show that when combined with medication, acupuncture can be beneficial. Following client-centered therapy, if the patient is requesting acupuncture, the PMHNP should assist the patient in investigation of this treatment. 1. Which of the following interventions have evidence-based findings to reduce comorbid substance use in patients with schizophrenia? - Manualized group intervention with motivational enhancement - Voucher-based behavioral reinforcement - Psychosocial support group targeting coping skills - Three-session individual motivational enhancement Correct Ans:- - Manualized group intervention with motivational enhancement Rationale: Manualized group intervention with motivational enhancement to reduce substance use has demonstrated efficacy. The other approaches have less evidence to support efficacy in reducing substance use in patients with schizophrenia. 1. Mr. Ready is a 58-year-old ne patient at a community mental health center. He's seen by the PMHNP for depression, anxiety, and co-morbid substance use disorder, which the patient describes as effective in treatment of his symptoms. He does not have a PRP and does not know when he last had laboratory values drawn. Ready takes Tylenol PRN for his knee pain, Prilosec OTC 20 mg BID, and has been on his current psychotropic medications for over 2 years: Buspirone 20 mg BID, Sertraline 200 mg PO QD, and Aripiprazole 2 mg QD. What screening labs are appropriate for this patient? 2 7 [Date] - BMP, LFT, and Vitamin D - CBC and CMP - CBC, CMP, Lipid Profile, and Vitamin B12 - Lipid Profile, CMP, CBC, Thyroid Profile, and Vitamins B12 and D Correct Ans:- - Lipid Profile, CMP, CBC, Thyroid Profile, and Vitamins B12 and D Rationale: Following APA, ADA, and SGA guidelines, he should have comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) and Lipid Profile; based on a history of depression, need to rule out an organic cause and should check thyroid and vitamin D; and due to longterm treatment on proton pump inhibitor (PPI), his B12 level should be checked. As he is on atypical antipsychotic (AA), his complete blood count (CBC) should be monitored. 1. Your 37-year-old patient suffers from schizophrenia. She has been maintained in stable condition for four years on Quetiapine (Seroquel). She tells you that her gynecologist has recommended that she have a total hysterectomy. She responds "no." You initiate a call to the gynecologist to discuss hormone replacement therapy as follows: - Adapt to surgical menopause as easily as she would natural menopause. Estrogen waxes and wanes in the body naturally and plays no part in schizophrenia. - Consultation with the gynecologist is not needed. The hyperprolactinemia caused by the antipsychotic, Quetiapine, ahs already reduced estrogen production in the patient's body to a point where it is not an issue after four years on the medication. - The abrupt loss of estrogen from the ovaries can precipitate deterioration of mental state, hallucinations, delusions, and depression as well as the stress from surgical menopause. 3 0 [Date] condition is exercise-induced asthma, and she is treated on Albuterol. Sally states she was in cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), without relief, and would like to try a medication. Which is the most suitable initial treatment for Sally? - Risperidone (Risperdal) - Inderal (Propranolol) - Clonazepam (Klonopin) - Sertraline (Zoloft) Correct Ans:- - Sertraline (Zoloft) Rationale: Zoloft is used to treat social anxiety disorder and the patient is on Albuterol; therefore, the beta blocker Inderal is contraindicated with Albuterol due to the risk of increased CNS stimulation. 1. A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg PO QD for the past 16 months, presents to the PMHNP for an outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit, the patient states that she has not been feeling well, reporting the flu. She also states that she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome? - Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium - Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering - Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea - Agitation, diaphoresis, tremor, and ataxia 3 1 [Date] Correct Ans:- - Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium Rationale: The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like symptoms. If the patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of autonomic instability. 1. When evaluating a 5-year-old child with language deficits, which of the following is a key indicator in differentiating autistic disorder from a mixed receptiveexpressive language disorder? - Family history of speech delay or language problems - Imaginative play is predominant form of expression. - Level of intelligence ranges from mild to severe impairment. - Language abnormalities such as echolalia are common. Correct Ans:- - Language abnormalities such as echolalia are common. Rationale: Language abnormalities sch as echolalia and stereotyped phrases out of context are more common in autistic disorders and are infrequent in mixed receptive-expressive language disorders. In both disorders 25% of cases have a family history of speech delays or language problems. Intelligence levels for both disorders can range from mild to severe, although in autistic disorders more severe impairment occurs more often. Imaginative play is usually present in the mixed receptive-expressive language disorder and either absent or rudimentary in autism spectrum disorders; it is not the predominant form of expression for either disorder. 3 2 [Date] 1. Risk reduction for a 22-year-old patient with schizophrenia taking olanzapine includes patient education on daily exercise, balanced nutrition, and baseline and periodic monitoring of BP, weight, BMI, and: - Waist circumference, fasting glucose, fasting lipid panel - Waist circumference, fasting lipid panel, EKG, prolactin level - Fasting lipid panel, EKG, liver enzymes - Fasting glucose, fasting lipid panel, electrolytes Correct Ans:- - Waist circumference, fasting glucose, fasting lipid panel Rationale: All atypical antipsychotics pose risk for weight gain which requires baseline and periodic monitoring every month for 3 months, then quarterly for BP, weight, BMI, waist circumference, fasting glucose, and fasting lipid panel. In patients with diabetes or who have gained >5% of initial weight, measures are taken more frequently. Monitoring key indicators is intended to reduce the risk of medicationinduced weight gain, metabolic syndrome, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus. 1. In distinguishing between dementia and pseudodementia, which of the following findings would be expected in a patient with pseudodementia? - "Don't Know" answers typical - Struggle to perform tasks - Attention and concentration usually faulty - Nocturnal accentuation of dysfunction common Correct Ans:- - "Don't Know" answers typical 3 5 [Date] Rationale: A patient presenting with nervousness, problems with memory, focus, mood lability, and sweating should be tested for hyperthyroidism before being diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder. 1. In bipolar I disorder, men are more prone than women to have: - Manic episodes - Depressive episodes - Mixed episodes - Rapid cycling Correct Ans:- - Manic episodes Rationale: In bipolar I disorder, manic episodes are more common in men, and depressive episodes are mor common in women. When manic episodes do occur in women, they are more likely than men to present a mixed picture (e.g., mania and depression). Women also have a higher rate of being rapid cyclers, defined as having four or more manic episodes in a 1-year period. 1. Which of the following antipsychotic medications has dosage formulations which include oral tablets, orally disintegrating tablets, short-acting injections, and longacting injections? - Ziprasidone (Geodon) - Clozapine (Clozaril) - Olanzapine (Zyprexa) - Paliperidone (Invega) 3 6 [Date] Correct Ans:- - Olanzapine (Zyprexa) Rationale: Olanzapine is available in various formulations. Clozaril is only available in oral tablets, orally disintegrating tablets, and oral suspension. Paliperidone is only available in oral tablets and long-acting injections. Ziprasidone is only available in capsules and a short- acting injection.