Reviewed NEHA RS/REHS Exam 2024 Revamp Main Cards With 100% Correct And Verified Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

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Reviewed NEHA RS/REHS Exam 2024 Revamp Main Cards With 100% Correct And Verified Answers Question 1 An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called Choose one answer. a. an injunction b. an embargo c. an order to cease and desist d. a subpoena an embargo Question 2 Field observations are not always reported in total because Choose one answer. a. the reported forms are usually inadequate b. the significance of the data is not understood c. the field staff are instructed to limit observations d. the supervisor may insist on reinspection the significance of the data is not understood Brainpower Read More Question 3 In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to Choose one answer. a. obtain a warrant b. obtain a court order c. keep very accurate records d. check with other agencies keep very accurate records Question 4 Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating? Choose one answer. a. the average amount of time required for each inspection must be determined by the administrator of the sanitation program b. the quality of the inspections should be emphasized over quantity c. the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year d. it is not possible to receive a rating over 100 percent the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year Question 5 When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______. Choose one answer. a. criminal proceedings b. civil action c. immediately closing the facility d. posting a public notice civil action Question 6 Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected? Choose one answer. a. determining how the information will be used b. determining how often the information will be updated c. determining how much time will be needed for data collection d. determining how much time will be needed for the record-processing unit to enter the data determining how the information will be used health unit is responsible b. refer to the number of premises where an annual, routine, or special inspection was made for the first time during the year c. show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities d. none of the above show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities Question 14 Marks: 1 Which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action? Choose one answer. a. reinspection b. routine c. complete d. initial reinspection Question 15 Marks: 1 In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability? Choose one answer. a. consistent b. easy to obtain c. reproducible d. dependable easy to obtain Question 16 Marks: 1 The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to Choose one answer. a. adequate intelligence data on environmental trends showing the urgency for action b. stricter governmental control c. public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life d. none of the above public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life Question 17 Marks: 1 Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and Choose one answer. a. traditional b. acceptable to all parties involved c. enforceable d. rigid enforceable Question 18 Marks: 1 The terms "goals" and "objectives" are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as Choose one answer. a. a general direction b. the final purpose or aim c. the idea which is always realized d. the realistically attainable ends the realistically attainable ends Question 19 Marks: 1 Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility's problems. Choose one answer. a. local officials b. establishment owners c. the general public d. lawmakers establishment owners Question 20 Marks: 1 The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for Choose one answer. a. a search warrant b. an administrative warrant c. a seizure d. none of the above an administrative warrant Question 21 Marks: 1 Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and Choose one answer. a. on the basis of a general administrative plan b. whenever premises are vacant c. whenever premises are unlocked d. without regard to requests or demands that inspectors leave the premises on the basis of a general administrative plan Question 22 Marks: 1 The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as Choose one answer. b. a State standard is easier to enforce than a Federal standard c. a performance standard is easier to enforce than a specification-type standard d. a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard Question 29 Marks: 1 The effectiveness of an inspection program depends on technical competence and the ______ of regulatory staff. Choose one answer. a. academic degrees b. physical qualifications c. genealogy d. attitude attitude Question 30 Marks: 1 A program plan should be developed for each of the program activities. This plan should list which of the following criteria for each activity? Choose one answer. a. work load and methods to meet program objectives and financing b. resource requirements, goals and objectives c. need for the program, evaluation, and law d. all the above all the above Question 1 Marks: 1 The precise levels at which specific air pollutants become a health hazard are relatively easy to establish by existing surveillance systems. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 2 Marks: 1 Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 3 Marks: 1 It is possible to control noise Choose one answer. a. at the source b. in its path of transmission c. where it is received d. all of the above all of the above Question 4 Marks: 1 Fluorocarbons in the atmosphere are of concern because they may Choose one answer. a. react with the ozone in the upper atmosphere, thus reducing the total amount of ozone available b. cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth c. cause an increase in skin cancers and changes in our climate, animal, and plant life d. all of the above all of the above Question 5 Marks: 1 The terms "washout" and "rainout" both refer to a cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 6 Marks: 1 A ______ is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels. Choose one answer. a. noise level b. decibel c. hertz d. sound pressure level (SPL) decibel Question 7 Marks: 1 The frequency of a sound determines its pitch. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 8 Marks: 1 When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called Choose one answer. a. commensalism b. synergism c. magnification d. multiplication b. 30 c. 100 d. 1000 100 Question 16 Marks: 1 The Montreal Protocol categorizes ______ and ______ in two classes based on their ozone-depiction potential. Choose one answer. a. CO2 and PAN b. CFCs and halons c. Ozone depleting greenhouse chemicals d. SO2 and CO CO2 and PAN Question 17 Marks: 1 Glazing, silvering, or bronzing on the underside of a leaf is evidence that injury has occurred by Choose one answer. a. ozone b. peroxyacyl nitrates c. sulfur dioxide d. hydrogen fluoride peroxyacyl nitrates Question 18 Marks: 1 The meteorological elements that have the most direct and significant effects on the distribution of air pollutants are Choose one answer. a. solar radiation b. wind speed and direction c. precipitation and stability d. all of the above all of the above Question 19 Marks: 1 Turbulence is the wind characteristic that is Choose one answer. a. most predictable b. the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants c. responsible for generating cyclonic pollutants d. responsible for the agitation of otherwise harmless ions the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants Question 20 Marks: 1 Some specific measures that can be used to reduce the effect of highway noise include Choose one answer. a. setting lower speed limits for certain sections of a highway b. establishing alternate truck routes c. enclosure of highways going through residential areas d. all of the above all of the above Question 21 Marks: 1 For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between Choose one answer. a. loudness and intensity b. frequency and intensity c. pitch and loudness d. pressure and pitch loudness and intensity Question 22 Marks: 1 ______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation. Choose one answer. a. sulfides b. fluorides c. nitrates d. chlorides fluorides Question 23 Marks: 1 Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day's time an average of Choose one answer. a. 3 to 4 pounds of air b. 35 pounds of air c. 37 pounds of air d. 1,600 ft3 of air 35 pounds of air Question 24 Marks: 1 Stability of the atmosphere Choose one answer. a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants? Choose one answer. a. PAN b. sulfur dioxide c. industries processing hazardous wastes d. high motor vehicle traffic sulfur dioxide Question 32 Marks: 1 ______ can be formed as a result of the sun's action on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrogen sulfide c. chlorofluorocarbons d. ozone ozone Question 33 Marks: 1 The ratio of the energy passing through a wall, floor, or ceiling to the energy striking it is called Choose one answer. a. sound absorption b. sound transmission loss c. noise reduction d. all of the above sound transmission loss Question 34 Marks: 1 Long-term wind data of a given location are presented graphically in the form of a Choose one answer. a. wind rose b. wind table c. wind tree d. wind iris wind rose Question 35 Marks: 1 Transportation is the largest source of air pollution. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 36 Marks: 1 The amount of sound energy a material can absorb is a function of its absorption coefficient at a specified frequency. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 37 Marks: 1 Which of the following types of materials are known to reflect sound? Choose one answer. a. rubber tiles b. heavy drapes c. carpets with felt pads d. rugs rubber tiles Question 38 Marks: 1 Continuous exposure to high-level noise is less harmful than intermittent or occasional exposure. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 39 Marks: 1 Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 40 Marks: 1 The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is Choose one answer. a. referred to as episodic filtration b. referred to as explosive stockpiling and is potentially a very hazardous situation if left unchecked c. directly proportional to wind speed d. inversely proportional to wind speed inversely proportional to wind speed Question 41 Marks: 1 A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to Choose one answer. a. a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber b. vibrations from machines that require rubber mountings or resilient pads c. noted as a decrease due to black-body emission into space, coupled with the lessening of insulation provided by other air d. noted as an increase due to the rising of warm air noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air Question 49 Marks: 1 The Safe Alternatives Policy program Choose one answer. a. specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances b. lists unacceptable alternatives to ozone-depleting substances c. considers only ozone depletion potential d. is based on global warming potential specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances Question 50 Marks: 1 Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except Choose one answer. a. rubber b. textiles c. dyes d. nylon nylon Question 51 Marks: 1 Halon-1211 is used primarily in ______. Choose one answer. a. portable fire extinguishers b. fixed fire suppression systems c. printed circuit board cleaning d. vapor degreasing portable fire extinguishers Question 52 Marks: 1 Air pollutants may be in the form of microorganisms. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 53 Marks: 1 Areas on the windward side of mountain ranges can expect less precipitation due to the forced rising, expansion, and cooling of moving air masses. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 54 Marks: 1 The most common type of noise measurement device used for initial surveys to provide rapid evaluation and identification of potential problem areas is the Choose one answer. a. octave-band analyzer b. noise dosimeter c. sound level meter d. sound analyzer sound level meter Question 55 Marks: 1 The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by Choose one answer. a. the Department of Transportation b. the Federal Aviation Administration c. the Department of Housing and Urban Development d. the Department of Labor the Department of Labor Question 56 Marks: 1 The concentration resulting from a continuous emission of a pollutant is directly proportional to wind speed. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 57 Marks: 1 A primary pollutant is Choose one answer. a. one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of reactions such as hydrolysis, oxidation, and photochemistry b. one that is found in the atmosphere due to natural reactions c. one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists d. none of the above one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists Question 58 Marks: 1 ______ involves the chemistry, physics, and dynamics of the atmosphere and includes many direct effects of the atmosphere on the earth's surface, ocean, and life. Choose one answer. a. topography Which of the following is not a malodorous gas? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrogen sulfide c. carbon monoxide d. phenol carbon monoxide Question 66 Marks: 1 Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned. Choose one answer. a. nitrogen oxide b. sulfur dioxide c. nitrogen dioxide d. carbon monoxide sulfur dioxide Question 67 Marks: 1 The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on Choose one answer. a. the compressibility of the medium b. the density of the medium c. the compressibility and density of the medium d. none of the above the compressibility and density of the medium Question 68 Marks: 1 ______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer. Choose one answer. a. CFCs b. methyl bromide c. halon d. HCFCs HCFCs Question 69 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a primary pollutant? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrocarbon c. nitrogen dioxide d. sulfuric acid sulfuric acid Question 70 Marks: 1 Almost all sound contains multiple frequencies. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Marks: 1 In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with Choose one answer. a. skunks b. bats c. dogs d. cats skunks Question 2 Marks: 1 The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (48 years) and 1974 (72 years) have occurred mostly in the early years and are due to Choose one answer. a. sanitation b. nutrition c. chemotherapy d. all of the above all of the above Question 3 Marks: 1 It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 4 Marks: 1 Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 5 Marks: 1 An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called Question 12 Marks: 1 The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed Choose one answer. a. detoxification b. deodorization c. destabilization d. disinfection disinfection Question 13 Marks: 1 House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 14 Marks: 1 Tularemia is often transmitted to humans by handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 15 Marks: 1 Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 16 Marks: 1 Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats, and domestic animals. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 17 Marks: 1 Marsh miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 18 Marks: 1 Schistosomiasis is Choose one answer. a. a water contact disease b. a foodborne disease c. a milkborne disease d. an airborne disease a water contact disease Question 19 Marks: 1 Rats are one of the seven animals most likely to carry rabies. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 20 Marks: 1 The most effective means of control of bats is to "build them out." Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 21 Marks: 1 Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 22 Marks: 1 The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except Choose one answer. a. homicide b. accidents c. malignant neoplasms d. heart disease homicide Question 23 Marks: 1 Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 31 Marks: 1 Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 32 Marks: 1 A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of Choose one answer. a. chemical poisoning b. schistosomiasis c. salmonellosis d. shigella chemical poisoning Question 33 Marks: 1 It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 34 Marks: 1 Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by Choose one answer. a. flies b. spiders c. cockroaches d. ticks ticks Question 35 Marks: 1 The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except Choose one answer. a. use of antibiotics b. control of disease source c. mode of transmission d. susceptibility use of antibiotics Question 36 Marks: 1 The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is Choose one answer. a. entomology b. biology c. endocrinology d. epidemiology epidemiology Question 37 Marks: 1 The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the Choose one answer. a. lag time b. susceptible period c. incubation period d. primary period incubation period Question 38 Marks: 1 The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the toilet tanks in older hotels. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 39 Marks: 1 A vaccinated dog or cat bitten by or exposed to a rabid animal should be confined for 4 months or destroyed. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 40 Marks: 1 Observations and cost-effective analyses have shown that good housing and sanitation are far more effective measures for the control of cholera, typhoid, and similar diseases than is immunization. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 1 Marks: 1 Public awareness demands a quality of environment that provides fundamental needs such as which of the following? Choose one answer. a. pure water, clean air, pure food c. professional prodding and support d. all of the above all of the above Question 8 Marks: 1 Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by Choose one answer. a. donations b. state funds c. revenue bonds and general obligation bonds d. loans revenue bonds and general obligation bonds Question 9 Marks: 1 Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area? Choose one answer. a. fire protection b. lower taxes c. better schools d. improved sanitary conditions lower taxes Question 10 Marks: 1 An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is Choose one answer. a. an environmental evaluation dealing with fish b. a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible c. a public document of environmental concern dealing with acid rain only d. an environmental evaluation dealing with air pollution control a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible Question 11 Marks: 1 Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan. Choose one answer. a. national b. regional c. metropolitan d. county regional Question 12 Marks: 1 The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to Choose one answer. a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment c. encourage greater understanding of the environment d. all of the above all of the above Question 13 Marks: 1 What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning? Choose one answer. a. the individual b. the village c. the county d. the city the county Question 14 Marks: 1 The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. a statement of goals and objectives b. public information and community action c. surrounding area politics d. basic studies, mapping, and data analysis surrounding area politics Question 15 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey? Choose one answer. a. careful investigation of the property b. former plot plans c. assistance by a cooperative neighbor d. water supply source that is fast moving water supply source that is fast moving Question 16 Marks: 1 For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except Choose one answer. a. the collection and disposal of 548 to 730 tons of solid waste per year b. an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year c. 10.0 or more acres of land for schools, parks, and play areas d. two to four additional hospital beds and three nursing home beds One method of financing for a municipal capital improvement is by revenue bonds which in turn are paid by Choose one answer. a. all persons in a given developed community b. state revenues c. persons receiving the service d. federal revenues persons receiving the service Question 24 Marks: 1 A GAP analysis is Choose one answer. a. an analysis of the future state b. an analysis of the current state c. an analysis of the distance between the current state and the future state d. none of the above an analysis of the distance between the current state and the future state Question 25 Marks: 1 A SWOT analysis is Choose one answer. a. an analysis of the future state b. an analysis of the current state c. a budget process d. none of the above none of the above Question 26 Marks: 1 When a suitable site is being selected for a particular purpose, which of the following must be known before any property is investigated? Choose one answer. a. the type of facility that is to be maintained b. the desired use of the facility c. the type functions, activities, and programs to be held d. all of the above all of the above Question 27 Marks: 1 Comprehensive community planning includes which of the following steps? Choose one answer. a. public information and involvement b. statement of goals c. basic studies d. all of the above all of the above Question 28 Marks: 1 The agency that developed guidelines to assist urban areas and cities assess the environmental impact of housing and urban development was Choose one answer. a. the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency b. the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. the U.S. Department of Housing and Construction d. the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Question 29 Marks: 1 An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment. Choose one answer. a. EPA b. NEPA c. HUD d. USDA NEPA Question 30 Marks: 1 Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should Choose one answer. a. develop zoning regulations b. develop higher taxes on community organizations c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services d. a and c above a and c above Question 31 Marks: 1 Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is Choose one answer. a. 3.0 b. 0.03 c. 0.3 d. 0.003 0.03 Question 32 Marks: 1 A planning board's enforcement tools include Choose one answer. d. relationship between local short-term uses of the environment and enhancement of long-term productivity probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided Question 39 Marks: 1 A QOL index is useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 40 Marks: 1 Actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment are categorically defined as Choose one answer. a. environmental impact b. cumulative impact c. environmental document d. categorical exclusion categorical exclusion Question 41 Marks: 1 The Council on Environmental Quality was established by Choose one answer. a. Title II of DSEA b. Title IV of PHSA c. Title VI of USEA d. Title II of NEPA Title II of NEPA Question 42 Marks: 1 A "vision" is a term used in strategic planning to represent the Choose one answer. a. desired future state b. where the organization wants to be in 5 years c. the new organizational mission d. all of the above all of the above Question 43 Marks: 1 Every 1,000 new people in a community will require 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 44 Marks: 1 Financing for municipal capital improvements is generally done by revenue bonds or general obligation bonds. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 45 Marks: 1 A project study is another term for Acomprehensive regional planning.@ Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 46 Marks: 1 In the quality of life index, the economic environment includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. income b. work satisfaction c. economic security d. material quality material quality Question 47 Marks: 1 General overall policy planning includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. aspirations and realistic objectives b. detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans c. identification of goals d. establishment of functional priorities detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans Question 48 Marks: 1 Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 49 Marks: 1 Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems Choose one answer. Choose one answer. a. physical and social factors b. economic factors c. ecologic factors d. all of the above all of the above Question 56 Marks: 1 The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by Choose one answer. a. the mayor b. the contractor c. the local Board of County Commissioners d. the constitution or laws of a state the constitution or laws of a state Question 57 Marks: 1 The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is Choose one answer. a. 3 mg per liter b. 4 mg per liter c. 5 mg per liter d. 6 mg per liter 6 mg per liter Question 58 Marks: 1 General obligation bonds used for financing municipal capital improvement are repaid by Choose one answer. a. sales tax b. real property tax c. local industry special tax d. private investors with limited ownership real property tax Question 59 Marks: 1 To determine the resources on a section of property, one should seek the assistance of a person who is experienced and familiar with Choose one answer. a. geology and wildlife b. forestry and engineering c. hydrology and chemistry d. a and b above a and b above Question 60 Marks: 1 A certificate of compliance is issued by the ______ when a system is properly installed. Choose one answer. a. manufacturer b. health department c. EPA d. property owner health department Question 61 Marks: 1 Haphazard development can be controlled by comprehensive local and regional planning if Choose one answer. a. public powers levy higher taxes b. public powers regulate development c. broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided d. none of the above broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided Question 62 Marks: 1 An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements? Choose one answer. a. purpose and scope b. administration and financing c. the comprehensive regional plan d. all of the above all of the above Question 63 Marks: 1 A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness. Choose one answer. a. sanitary code b. zoning ordinance c. building code d. all of the above all of the above Question 64 Marks: 1 Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by Choose one answer. all of the above Question 71 Marks: 1 The assessment of stakeholders values, interests, and expectations can be used to evaluate the probability of success of a strategic plan. Choose one answer. a. True b. False True Question 72 Marks: 1 The Council on Environmental Quality requires ______ to submit an Environmental Quality Report to Congress. Choose one answer. a. the President b. each representative c. the governor of each state d. federal agencies the President Question 73 Marks: 1 Planning and zoning regulations are based on Choose one answer. a. the rights of the government to dictate and control the uses of land for the purpose of development b. the need to expand the land for development c. the rights of the government to exercise its police power to control the private use of land for public benefit d. the development for growth and development of a region or area the rights of the government to exercise its police power to control the private use of land for public benefit Question 74 Marks: 1 ______ developed a set of guidelines to aid urban areas and cities assess the impacts of development actions. Choose one answer. a. NEPA b. HUD c. the Council on Environmental Quality d. the Overseas Development Council HUD Question 75 Marks: 1 The preferred method for water and sewerage service for a subdivision is to Choose one answer. a. develop a central water system b. extend existing water lines and construct individual sewage system c. extend existing water lines and community sewer lines d. require individual on-site facilities extend existing water lines and community sewer lines Question 76 Marks: 1 If an adequate, satisfactory, and safe water supply is not obtainable at a reasonable cost, the site should be Choose one answer. a. connected to a city water supply b. temporarily abandoned c. abandoned d. a and b abandoned Question 77 Marks: 1 If the air in a community contains 0.10 to 0.17 parts per million of sulfur oxide, it is considered to be ______ quality air. Choose one answer. a. high b. moderate c. poor d. extremely poor moderate Question 78 Marks: 1 A special engineering study is required for slopes with an incline greater than Choose one answer. a. 8 percent b. 6 degrees c. 8 degrees d. 4 percent 8 percent Question 79 Marks: 1 The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed Choose one answer. a. 50 NTU b. 25 NTU c. 10 NTU d. 30 NTU 25 NTU Question 6 Marks: 1 When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration. Choose one answer. a. 120 degrees F, 25 mg/l b. 75 degrees F, 75 mg/l c. 55 degrees F, 85 mg/l d. Cannot be determined without pH of the solution 120 degrees F, 25 mg/l Question 7 Marks: 1 An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is Choose one answer. a. carpet b. linoleum c. quarry tile d. asphalt tile quarry tile Question 8 Marks: 1 What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine? Choose one answer. a. 10 seconds b. 25 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 15 seconds 15 seconds Question 9 Marks: 1 The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be Choose one answer. a. $1.2 million to $5 million per year b. $5 trillion per year c. $1 billion to $10 billion per year d. $10 billion to $80 billion per year $10 billion to $80 billion per year Question 10 Marks: 1 At what time and temperature specifications does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized? Choose one answer. a. 155 degrees F for 30 minutes b. 65 degrees F for 30 minutes c. 75 degrees F for 15 seconds d. 100 degrees F for 0.001 seconds 155 degrees F for 30 minutes Question 11 Marks: 1 The ______ test shows the amount of extraneous material in milk but will not show dissolved material. Choose one answer. a. appearance b. microscopic count c. thermoduric d. sediment sediment Question 12 Marks: 1 People at increase risk for listeriosis are Choose one answer. a. pregnant women b. newborns c. men d. both a and b both a and b Question 13 Marks: 1 The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as the Choose one answer. a. IMS b. FDAVP c. PHSVFSP d. VFS IMS Question 14 Marks: 1 Inspection report forms are primarily tools used to Choose one answer. a. enforce regulations b. assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy c. assure complete compliance d. motivate management supervision assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy Question 15 Marks: 1 Celery, a major source of salad contamination, has proven to be acceptable when a. intestines of man and animals b. water c. soil d. air intestines of man and animals Question 22 Marks: 1 Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by Choose one answer. a. mental stress b. a virus c. an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 d. listeriosis an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 Question 23 Marks: 1 The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to Choose one answer. a. prevent foodborne illnesses b. ensure restaurant safety c. reduce liability d. increase consumer confidence prevent foodborne illnesses Question 24 Marks: 1 Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food? Choose one answer. a. high or low temperatures b. reduced moisture c. salt d. all of the above all of the above Question 25 Marks: 1 Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish. Choose one answer. a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 230 Question 26 Marks: 1 The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following? Choose one answer. a. improper cleaning of milking apparatus b. improper cleaning of the cow c. improper handling of the milk d. improper vaccination for brucellosis improper cleaning of the cow Question 27 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a common refrigerant? Choose one answer. a. carbon dioxide b. methyl chloride c. sulfur dioxide d. nitrogen oxide nitrogen oxide Question 28 Marks: 1 The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is Choose one answer. a. scrape, wash, sanitize, rinse, air dry b. scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry c. scrape, wash, rinse, air dry d. scrape, wash, sanitize, rinse, towel dry scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry Question 29 Marks: 1 As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 degrees F to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps: Choose one answer. a. to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F b. to locate toxic chemicals which precipitate upon cooling before they enter the bulk tank c. to detect infected or feverish heifers since cooling sensor readily spot overheated milk d. to mellow the flavor of the final product to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F Question 30 Marks: 1 Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ______ of exposure in purified seawater. Choose one answer. a. 12 to 24 hours b. 25 degrees F c. 5 degrees F d. 10 degrees F 5 degrees F Question 37 Marks: 1 The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is Choose one answer. a. wash, rinse, air-dry b. pre-soaking, wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, towel dry c. steam-cleaning at a pressure of 170 degrees F d. wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry Question 38 Marks: 1 A certified industry inspection is an inspection Choose one answer. a. conducted by a certified local governmental unit b. conducted by a certified state official c. conducted by a certified member of the industry d. conducted by a federal agency conducted by a certified member of the industry Question 39 Marks: 1 An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of Choose one answer. a. wallboard b. marble c. concrete d. clay tile wallboard Question 40 Marks: 1 Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are Choose one answer. a. oysters b. crabs c. shrimp d. lobsters oysters Question 41 Marks: 1 Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria: Choose one answer. a. Shigella b. Pseudomonas c. Escherichia coli d. Enterobacter aerogenes Escherichia coli Question 42 Marks: 1 Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment? Choose one answer. a. phenols b. copper c. zinc d. none of the above none of the above Question 43 Marks: 1 Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than ______ at the end of the system. Choose one answer. a. 170 degrees F for 5 minutes b. 180 degrees F for 5 minutes c. 185 degrees F for 5 minutes d. 187 degrees F for 5 minutes 170 degrees F for 5 minutes Question 44 Marks: 1 Temperatures of ______ have been found satisfactory for the storage of refrigerated foods. Choose one answer. a. 32 degrees F to 38 degrees F b. 38 degrees F to 41 degrees F c. 40 degrees F to 45 degrees F d. 45 degrees F to 48 degrees F 38 degrees F to 41 degrees F Question 45 Marks: 1 Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on food work surfaces. Choose one answer. a. 5-foot candles b. 20-foot candles c. 30-foot candles spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound Question 52 Marks: 1 When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by Choose one answer. a. methylene blue reduction test b. resazurin test c. both a and b above d. none of the above both a and b above Question 53 Marks: 1 Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of Choose one answer. a. 40 degrees F to 58 degrees F b. 60 degrees F to 72 degrees F c. 70 degrees F to 98 degrees F d. 46 degrees F to 118 degrees F 70 degrees F to 98 degrees F Question 54 Marks: 1 Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F. Choose one answer. a. 45 degrees F b. 42 degrees F c. 47 degrees F d. 32 degrees F 45 degrees F Question 55 Marks: 1 Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in Choose one answer. a. 10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F b. 10 to 15 minutes at 80 degrees F c. 1 minute at 250 degrees F d. 10 to 15 minutes at 112 degrees F 10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F Question 56 Marks: 1 Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than ______ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food. Choose one answer. a. 3 inches b. 2 inches c. 5 inches d. 8 inches 3 inches Question 57 Marks: 1 In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of ______ degrees. Choose one answer. a. 30 b. 20 c. 80 d. 40 30 Question 58 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish? Choose one answer. a. off-odor b. elastic flesh c. gray or greenish gills d. sunken eyes elastic flesh Question 59 Marks: 1 The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be Choose one answer. a. 180 degrees F b. 160 degrees F c. 175 degrees F d. 210 degrees F 180 degrees F Question 60 Marks: 1 All meat and poultry plants must develop and implement a system of preventative controls known as Choose one answer. a. Pathogen reduction b. NFSMP c. HACCP d. Risk assessment HACCP a. Salmonella b. Brucella sp. c. Shigella d. Clostridium perfringens Clostridium perfringens Question 68 Marks: 1 Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing? Choose one answer. a. calcium and silica b. iron and magnesium carbonates c. aluminum oxide and manganese d. all the above all the above Marks for this submission: 0/1. Question 69 Marks: 1 Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment. Choose one answer. a. cholera b. gastroenteritis c. typhoid fever d. dysentery typhoid fever Question 70 Marks: 1 Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following? Choose one answer. a. toxins b. anthrax spores c. pesticides d. any of the above any of the above Question 71 Marks: 1 Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on Choose one answer. a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations Question 72 Marks: 1 Proper facility lighting is essential for Choose one answer. a. cleanliness b. accident prevention c. fatigue reduction d. all of the above all of the above Question 73 Marks: 1 E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by Choose one answer. a. direct contact b. under-cooked food c. a and b d. none of the above . a and b Question 74 Marks: 1 Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking. Choose one answer. a. the Pacific Coast b. England c. Europe d. all of the above all of the above Question 75 Marks: 1 Quality control of milk includes which of the following? Choose one answer. a. transportation, herd health b. milk handling, processing c. distribution, refrigeration d. all of the above all of the above Question 76 Marks: 1 Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center. Choose one answer. a. air bubbles b. waste pile c. sewer disposal d. fuel blending waste pile Question 3 Marks: 1 Sources of dioxin include ______. Choose one answer. a. wood preserved with PCPs b. paper mill bleached pulp and sludge c. bleached paper products d. all of the above all of the above Question 4 Marks: 1 Funding for the collection, storage, and disposal of household hazardous waste always comes directly from the individuals who generate the waste. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 5 Marks: 1 Domestic wastewater which passes through a sewer system to a POTW is not considered to be a ______. Choose one answer. a. solid waste b. hazardous waste c. sewer waste d. both a and b both a and b Question 6 Marks: 1 Heating of air, gas, or gas mixture up to 9032 degrees F for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called Choose one answer. a. plasma technology b. rotary kiln incineration c. fuel blending d. all of the above plasma technology Question 7 Marks: 1 The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill. Choose one answer. a. 99.99 percent b. 95.00 percent c. 99.9999 percent d. 0.05 percent 99.9999 percent Question 8 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes include Choose one answer. a. industrial discharges permitted under the FWPCA b. agricultural wastes c. permitted irrigational waters d. none of the above none of the above Question 9 Marks: 1 By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes. Choose one answer. a. solid b. natural c. gray d. none of the above solid Question 10 Marks: 1 Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste. Choose one answer. a. True b. False False Question 11 Marks: 1 Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______. Choose one answer. a. chlorinated hydrocarbons b. acids c. bases d. all of the above chlorinated hydrocarbons