REHS Exam Test With 100% Correct And Verified Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

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REHS Exam Test With 100% Correct And Verified Answers Question 1 An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called Choose one answer. a. an injunction b. an embargo c. an order to cease and desist d. a subpoena - Correct Answer-an embargo Question 2 Field observations are not always reported in total because Choose one answer. a. the reported forms are usually inadequate b. the significance of the data is not understood c. the field staff are instructed to limit observations d. the supervisor may insist on reinspection - Correct Answer-the significance of the data is not understood Question 3 In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to Choose one answer. a. obtain a warrant b. obtain a court order c. keep very accurate records d. check with other agencies - Correct Answer-keep very accurate records Question 4 Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating? Choose one answer. a. the average amount of time required for each inspection must be determined by the administrator of the sanitation program b. the quality of the inspections should be emphasized over quantity c. the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year d. it is not possible to receive a rating over 100 percent - Correct Answer-the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year Question 5 When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______. Choose one answer. a. criminal proceedings b. civil action c. immediately closing the facility d. posting a public notice - Correct Answer-civil action Question 6 Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected? Choose one answer. a. determining how the information will be used b. determining how often the information will be updated c. determining how much time will be needed for data collection d. determining how much time will be needed for the record-processing unit to enter the data - Correct Answer-determining how the information will be used Question 7 Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment? Choose one answer. a. a mandatory injunction b. revoking a license c. an injunction d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 15 Marks: 1 In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability? Choose one answer. a. consistent b. easy to obtain c. reproducible d. dependable - Correct Answer-easy to obtain Question 16 Marks: 1 The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to Choose one answer. a. adequate intelligence data on environmental trends showing the urgency for action b. stricter governmental control c. public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life d. none of the above - Correct Answer-public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life Question 17 Marks: 1 Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and Choose one answer. a. traditional b. acceptable to all parties involved c. enforceable d. rigid - Correct Answer-enforceable Question 18 Marks: 1 The terms "goals" and "objectives" are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as Choose one answer. a. a general direction b. the final purpose or aim c. the idea which is always realized d. the realistically attainable ends - Correct Answer-the realistically attainable ends Question 19 Marks: 1 Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility's problems. Choose one answer. a. local officials b. establishment owners c. the general public d. lawmakers - Correct Answer-establishment owners Question 20 Marks: 1 The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for Choose one answer. a. a search warrant b. an administrative warrant c. a seizure d. none of the above - Correct Answer-an administrative warrant Question 21 Marks: 1 Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and Choose one answer. a. on the basis of a general administrative plan b. whenever premises are vacant c. whenever premises are unlocked d. without regard to requests or demands that inspectors leave the premises - Correct Answer-on the basis of a general administrative plan Question 22 Marks: 1 The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as Choose one answer. a. clean air b. clean food service establishments c. decent housing d. all the above - Correct Answer-all the above Question 23 Marks: 1 A standard for dishwashing that states that the "total bacteria count should not exceed one hundred per utensil surface," is an example of what type of objective? Choose one answer. a. enforceable b. specification c. compliance d. performance - Correct Answer-performance Question 24 Marks: 1 A well developed ______ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical purposes. Choose one answer. a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. yearly - Correct Answer-daily Question 25 Marks: 1 b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 2 Marks: 1 Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 3 Marks: 1 It is possible to control noise Choose one answer. a. at the source b. in its path of transmission c. where it is received d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 4 Marks: 1 Fluorocarbons in the atmosphere are of concern because they may Choose one answer. a. react with the ozone in the upper atmosphere, thus reducing the total amount of ozone available b. cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth c. cause an increase in skin cancers and changes in our climate, animal, and plant life d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 5 Marks: 1 The terms "washout" and "rainout" both refer to a cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 6 Marks: 1 A ______ is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels. Choose one answer. a. noise level b. decibel c. hertz d. sound pressure level (SPL) - Correct Answer-decibel Question 7 Marks: 1 The frequency of a sound determines its pitch. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 8 Marks: 1 When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called Choose one answer. a. commensalism b. synergism c. magnification d. multiplication - Correct Answer-synergism Question 9 Marks: 1 Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a Choose one answer. a. nonsoluable vapor b. mist, solid, or vapor c. fog, mist, or dust d. fume, dust, or mist - Correct Answer-fog, mist, or dust Question 10 Marks: 1 Precipitation accomplishes an effective cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere by Choose one answer. a. accumulation of small particles in the formation of raindrops or snowflakes in clouds b. the washing out of scavenging of large particles by falling raindrops or snowflakes c. removal of gaseous pollutants by dissolution and absorption d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 11 Marks: 1 A deterioration in the ozone layer of the stratosphere can cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 12 Marks: 1 The unit of measurement most commonly used to measure loudness is called Choose one answer. a. hertz b. phon c. decibel d. none of the above - Correct Answer-phon Question 13 Marks: 1 Sound absorbing materials absorb low frequency sounds much more effectively than high frequency sounds. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 21 Marks: 1 For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between Choose one answer. a. loudness and intensity b. frequency and intensity c. pitch and loudness d. pressure and pitch - Correct Answer-loudness and intensity Question 22 Marks: 1 ______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation. Choose one answer. a. sulfides b. fluorides c. nitrates d. chlorides - Correct Answer-fluorides Question 23 Marks: 1 Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day's time an average of Choose one answer. a. 3 to 4 pounds of air b. 35 pounds of air c. 37 pounds of air d. 1,600 ft3 of air - Correct Answer-35 pounds of air Question 24 Marks: 1 Stability of the atmosphere Choose one answer. a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile c. refers to the inertness of its composition d. a and b above - Correct Answer-a and b above Question 25 Marks: 1 In what part of the earth's atmosphere are photochemical oxidants produced? Choose one answer. a. lithosphere b. stratosphere c. troposphere d. hydrosphere - Correct Answer-troposphere Question 26 Marks: 1 Sources of pollutants can generally be classified as Choose one answer. a. line sources b. area sources c. point sources d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 27 Marks: 1 Which of the following items are not natural topographic features? Choose one answer. a. rivers b. canals c. foliages d. hills - Correct Answer-canals Question 28 Marks: 1 A particle count of above ______ is said to be representative of an urban area Choose one answer. a. 10,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 200,000 - Correct Answer-50,000 Question 29 Marks: 1 Street dust would be considered what type of pollution? Choose one answer. a. paradox pollutant b. fugitive pollutant c. uncontrolled pollutant d. laps rate - Correct Answer-fugitive pollutant Question 30 Marks: 1 Ozone can be formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 31 Marks: 1 What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants? Choose one answer. a. PAN b. sulfur dioxide c. industries processing hazardous wastes b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 40 Marks: 1 The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is Choose one answer. a. referred to as episodic filtration b. referred to as explosive stockpiling and is potentially a very hazardous situation if left unchecked c. directly proportional to wind speed d. inversely proportional to wind speed - Correct Answer-inversely proportional to wind speed Question 41 Marks: 1 A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to Choose one answer. a. a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber b. vibrations from machines that require rubber mountings or resilient pads c. the high mineral content of flowing water d. low sound transmission loss of plumbing materials - Correct Answer-a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber Question 42 Marks: 1 In the United States, the Ringlemann smoke chart consists of how many rectangular charts? Choose one answer. a. three b. four c. five d. six - Correct Answer-four Question 43 Marks: 1 A primary pollutant is one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 44 Marks: 1 Individuals react differently to noise depending on age, sex, and socioeconomic background. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 45 Marks: 1 Air pollution is the presence of ______ in the outside air in amounts that are injurious or detrimental to humans, animals, plants, or property. Choose one answer. a. solids b. gases c. liquids d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 46 Marks: 1 Stack samples must be collected at the same speed of flow that gases normally pass through the stack. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 47 Marks: 1 The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation. Choose one answer. a. sound pressure b. frequency c. intensity d. speed - Correct Answer-intensity Question 48 Marks: 1 The normal change in temperature with altitude is Choose one answer. a. noted as an increase due to the increased closeness and lack of filtering of sunlight b. noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air c. noted as a decrease due to black-body emission into space, coupled with the lessening of insulation provided by other air d. noted as an increase due to the rising of warm air - Correct Answer-noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air Question 49 Marks: 1 The Safe Alternatives Policy program Choose one answer. a. specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances b. lists unacceptable alternatives to ozone-depleting substances c. considers only ozone depletion potential d. is based on global warming potential - Correct Answer-specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances Question 50 Marks: 1 Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except Choose one answer. a. rubber b. textiles a. topography b. meteorology c. micrometeorology d. none of the above - Correct Answer-meteorology Question 59 Marks: 1 The effects of air pollution are influenced by Choose one answer. a. wind speed, and direction b. sunlight c. precipitation d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 60 Marks: 1 Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution? Choose one answer. a. metal smelters b. coal and oil burning power plants c. refineries d. electrical substations - Correct Answer-electrical substations Question 61 Marks: 1 In general terms, it is safe to assume that any two identical sound levels will have the effect of increasing the overall level by 10 dB. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 62 Marks: 1 Halon-1301 is used primarily in ______. Choose one answer. a. portable fire suppression systems b. fixed fire suppression systems c. precision cleaning processes d. plastic foam blowing - Correct Answer-fixed fire suppression systems Question 63 Marks: 1 Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 64 Marks: 1 The major factors related to hearing loss are Choose one answer. a. time duration of exposure and repeated impact b. intensity of sound waves c. frequency content of sound d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 65 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a malodorous gas? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrogen sulfide c. carbon monoxide d. phenol - Correct Answer-carbon monoxide Question 66 Marks: 1 Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned. Choose one answer. a. nitrogen oxide b. sulfur dioxide c. nitrogen dioxide d. carbon monoxide - Correct Answer-sulfur dioxide Question 67 Marks: 1 The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on Choose one answer. a. the compressibility of the medium b. the density of the medium c. the compressibility and density of the medium d. none of the above - Correct Answer-the compressibility and density of the medium Question 68 Marks: 1 ______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer. Choose one answer. a. CFCs b. methyl bromide c. halon d. HCFCs - Correct Answer-HCFCs Question 69 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a primary pollutant? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrocarbon Question 8 Marks: 1 A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is Choose one answer. a. dengue fever b. psittacosis c. tularemia d. hurine typhus - Correct Answer-psittacosis Question 9 Marks: 1 Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods that have been properly handled and then through appropriate time temperature control of the finished product. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 10 Marks: 1 An analysis by Dever indicated that environmental factors were considered to be the cause of 49% of all deaths due to accidents, 20% of the influenza and pneumonia deaths, 41% of the homicides, and 15% of the deaths due to birth injuries and other diseases peculiar to early infancy. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 11 Marks: 1 Between 26 B.C. and 395 A.D., the average life expectancy was Choose one answer. a. 73 years b. 36 years c. 45 years d. 24 years - Correct Answer-24 years Question 12 Marks: 1 The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed Choose one answer. a. detoxification b. deodorization c. destabilization d. disinfection - Correct Answer-disinfection Question 13 Marks: 1 House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 14 Marks: 1 Tularemia is often transmitted to humans by handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 15 Marks: 1 Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 16 Marks: 1 Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats, and domestic animals. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 17 Marks: 1 Marsh miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 18 Marks: 1 Schistosomiasis is Choose one answer. a. a water contact disease b. a foodborne disease c. a milkborne disease d. an airborne disease - Correct Answer-a water contact disease Question 19 Marks: 1 Rats are one of the seven animals most likely to carry rabies. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 20 Marks: 1 The most effective means of control of bats is to "build them out." Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 29 Marks: 1 The prevention of respiratory diseases in "vulnerable" individuals is to Choose one answer. a. protect people from the source b. eliminate routes of transmission c. reduce presence of susceptible individuals d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 30 Marks: 1 Life expectancy is a measure of health progress, morbidity levels, and the quality of life. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 31 Marks: 1 Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 32 Marks: 1 A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of Choose one answer. a. chemical poisoning b. schistosomiasis c. salmonellosis d. shigella - Correct Answer-chemical poisoning Question 33 Marks: 1 It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 34 Marks: 1 Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by Choose one answer. a. flies b. spiders c. cockroaches d. ticks - Correct Answer-ticks Question 35 Marks: 1 The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except Choose one answer. a. use of antibiotics b. control of disease source c. mode of transmission d. susceptibility - Correct Answer-use of antibiotics Question 36 Marks: 1 The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is Choose one answer. a. entomology b. biology c. endocrinology d. epidemiology - Correct Answer-epidemiology Question 37 Marks: 1 The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the Choose one answer. a. lag time b. susceptible period c. incubation period d. primary period - Correct Answer-incubation period Question 38 Marks: 1 The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the toilet tanks in older hotels. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 39 Marks: 1 A vaccinated dog or cat bitten by or exposed to a rabid animal should be confined for 4 months or destroyed. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 40 Marks: 1 Observations and cost-effective analyses have shown that good housing and sanitation are far more effective measures for the control of cholera, typhoid, and similar diseases than is immunization. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 1 Marks: 1 Question 8 Marks: 1 Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by Choose one answer. a. donations b. state funds c. revenue bonds and general obligation bonds d. loans - Correct Answer-revenue bonds and general obligation bonds Question 9 Marks: 1 Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area? Choose one answer. a. fire protection b. lower taxes c. better schools d. improved sanitary conditions - Correct Answer-lower taxes Question 10 Marks: 1 An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is Choose one answer. a. an environmental evaluation dealing with fish b. a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible c. a public document of environmental concern dealing with acid rain only d. an environmental evaluation dealing with air pollution control - Correct Answer-a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible Question 11 Marks: 1 Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan. Choose one answer. a. national b. regional c. metropolitan d. county - Correct Answer-regional Question 12 Marks: 1 The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to Choose one answer. a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment c. encourage greater understanding of the environment d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 13 Marks: 1 What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning? Choose one answer. a. the individual b. the village c. the county d. the city - Correct Answer-the county Question 14 Marks: 1 The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. a statement of goals and objectives b. public information and community action c. surrounding area politics d. basic studies, mapping, and data analysis - Correct Answer-surrounding area politics Question 15 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey? Choose one answer. a. careful investigation of the property b. former plot plans c. assistance by a cooperative neighbor d. water supply source that is fast moving - Correct Answer-water supply source that is fast moving Question 16 Marks: 1 For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except Choose one answer. a. the collection and disposal of 548 to 730 tons of solid waste per year b. an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year c. 10.0 or more acres of land for schools, parks, and play areas d. two to four additional hospital beds and three nursing home beds - Correct Answer- an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year Question 17 Marks: 1 ______ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits. Choose one answer. a. development of local business b. rezoning c. industry d. subdividing - Correct Answer-industry Question 18 Marks: 1 When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, which of the following steps would generally not be included? Choose one answer. a. an analysis of the future state b. an analysis of the current state c. a budget process d. none of the above - Correct Answer-none of the above Question 26 Marks: 1 When a suitable site is being selected for a particular purpose, which of the following must be known before any property is investigated? Choose one answer. a. the type of facility that is to be maintained b. the desired use of the facility c. the type functions, activities, and programs to be held d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 27 Marks: 1 Comprehensive community planning includes which of the following steps? Choose one answer. a. public information and involvement b. statement of goals c. basic studies d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 28 Marks: 1 The agency that developed guidelines to assist urban areas and cities assess the environmental impact of housing and urban development was Choose one answer. a. the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency b. the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. the U.S. Department of Housing and Construction d. the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development - Correct Answer-the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Question 29 Marks: 1 An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment. Choose one answer. a. EPA b. NEPA c. HUD d. USDA - Correct Answer-NEPA Question 30 Marks: 1 Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should Choose one answer. a. develop zoning regulations b. develop higher taxes on community organizations c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services d. a and c above - Correct Answer-a and c above Question 31 Marks: 1 Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is Choose one answer. a. 3.0 b. 0.03 c. 0.3 d. 0.003 - Correct Answer-0.03 Question 32 Marks: 1 A planning board's enforcement tools include Choose one answer. a. subdivision regulations b. zoning codes c. guidance of improvement programs d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 33 Marks: 1 The EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform is Choose one answer. a. 200 colonies per 100 ml b. 300 colonies per 100 ml c. 100 colonies per 100 ml d. 400 colonies per 100 ml - Correct Answer-200 colonies per 100 ml Question 34 Marks: 1 The generally accepted method(s) of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is (are) Choose one answer. a. comprehensive land-use planning b. education c. effective regulation d. all of the above - Correct Answer-comprehensive land-use planning Question 35 Marks: 1 In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains all the following except Choose one answer. a. transportation systems Question 43 Marks: 1 Every 1,000 new people in a community will require 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 44 Marks: 1 Financing for municipal capital improvements is generally done by revenue bonds or general obligation bonds. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 45 Marks: 1 A project study is another term for Acomprehensive regional planning.@ Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 46 Marks: 1 In the quality of life index, the economic environment includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. income b. work satisfaction c. economic security d. material quality - Correct Answer-material quality Question 47 Marks: 1 General overall policy planning includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. aspirations and realistic objectives b. detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans c. identification of goals d. establishment of functional priorities - Correct Answer-detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans Question 48 Marks: 1 Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 49 Marks: 1 Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems Choose one answer. a. comply with Federal laws only in subdivisions of 25 lots or less b. can never supersede state or federal laws by the use of title stipulation c. must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing d. none of the above - Correct Answer-must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing Question 50 Marks: 1 The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 made it the responsibility of the Federal Government to use all practical means to coordinate ______ to encourage harmony between man and his/her environment. Choose one answer. a. federal plans b. federal functions c. federal programs d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 51 Marks: 1 Due to political boundaries, the costs of implementing services for community functions are best handled by Choose one answer. a. local governments b. state governments c. metropolitan regions d. federal governments - Correct Answer-metropolitan regions Question 52 Marks: 1 The nitrogen dioxide below ______ ppm does not pose a health problem. Choose one answer. a. 0.15 b. 0.05 c. 0.50 d. 0.005 - Correct Answer-0.05 Question 53 Marks: 1 ______ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine "the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment." Choose one answer. a. Sadesky b. Miller c. Leopold d. Randall - Correct Answer-Leopold Question 54 Marks: 1 The selection of a site for a public building often requires improvements. An undesirable feature that can often be remediated for public health reasons concerns is Choose one answer. a. public powers levy higher taxes b. public powers regulate development c. broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided d. none of the above - Correct Answer-broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided Question 62 Marks: 1 An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements? Choose one answer. a. purpose and scope b. administration and financing c. the comprehensive regional plan d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 63 Marks: 1 A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness. Choose one answer. a. sanitary code b. zoning ordinance c. building code d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 64 Marks: 1 Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by Choose one answer. a. Hornback b. Smith c. Lewis d. Peale - Correct Answer-Hornback Question 65 Marks: 1 A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of what types of wastes? Choose one answer. a. garbage disposal b. paper products c. solid wastes d. radioactive wastes - Correct Answer-solid wastes Question 66 Marks: 1 Stakeholder Focused Interactive Strategic planning is designed to locate common ground held by all stakeholders in the planning process. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 67 Marks: 1 The topography of a subdivision lot usually determines the location of the well with respect to the sewage disposal system. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 68 Marks: 1 The environmental impact statement Choose one answer. a. is required by law b. is a written description of legislative proposals and actions affecting the quality of the human environment c. is not required to meet standards in H.B. Sec. 102 (2) C d. must be included in all proposed programs and concepts, plans, and construction projects - Correct Answer-is a written description of legislative proposals and actions affecting the quality of the human environment Question 69 Marks: 1 Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies ensures that public health and welfare are protected? Choose one answer. a. regulatory responsibilities b. community planning c. plan preparation d. plan implementation - Correct Answer-regulatory responsibilities Question 70 Marks: 1 General obligation bonds Choose one answer. a. guarantee payment by the municipality through a government tax b. are paid back by all the people in the community c. may be used to pay off a revenue-producing capital improvement d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 71 Marks: 1 The assessment of stakeholders values, interests, and expectations can be used to evaluate the probability of success of a strategic plan. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 72 Marks: 1 c. 8 degrees d. 4 percent - Correct Answer-8 percent Question 79 Marks: 1 The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed Choose one answer. a. 50 NTU b. 25 NTU c. 10 NTU d. 30 NTU - Correct Answer-25 NTU Question 80 Marks: 1 If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 ml of water, it is placed in which environmental impact category? Choose one answer. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 - Correct Answer-2 Question 1 Marks: 1 Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination; therefore, a physical exam should be required Choose one answer. a. every 3 years b. every 2 years c. every year d. none of the above - Correct Answer-none of the above Question 2 Marks: 1 For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be cooked to Choose one answer. a. 155 degrees F for 15 seconds b. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds c. 165 degrees F for 15 seconds d. 135 degrees F for 15 seconds - Correct Answer-155 degrees F for 15 seconds Question 3 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states? Choose one answer. a. Washington and Illinois b. Minnesota and Kentucky c. Texas and Iowa d. Oregon and Michigan - Correct Answer-Oregon and Michigan Question 4 Marks: 1 A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test Choose one answer. a. is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk b. encourages straining of the milk at the farm rather than cleaning milking procedures c. is an indication of high sediment content from the cow's udder d. reveals unsanitary practices during the milking process - Correct Answer-is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk Question 5 Marks: 1 A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)? Choose one answer. a. mastitis b. brucellosis c. tuberculosis d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 6 Marks: 1 When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration. Choose one answer. a. 120 degrees F, 25 mg/l b. 75 degrees F, 75 mg/l c. 55 degrees F, 85 mg/l d. Cannot be determined without pH of the solution - Correct Answer-120 degrees F, 25 mg/l Question 7 Marks: 1 An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is Choose one answer. a. carpet b. linoleum c. quarry tile d. asphalt tile - Correct Answer-quarry tile Question 8 Marks: 1 What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine? Choose one answer. a. 10 seconds b. 25 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 15 seconds - Correct Answer-15 seconds d. immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water - Correct Answer-immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water Question 16 Marks: 1 In order to protect against salmonellae growth in time/temperature control for safety / potentially hazardous food, the recommended temperature for storage is Choose one answer. a. 45 degrees F b. 41 degrees F c. 50 degrees F d. 38 degrees F - Correct Answer-41 degrees F Question 17 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become Choose one answer. a. less of a problem due to antibiotics b. a particular problem for produces and users of ground beef c. a minor threat to children d. not a threat to the elderly - Correct Answer-a particular problem for produces and users of ground beef Question 18 Marks: 1 Strong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because Choose one answer. a. shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever b. seafood is in popular demand c. the shellfish population is decreasing due to water pollution d. a great number of shellfish are bought and sold illegally - Correct Answer-shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever Question 19 Marks: 1 Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by Choose one answer. a. FDA b. USDA c. NSSP d. CDC - Correct Answer-NSSP Question 20 Marks: 1 The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is Choose one answer. a. 20 ppb b. 7 ppb c. 1.0 ppb d. 0.5 ppb - Correct Answer-0.5 ppb Question 21 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the Choose one answer. a. intestines of man and animals b. water c. soil d. air - Correct Answer-intestines of man and animals Question 22 Marks: 1 Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by Choose one answer. a. mental stress b. a virus c. an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 d. listeriosis - Correct Answer-an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 Question 23 Marks: 1 The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to Choose one answer. a. prevent foodborne illnesses b. ensure restaurant safety c. reduce liability d. increase consumer confidence - Correct Answer-prevent foodborne illnesses Question 24 Marks: 1 Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food? Choose one answer. a. high or low temperatures b. reduced moisture c. salt d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 25 Marks: 1 Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish. Choose one answer. a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 - Correct Answer-230 c. 1/2 to 1 inch per foot d. 3/4 to 1 1/2 inch per foot - Correct Answer-1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot Question 33 Marks: 1 Routine and frequent inspections of food-processing and food-service establishments alone does not ensure that adequate levels of sanitation will be met. Inspections must be supplemented with Choose one answer. a. quality control b. education c. management supervision d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 34 Marks: 1 Salty flavors in milk may be due to the use of milk from cows infected with Choose one answer. a. tuberculosis b. mastitis c. brucellosis d. hepatitis - Correct Answer-mastitis Question 35 Marks: 1 The racks in refrigerators or walk-in coolers must be ______ to allow circulation of cold air. Choose one answer. a. slotted b. solid c. spaced equal distances apart d. none of the above - Correct Answer-slotted Question 36 Marks: 1 If the fat content of milk increases by ten percent or more, the pasteurizer temperature must be increase by Choose one answer. a. 15 degrees F b. 25 degrees F c. 5 degrees F d. 10 degrees F - Correct Answer-5 degrees F Question 37 Marks: 1 The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is Choose one answer. a. wash, rinse, air-dry b. pre-soaking, wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, towel dry c. steam-cleaning at a pressure of 170 degrees F d. wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry - Correct Answer-wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry Question 38 Marks: 1 A certified industry inspection is an inspection Choose one answer. a. conducted by a certified local governmental unit b. conducted by a certified state official c. conducted by a certified member of the industry d. conducted by a federal agency - Correct Answer-conducted by a certified member of the industry Question 39 Marks: 1 An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of Choose one answer. a. wallboard b. marble c. concrete d. clay tile - Correct Answer-wallboard Question 40 Marks: 1 Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are Choose one answer. a. oysters b. crabs c. shrimp d. lobsters - Correct Answer-oysters Question 41 Marks: 1 Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria: Choose one answer. a. Shigella b. Pseudomonas c. Escherichia coli d. Enterobacter aerogenes - Correct Answer-Escherichia coli Question 42 Marks: 1 Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment? Choose one answer. a. phenols b. copper c. zinc d. none of the above - Correct Answer-none of the above d. none of the above - Correct Answer-212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds Question 50 Marks: 1 The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is Choose one answer. a. exothermal extraction b. the specific heat c. the coolant factor d. important to know - Correct Answer-the specific heat Question 51 Marks: 1 A mold control program should include all of the following factors except Choose one answer. a. spraying with a 5000 mg/1 sodium hypochlorite solution b. spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound c. re-spraying the entire section with 400 to 500 mg/1 of quaternary solution every week or two d. cleaning the affected area with an alkaline detergent - Correct Answer-spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound Question 52 Marks: 1 When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by Choose one answer. a. methylene blue reduction test b. resazurin test c. both a and b above d. none of the above - Correct Answer-both a and b above Question 53 Marks: 1 Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of Choose one answer. a. 40 degrees F to 58 degrees F b. 60 degrees F to 72 degrees F c. 70 degrees F to 98 degrees F d. 46 degrees F to 118 degrees F - Correct Answer-70 degrees F to 98 degrees F Question 54 Marks: 1 Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F. Choose one answer. a. 45 degrees F b. 42 degrees F c. 47 degrees F d. 32 degrees F - Correct Answer-45 degrees F Question 55 Marks: 1 Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in Choose one answer. a. 10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F b. 10 to 15 minutes at 80 degrees F c. 1 minute at 250 degrees F d. 10 to 15 minutes at 112 degrees F - Correct Answer-10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F Question 56 Marks: 1 Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than ______ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food. Choose one answer. a. 3 inches b. 2 inches c. 5 inches d. 8 inches - Correct Answer-3 inches Question 57 Marks: 1 In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of ______ degrees. Choose one answer. a. 30 b. 20 c. 80 d. 40 - Correct Answer-30 Question 58 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish? Choose one answer. a. off-odor b. elastic flesh c. gray or greenish gills d. sunken eyes - Correct Answer-elastic flesh Question 59 Marks: 1 The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be Choose one answer. a. 180 degrees F b. 160 degrees F c. 175 degrees F d. 210 degrees F - Correct Answer-180 degrees F Question 60 Marks: 1 Which bacteria can survive cooking to appropriate levels? Choose one answer. a. Salmonella b. Brucella sp. c. Shigella d. Clostridium perfringens - Correct Answer-... Question 68 Marks: 1 Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing? Choose one answer. a. calcium and silica b. iron and magnesium carbonates c. aluminum oxide and manganese d. all the above - Correct Answer-all the above Marks for this submission: 0/1. Question 69 Marks: 1 Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment. Choose one answer. a. cholera b. gastroenteritis c. typhoid fever d. dysentery - Correct Answer-typhoid fever Question 70 Marks: 1 Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following? Choose one answer. a. toxins b. anthrax spores c. pesticides d. any of the above - Correct Answer-any of the above Question 71 Marks: 1 Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on Choose one answer. a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams - Correct Answer-hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations Question 72 Marks: 1 Proper facility lighting is essential for Choose one answer. a. cleanliness b. accident prevention c. fatigue reduction d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 73 Marks: 1 E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by Choose one answer. a. direct contact b. under-cooked food c. a and b d. none of the above - Correct Answer-. a and b Question 74 Marks: 1 Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking. Choose one answer. a. the Pacific Coast b. England c. Europe d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 75 Marks: 1 Quality control of milk includes which of the following? Choose one answer. a. transportation, herd health b. milk handling, processing c. distribution, refrigeration d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 76 Marks: 1 Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center. Choose one answer. a. air bubbles b. discoloration c. crystallization d. separation of the core section - Correct Answer-discoloration Question 77 Marks: 1 Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas? Choose one answer. a. increase air temperature b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 5 Marks: 1 Domestic wastewater which passes through a sewer system to a POTW is not considered to be a ______. Choose one answer. a. solid waste b. hazardous waste c. sewer waste d. both a and b - Correct Answer-both a and b Question 6 Marks: 1 Heating of air, gas, or gas mixture up to 9032 degrees F for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called Choose one answer. a. plasma technology b. rotary kiln incineration c. fuel blending d. all of the above - Correct Answer-plasma technology Question 7 Marks: 1 The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill. Choose one answer. a. 99.99 percent b. 95.00 percent c. 99.9999 percent d. 0.05 percent - Correct Answer-99.9999 percent Question 8 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes include Choose one answer. a. industrial discharges permitted under the FWPCA b. agricultural wastes c. permitted irrigational waters d. none of the above - Correct Answer-none of the above Question 9 Marks: 1 By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes. Choose one answer. a. solid b. natural c. gray d. none of the above - Correct Answer-solid Question 10 Marks: 1 Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 11 Marks: 1 Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______. Choose one answer. a. chlorinated hydrocarbons b. acids c. bases d. all of the above - Correct Answer-chlorinated hydrocarbons Question 12 Marks: 1 A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 13 Marks: 1 Household hazardous waste is not exempt from DOT regulations when shipped to a disposal facility. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 14 Marks: 1 The state or federal regulatory agency with jurisdiction should never be consulted when conducting a suitability audit of a waste disposal company. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 15 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes include ______ substances. Choose one answer. a. chemical b. biological c. flammable d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 16 Marks: 1 A permanent facility for collecting and storing household waste should be located away from residential areas and places of public gathering. d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 24 Marks: 1 Examples of thermal destruction processes in addition to incineration are Choose one answer. a. cement kiln b. chemical treatment c. separation d. none of the above - Correct Answer-cement kiln Question 25 Marks: 1 Support of household hazardous waste management is an avenue for industries to paint themselves as community leaders and defenders of the environment. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 26 Marks: 1 The regulatory level for total cresol under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is Choose one answer. a. 600 mg/l b. 400 mg/l c. 200 mg/l d. 100 mg/l - Correct Answer-200 mg/l Question 27 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator? Choose one answer. a. rotary kiln b. fixed hearth c. fluidized bed d. fuel blending - Correct Answer-fuel blending Question 28 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes generated by vehicle maintenance shops include Choose one answer. a. heavy metal paint wastes b. ignitable wastes c. spent solvents d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 29 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes may be in a ______ form. Choose one answer. a. solid b. liquid c. sludge d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 30 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not included in hazardous waste regulations? Choose one answer. a. domestic sewage b. flammable liquids c. corrosive liquids d. none of the above - Correct Answer-domestic sewage Question 1 Marks: 1 In many cases, x-ray beams or fluoroscopes will extend past the fluoroscopic screen and protective lead, thereby exposing the operator to the direct beam. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 2 Marks: 1 It takes ______ half-lives to reduce the radioactivity of a radionuclide to about 1% of what it was when first measured. Choose one answer. a. 200 b. 125 c. 75 d. 7 - Correct Answer-7 Question 3 Marks: 1 In practice, exposure to all ionizing radiation is controlled by the use of shields of lead. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 4 Marks: 1 A filter of 2 mm of aluminum will absorb the soft, or less penetrating, radiation. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 5 Marks: 1 Neutrons are charged, high-energy particles. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False c. The NRC d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 14 Marks: 1 The term "rad" means Choose one answer. a. required administered dose b. radiation admitted dose c. roentgen absorbed dose d. radiation absorbed dose - Correct Answer-radiation absorbed dose Question 15 Marks: 1 A CT scanner is a combination computer and x-ray machine. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 16 Marks: 1 A state radiation protection program may involve control of Choose one answer. a. x-ray units and radioactive materials b. waste disposal c. environmental monitoring and surveillance d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 17 Marks: 1 Medical uses can present a hazard to technicians, patients, and others through the improper handling of radionuclides and contaminated wastes. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 18 Marks: 1 Alpha particles have a negative electric charge. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 19 Marks: 1 "R" is the symbol used for the term "roentgen". Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 20 Marks: 1 Which of the following are sources of radiation? Choose one answer. a. natural background b. radioactive fallout from nuclear testing or use of nuclear devices c. radiation from medical diagnosis and treatment, industrial, or other man-made sources d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 21 Marks: 1 The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in Choose one answer. a. electron volts b. thousands of electron volts c. millions of electron volts d. all of the above - Correct Answer-all of the above Question 22 Marks: 1 Medical personnel involved in radium therapy can become unnecessarily exposed during handling of the source needle. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 23 Marks: 1 The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in Choose one answer. a. rems b. rods c. curies d. roentgens - Correct Answer-curies Question 24 Marks: 1 Large doses of radiation can be applied to local areas, as in therapy, with little danger. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-True Question 25 Marks: 1 Fluoroscopy exams should be done before x-rays. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-False Question 26 Marks: 1 Background radiation cannot be eliminated. Choose one answer.