Nutrition Practice Exam, Exams of Nutrition

Download Nutrition Practice Exam and more Exams Nutrition in PDF only on Docsity! CDR DTR Practice Exam Reasons that the general population is told to "eat your colors" when referring to fruits and vegetables include all of the following except: a. the different color contain different phytochemicals b. selecting from all five colors ensures adequate protein intake c. doing so ensures adequate fiber intake, which may protect against certain types of cancers d. eating the colors helps lower type 2 diabetes and heart disease risks - b. selecting from all 5 colors ensures adequate protein intake Which of the following cooking methods is recommended for cuts of beef such as stew beef, short ribs, chuck steak or beef round? a. pan frying b. broiling c. roasting d. braising - d. braising genetically engineering food is a process by which scientists alter the gene make up of certain types of foods to achieve a certain characteristic. All of the following are potential benefits of genetically engineered food, except: a. a faster growing food supply, thus greater food production b. foods that tastes better and is more nutritious c. shorter shelf life d. reductions in pesticide use - c. shorter shelf life Egg yolks used in lemon meringue pie primarily serve as which of the following agents? a. emulsifying agent b. coloring agent c. thickening agent d. textural agent - b. coloring agent Which of the following is not an ingredient in baking powder? a. corn starch b. sodium bicarbonate c. cream of tartar d. potassium bicarbonate - d. potassium bicarbonate Two men are the same age and both weight 150#, but one man 5'7" and the other is 6' tall. What can be determined about their resting metabolic rate? a. their resting metabolic rate is about the same b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man c. the resting rate is higher for the shorter man d. it is difficult to draw conclusions based on the info available - b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man Which of the following statements is not true about soluble fiber? a. as soluble fiber is digested, it becomes gel-like b. soluble fiber works to slow the digestive process c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster d. soluble fiber may help lower cholesterol levels - c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster Chronic alcoholics are most likely to be deficient in the following nutrients, except: a. magnesium b. thiamin c. folate d. vitamin C - d. vitamin c The end product of sucrose digestion is: a. glucose and fructose b. glucose and galactose c. glucose and mannose d. 2 glucose molecules - a. glucose and fructose Protein digestion begins in the: a. jejunum b. stomach c. small intestine d. brush border - b. stomach A deficiency of vitamin D results in: a. rickets b. night blindness c. scurvy d. beri beri - a. rickets All of the following are true about vitamin C, except: a. the best food sources of vitamin C are fruits, such as citrus, and vegetables, such as broccoli b. cigarette smokers should consume at least 100mg per day of vitamin c c. deficiency of vitamin c can result in issues with wound healing, bleeding gums, tooth loss, and leg pain d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men - d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men -RDA increases for women during pregnancy and breastfeeding -the RDA for men is 90 mg Which of the following choices indicates nutritional risk? b. helps prevent neural tube defects c. prevents pernicious anemia d. deficiency causes poor appetite - b. helps prevent neural tube defects The best feeding plan for a normal 3-month old infant is: a. (8) 4 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day b. (6) 5 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day plus rice cereal added to the bottle at night c. breastfeeding on demand d. breastfeeding alternated with 20 cal/oz formula throughout the day - c. breastfeeding on demand - if unable to breastfeed = standard 20 cal/oz Feeding a preschooler is often challenging due to food jags, pickiness, or the child's attempts to assert independence. What are effective strategies for managing a preschooler's nutrition? a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely b. small servings of a variety of foods should be offered on a fairly regular schedule c. snacks and beverages should not be provided within 90 minutes of a planned meal d. the parents should not focus too heavily on what is consumed at each meal or snack because over the course of a day, the calorie intake will be fairly consistent if a variety of foods are offered - a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely Characteristics of the metabolic syndrome include all of the following, except: a. serum triglyceride greater than 150 mg/dl b. serum glucose greater than 110 mg/dl c. waist circumference greater than 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg - d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg - 135-85 mm hg The best initial nutrition intervention for a person with metabolic syndrome is: a. encouraging a 20% weight loss and at least 60 minutes per day of exercise b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a minimum of 30 min per day c. encouraging a 5-10% weight loss and implementing the dean ornish diet d. smoking cessation and adding medications to reduce lipids - b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a min of 30 min per day What type of diet is used to treat celiac disease? a. gluten free b. low fiber c. lactose free d. high fiber - a. gluten free What is the recommended initial nutrition intervention for diverticulitis? a. high fiber diet w/ adequate fluid and exercise b. high fat diet with moderate fiber c. chemically defined diet d. low fiber diet - d. low fiber diet - once inflammation decreases, fiber can be slowly added back to goal of 30g/day How much protein is recommended for a patient with cirrhosis but without evidence of encephalopathy to maintain positive nitrogen balance? a. 0.5-0.6 g/kg b. 0.8-1.0 g/kg c. 1.2-1.3 g/kg d. 1.5 g/kg - b. 0.8-1.0 g/kg - c is for negative nitrogen balance - d for when pt is stressed The nutritional priority for a pt with a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is: a. weight loss b. determination of a medication regimen then establishment of a meal plan c. establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to match the meal plan and exercise habits d. placement of an insulin pump - c. establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to the match the meal plan and exercise habits All of the following would be potential interventions for a patient with type 2 diabetes, except: a. weight loss b. increasing physical activity c. reducing calorie intake d. chromium supplementation - d. chromium supp A woman with T2DM who is overweight and takes an oral agent but otherwise has good blood glucose control asks you if she can include 1-2 glasses of wine with each night's dinner. The best response is: a. a 5 oz glass of wine may be consumed b. alcohol is not recommended for anyone with diabetes c. it is okay to have a glass or two of wine as long as she omits 2-carbs from her dinner d. she should decide for herself if she wants to drink wine, but if she does, she should take it on an empty stomach - a. a 5oz glass of wine may be consumed How many g of carb are in the following breakfast: 4 oz OJ, 2 slices whole wheat toast with 2 tsp magarine and 1 tbsp jelly, 1/2 cup oatmeal with 1/2 of a banana, and a small cup of black coffee. a. 50 g b. 60 g c. 90 g d. 120 g - c. 90g OJ = 15g toast = 15 + 15 = 30g jelly = 15 g oatmeal = 15g banana = 15g Intervention aimed to modify which of the following risk factors will reduce cardiovascular risk? a. age, cigarette smoking, obesity b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking c. diabetes, homocysteine, alcohol consumption d. family history, LDL cholesterol, physical activity - b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking Which of the following are examples of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids? a. palmitic acid and lauric acid b. eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid c. linoleic acid and linolenic acid d. arachidonic acid and oleic acid - b. EPA and DHA a - palm oil and saturated fat c - omega 6 and omega 3 d - polyunsaturated and monounsatured omega 9 All of the following are true about trans fatty acids, except: a. trans fats are created through hydrogenation, which is a process that helps to prevent polyunsaturated fats from becoming rancid b. trans fats are found in commercially prepared baked goods, fried foods, processed foods, and some margarines c. the food industry has begun to alter the manufacturing of many products to omit trans fats, and many restaurants have stopped using partially hydrogenated oils d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol - d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol A pt in the hospital recovering from a heart attack wants assistance with his menu selection. He is looking to increase fiber in his diet as he has learned that certain types of fiber more efficiently reduce cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods would be the most beneficial? a. oatmeal b. wheat bran c. carrots d. whole wheat bread - a. oatmeal - soluble fibers such as dried beans/peas, rice bran, citrus fruits, apples and strawberries reduce cholesterol - insoluble fiber such as whole wheat bread, cereals, wheat bran, and carrots do not Which of the following best describes the guidelines for the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet? a. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, calories from fat to less than 35% of total cals, w/ those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 300 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve and maintain a healthy body wt b. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, kcals from fat to less than 30% of total kcals, w/ those from sat fat making up less than 5%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight b. 0.6 g/kg A side effect of chemotherapy is mucositis and xerostomia. This can impact nutritional status because: a. weight loss can occur d/t nausea and vomiting b. food intake is reduced d/t constipation and abdominal pain c. anorexia, reduced food intake and weight loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness d. weight loss can occur d/t dysphagia - c. anorexia, reduced food intake and wt loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness - mucositis = inflammation of mucous membranes - xerostomia = abnormal dryness Possible nutrition interventions with a child with cancer who is not eating enough include all of the following, except: a. serve small meals and snacks throughout the day capitalizing on the times when the child is feeling hungry and wants to eat b. encourage liquids mostly between meals b/c drinking a lot of fluid w/ meals may make the child feel full c. let the child help make the food they will eat and have friends over to eat with the child d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far - d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far A 78 year-old man is recovering from a stroke. The speech language pathologist has a recommended a NDD level 2 diet for him. This consists of: a. no restrictions on consistency b. foods that are softer in texture but require more ability to chew c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability d. puree foods w/ pudding like consistency and minimal chewing ability is required - c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability You are working at the local health department initiating health promotion programs. Which of the following departments of the Department of Health and Human Services may provide guidance for program development? a. dietary reference intake b. healthy people 2020 c. NHANES d. dietary guidelines for americans - b. healthy people 2020 As a dietetic technician, you are planning menus for a nursing home. What tools are you likely to use during this process? a. dietary reference intake (DRI) b. recommended dietary allowances (RDA) c. tolerable upper limits (TUL) d. estimated average requirements - a. dietary reference intake (DRI) The main highlights of the 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans include all of the following, except: a. achieve and maintain a healthy body weight and incorporate at least 60 min of moderate exercise to help w/ weight management b. limit fat intake to 20-35% of total kcals, with less than 10% of fat intake from sat fat sources, and limit the intake of trans fatty acids c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases d. eat less than 2300 mg/day of sodium and consume 3 cups/day of low fat or fat-free dairy products - c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases - 2000 guidelines - 2005 guidelines are more specific Which of the following physical conditions would not be considered a nutritional risk factor? a. obesity b. stage IV decubitus ulcer c. cancer d. fractured femur - d. fractured femur While serving as a dietetic technician, you are tasked w/ visiting patients in a long-term care facility during mealtime in order to long-term observe daily food intake. Which of the following observations are you least likely to see? a. a pt w/ dementia consumes less than 50% of breakfast and lunch during a 2-day period b. a pt who is S/P major cardiac surgery is not able to effectively use utensils provided to self-feed c. a pt who is ordered supplemental beverages w/ meals in order to increase caloric intake does not drink the supplements during the 2 day observation d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet - d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet Documentation developed to facilitate the Nutrition Care Process (NCP) is called: a. ADIME b. SOAP c. PES d. DAR - a. ADIME assessment diagnosis intervention monitoring evaluation Which of the following is not a true statement about the pancreas? a. the pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon b. pancreatic enzymes are secreted when food reaches the stomach c. the pancreas is one of the organs affected by cystic fibrosis d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate - d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate All of the following statements are true about the Supplemental Nutritional Assistance Program (SNAP), except: a. to qualify, one's gross monthly income must fall at or below 130% of poverty levels or 100% of the poverty level for net monthly income b. applicants must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts c. children automatically qualify for free school breakfast and lunch programs if they are receiving benefits from SNAP d. this program was formerly called the Food Stamp program and includes nutrition education services - b. applications must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts Which of the following choices represent acceptable food selections for a mother who is using a WIC EBT for herself and her breastfeeding infant? a. fresh fruits and vegetables, white bread, whole milk tofu b. yogurt, cheese, peanut butter, orange drink c. white potatoes, rice milk, corn flakes, canned tuna d. oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans - d. oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans - breads must be whole wheat - juice must be 100% juice - no yogurt, while potatoes - bfast cereals have iron requirements and sucrose limits According to the Stages of change model, an individual who is trying to lose weight but continues to provide reasons as why it is difficult for him to make the changes fall in which of the following stages: a. contemplation b. preparation c. action d. relapse - a. contemplation A client you are working with to reduce her cholesterol frequently interrupts you during the session and makes comments, such as, "I am trying to make changes, but I have been under a lot of stress lately", or responds to questions with, "Yes, but.." is displaying what type of behavior? a. ready to change b. unsure about change c. resistance to change d. contemplating change - c. resistance to change Which of the following is least likely to occur during a counseling session if a client is ready to make dietary changes? a. mutual identification of potential changes that can be made b. preparing an action plan together c. identification of potential barriers d. telling the client what changes need to be made - d. telling the client what changes need to be made The motivational interviewing style used during nutritional counseling includes all of the following characteristics, except: a. empathy a. USDA b. FDA c. Food and Nutrition Service d. all local and state regulations if they are at least the equivalent of the federal regulations - c. food and nutrition service The type of federal regulation that defines bittersweet chocolate must contain at least 35% cocoa butter with a 30-35% fat content is called: a. standards of fill b. standards of identity c. standards of quality d. standards of labeling - b. standards of identity Which of the following is not essential information to consider during vendor selection? a. vender's ability to reliably meet contract specifications b. vender's emergency/disaster delivery policy c. attractiveness of the vender's website d. vender's credit/refund policies delivered products that do not meet specifications - c. attractiveness of the vender's website Which of the following grades of beef is the least desirable? a. prime b. choice c. select d. standard - d. standard All of the following are true about USDA grades for processed fruits and vegetable products, except: a. the grade standards are mandatory b. the grade standards are voluntary c. standards are defined in terms of attributes such as color, appearance, character, flavor, odor, etc d. grades may consist of US grade A, B, C or substandard - a. the grade standards are mandatory During inventory of a community hospital kitchen, a DTR notes that there are 2 cases of canned peaches. He decides to order 1 case of canned peaches. Which of the following is the most likely inventory scenario? a. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level for canned peaches must be 2 cases b. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases c. according to the mini-max system of inventory, the safety stock level must be 2 and the maximum inventory level must be 5 d. the DTR is basing the decision to purchase another case solely on instinct - b. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases Which of the following statements about the receiving process is false? a. the receiving area should be close to the delivery docks b. each delivery should be visually checked against the purchase order and the invoice c. frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection d. cases or crates should be randomly opened to verify contents - c. frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection You enter the dry food storage area and make a few observations. Which of the following would be the most concerning to you? a. the temp is 68 b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory c. bags of rice are stored on shelves 8" above the floor d. an open sack of flour is found in a covered and labeled plastic container - b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory - dry storage temp should be 50-70 You are completing inventory in the walk in refrigerator. Which of the following should be discarded? a. 2-day old leftover beef stew w/ a temp of 40 b. hard cooked eggs cooked 5 days ago w/ a temp of 39 c. tightly wrapped hard cheese that is 5 months old w/ a temp of 40 d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42 - d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42 - no higher than 38 for more than 2 days - hard cooked eggs can be kept at 40 for 7 days - tightly wrapped hard cheese kept at 40 for up to 6 months - leftover beef stew kept at 40 is good up to 4 days Which of the following terms means predicting the amount of food needed for a specific event? a. production b. forecasting c. purchasing d. food scheduling - b. forecasting Which of the following is not an advantage of standardized recipes? a. customers or pts can be assured that the menu item will not change each time it is served b. standardized recipes help to facilitate the forecasting, purchasing, and production processes c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required d. standardized recipes are necessary when using computerized systems b/c the reports use that format to communicate to various areas such as centralized ingredient area or purchasing - c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required - should be adjusted in advance If you are using the factor method to adjust a recipe that serves 8 to serve 50, which factor would you use to make the adjustments? a. 6.25 b. 6 c. 7 d. 0.16 - a. 6.25 50/8 = 6.25 Food is prepared in a hospital kitchen; cooked, portioned, and assembled on the tray line; and then served to patients is an example of what type of food service? a. cook/freeze b. cook/chill c. cook/hot hold d. heat/serve - c. cook/hot hold Which of the following laws apply to a hospital cafeteria renovation? a. the rehabilitation act b. the workforce investment act c. the civil service reform act d. the americans with disabilities act - d. the americans with disabilities act - law requires areas to be accessible to everyone An individual has become ill 6 hrs after eating at a salad bar buffet containing various cooked meats, cottage cheese, and potato salad. The symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal cramping. The microorganism most likely responsible for this outbreak is: a. clostridium botulinum b. staphylococcus aureus c. e. coli 0157:H7 d. campylobacter jejuni - b. staphylococcus aureus - cross contamination As the cafeteria manager, you notice that the hamburgers are not cooked to the proper temperature and are very rare on the inside. What are you most concerned about? a. salonella b. E. coli 0157:H7 c. bacillus cereus d. shigella - b. e. coli - found in raw beef, fruit/veg, soft cheeses, unpasterized dairy Which of the following groups are at the highest risk if listeriosis is contracted? a. infants b. children, aged 1-5 c. older adults d. pregnant women - d. pregnant women - results in stillbirth, premature delivery - found in raw foods, processed foods, hot dogs, deli meats, soft cheeses - symptoms: muscle aches, nausea, diarrhea Which of the following temperature ranges is known as the danger zone? a. 41-140 b. 35-145 c. 50-150 - safety, social, self esteem, self-actualization an employee attempts to provide input to his food service manager with regard to the workflow surrounding the prep area. The manager tells the employee that the necessary changes have already been instituted and there is no room for discussion on the matter. This is an example of what type of leadership style? a. democratic b. autocratic c. bureaucratic d. participative - b. autocratic - leaders makes a decisions Effective communication involves all of the following, except: a. oral b. written c. action or demonstration d. grapevine - d. grapevine Which of the following would not be an example of good merchandising? a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator b. polished, clean, and unbruised apples, oranges, pears, and bananas in a large wicker basket c. pre-plated fruit plates w/ interesting garnishes d. weekly-featured fresh fruits with recipes, creative presentation of the fruit, such as ka-bobs, or a special fruit dip - a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator The hospital cafeteria has added Pissa Hut pizza and Boar's Head deli meats to its employee menu. This is an example of: a. marketing b. branding c. promotion planning d. mark-up merchandising - b. branding Which of the following is not a JCAHO approved medical abbreviation? a. mg for milligram b. ml for milliliter c. Q.D. for every day or daily d. IV for intravenous - c. Q.D. for every day or daily As a newly hired DTR in charge of the cafeteria, you are asked to participate in a food safety program sponsored by the National Restaurant Association. The name of this program is: a. federal food safety program b. food safety certificate program c. iPura food safety d. ServSafe - d. servsafe Which of the following scenarios would not raise red flags to a food service manager? a. a food service worker has a broken washing machine and has not had time to go to the laundromat to clean his uniforms b. a food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion c. a food service employee making sandwiches in the deli is sneezing frequently and often forgets to sneeze into her elbow d. a cafeteria line server absentmindedly touches her head and face when no customers are being served - b. a food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion A health inspector visits the hospital food service operation where you are a food service supervisor. As the only supervisor on duty at the time, which of the following should you not do during the inspection? a. ask to see the inspector's credentials b. follow the inspector throughout the inspection, make notes of any violations found, and try to fix any small problems with the inspector is there c. sign the copy of the inspection d. refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection - d. refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection Which of the following is not addressed in the FDA Food Code? a. food service establishment flooring material characteristics b. specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens c. guideline for using ice to keep foods cool d. guideline for sinks used to hand washing - b. specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens - food code is scientifically based and applies to all public establishments The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) uses which of the following to assess patient care during a survey? a. tracer methodology b. chart review c. audits d. standards interpretation - a. tracer methodology - observes care, medications, and care planning - staff are reviewed - families could be interviewed The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) has implemented patient safety goals. All of the following are part of these goals, except: a. the use of 2 patient identifiers b. prevention of decubitus ulcers c. improvement in the safety of all medications d. improvement in the communication between healthcare providers - c. improvement in the safety of all medications Which of the following is the term that means comparing one's performance with the performance of another? a. outcomes managment b. benchmarking c. performance outcome d. resource measurement - b. benchmarking In the quality improvement process, which of the following is a difficult outcome to measure? a. the percentage of patients who has a nutrition screening completed within 24 hours of admission b. the number of patients who had a nutrition consult triggered because of low serum albumin on admission c. the percentage of patients who met 75% of their nutrient goals everyday d. the percentage of patients receiving nutrition support through the most appropriate route - c. the percentage of patients who met 75% of their nutrient goals everyday The Institute of Medicine has identified 6 Quality Aims. These include all of the following, except: a. patient safety and timelines b. patient-centered and equity c. effectiveness and efficiency d. competency and relevance - d. competency and relevance Which of the following is not a true statement about the American Dietetic Association's Standards of Professional Performance? a. the standards apply only to RDs b. the standards apply to all RDs and DTRs c. the standards were written based on specific training levels of RDs and DTRs as well as the level of responsibility of each d. the standards address 6 areas of professional behavior, including communication and quality of practice - a. the standards apply only to RDs The DTR at the local community hospital is busy with nutrition screening, assessment, documentation, and education. The RD position has been vacant for quite a few months with no immediate prospects. The Director of Nutrition and Food Services feels the DTR is doing a great job. Is there a need to be concerned? a. no, the important point is that the patients are receiving nutritional care b. yes, the DTR should be completing just the nutrition screens c. no, the state regulations do not specify the work must be done by RD d. yes, the DTR is working without an RD's supervision and is putting the hospital at risk for the consequences, such as fines or loss of license - d. yes, the DTR is working without an RD's supervision and is putting the hospital at risk for the consequences, such as fines or loss of license All of the following may be tasks performed by a DTR under the supervision of an RD, except: a. completing nutrition screens in the retirement home b. teaching nutrition education classes at WIC