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sample question papers, High school final essays of Biology

sample question papers for class 11 students. If you want more of every subject then dm me on my Instagram i will definitely reply you in 24 hours.

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2020/2021

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Download sample question papers and more High school final essays Biology in PDF only on Docsity! महाराष्ट्र शासन शालेय शशक्षण व क्रीडा शवभाग राज्य शकै्षशणक संशोधन व प्रशशक्षण पररषद, महाराष्ट्र ७०८ सदाशिव पठे, कुमठेकर मार्ग, पणुे ४११०३० सपंकग क्रमांक (020) 2447 6938 E-mail: evaluationdept@maa.ac.in ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Question Bank Standard:- 12th (Science) Subject:- BIOLOGY (056) March 2021 सचूना 1. फक्त शवद्यार्थ्यांना प्रश्नप्रकारांचा सराव करून देण्यासाठीच 2. सदर प्रश्नसचंातील प्रश्न बोर्डाच्या प्रश्नपशिकेत यतेीलच अस ेनाही याची नोंद घ्यावी. BIOLOGY (056) QUESTION BANK Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 The outer layer of pollen grain is thick and made up of complex ,non- biodegradable substance called as…………………. A. lignin B. cellulose C. pectin D. Sporopollenin Correct answer 1 mark 1 3 2 Sporoderm is made up of …………. A. exosporium and endosporium B. outer integuments and inner integument C. testa and tegmen D. exine and intine Correct answer 1 mark 1 3 3 The number of meiotic and mitotic divisions necessary for development of female gametophyte in angiosperms is... A. 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis B. 1 mitosis and 3 meiosis C. 1 meiosis and 1 mitosis D. 1 meiosis and 3 mitosis. Correct answer 1 mark 1 5 4 Identify the odd one with respect to pollinating agent. A. Baobab B. Bottle brush C. Kadamb D. Sausage Correct answer 1 mark 1 8 2 marks 1 Draw a well labelled diagram of T.S. anther. Four correct labels ½ mark each 1 3 2 Describe the structure of pollen grain. Wall layers, ploidy and fate of pollen grain. Formation through meiosis. Each point ½ mark 1 3 3 Draw a well labelled diagram of male gametophyte of angiosperms. Diagram-1 mark, Any two correct labels (male gamete, tube nucleus and pollen tube) ½ mark each. 1 4 4 Describe the structure of female gametophyte of angiosperms. 4 points ½ mark each 1 5 5 Mention various adaptations for wind pollination. Any four points ½, mark each. 1 6 6 What are the different adaptations shown by bird pollinated flowers? Any four points ½ mark each 1 8 7 Explain heterostyly and herkogamy with suitable example. Meaning ½ mark and example ½ mark each. 1 9 8 Give the significance of double fertilization. Any four points, ½ mark each 1 10 & 11 9 Mention significance of fruit and seed formation. Two points 2 marks 1 14 10 Give an account of polyembryony. Meaning-1/2 mark Reason-1/2 mark 1 15 Types ½ mark each 3 marks 1 Describe internal structure of anther (diagram is not expected). Three wall layers -1/2 mark each Tapetum- structure and function-1 marks Pollen mother cell nature/function- 1/2 mark 1 3 2 Explain the development of male gametophyte in angiosperms (diagram is not expected). Development inside anther-1 and ½ marks Development over stigma-1 and 1/1 marks 1 4 3 Explain water pollination in detail with its types. Definition-1 mark Each type with example-1 mark 1 7 4 Give an account of any two biotic agents for pollination along with their adaptations. Three adaptations for each agency- 1 and ½ mark 1 7/8 5 Explain any two contrivances or outbreeding devices for pollination. 1 and ½ marks for correct contrivances. 1 8/9 6 Describe the process of fertilization in angiosperms with the help of diagram. Process – 2 marks Diagram-1 mark 1 10 7 Write a note on different types of endosperms in angiosperms. Each type -1 mark 1 11 8 Describe the development of dicot embryo in flowering plants. six sequential stages carrying ½ mark each 1 11/12 9 Draw a well labelled diagram of monocot seed you have studied. Any six labels- 1/2 mark each 1 13 10 Explain various categories of apomixis. 1 mark each type 1 14 4 marks 1 Describe the structure of anatropus ovule with the help of labelled diagram. Structure -2 marks Diagram with four correct labels -2 marks 1 4 2 Describe the development of female gametophyte of angiosperms with the help of diagram. Process upto 7 celled 8 nucleate stage -2 marks Sequential diagrams -2 marks 1 5 3 Give an account of various abiotic agencies used in pollination along with their adaptations for pollination. 2 marks for each agency 1 6/7 4 Give an account of pollen pistil interaction in detail. Meaning- 1 mark Recognition of pollen and germination – 1 mark significance- 1 mark 1 9 5 Describe the process of double fertilization in angiosperms and add a note on its significance. Process- 2 marks Significance ( two points) -2 marks 1 10/11 2 What is glans penis? Swollen tip of externa genitalia or penis 2 22 3 What is atresia with respect to ovary in human females? Large scale destruction of primordial follicles. 2 23 4 Name the hydrolytic enzyme secreted by the acrosome. Hyluronidase 2 29 5 What is morula? 16-32 celled stage develops during cleavage 2 33 6 What is the function of inner cell mass? Embryo proper develops form these cells 2 33 7 Name the embryonic layer from which heart, blood and blood vessels develop. Mesoderm 2 35 8 Identify the permanent birth control method in given diagram. Tubectomy 2 41 9 What is the use of tablet ‘Saheli’? Oral contraceptive pill 2 41 10 Identify the IUD in the given diagram. Lippes loop 2 15 2 marks 1 Draw a well labelled diagram of L.S. human testis. Four correct labels-½ mark each 2 20 2 Describe the structure of Graafian follicle. Four correct points -Each point ½ mark 2 24 3 Write a short note on fallopian tube. Three correct parts-1 and ½ marks Any one function-1/2 mark 2 24 4 Give an account of external genitalia in human females. Any four parts- ½ mark each 2 25 5 Explain the structure of secondary oocyte. Any four points ½, mark each. 2 30 6 Write an account of cleavage during embryonic development in humans. Any four points with morula stage-½ mark each 2 33 7 Identify the parts labelled in the given diagram. Each label-1/2 mark 2 34 8 What is lactation? Which hormone is responsible for its regular secretion? Two correct points -1 mark each 2 38 9 Mention any two different goals of RCH programme. Two correct points-1 mark each. 2 39 10 What is MTP? Upto which month it is Four correct points-1/2 mark each. 2 41 3 marks 1 Describe the histology of testis with help of labelled diagram. Structure- 2 marks Diagram with two correct labels -1 mark 2 20 2 Identify the labels from the given diagram. Each correct label – ½ mark 2 22 3 Describe the histological structure of human ovary (diagram not expected). Three correct points-1 mark each. 2 23 4 Explain the structure of human sperm with labelled diagram. Structure -2 marks Diagram with any two correct labels-1 mark 2 29 5 Describe the process of oogenesis in human female. Three stages with correct explanation-1 mark each 2 29-30 6 Write a note on implantation. Correct explanation, three points-1 mark each. 2 34 7 Human pregnancy shows three prominent trimesters. Answer the following question based on these trimester. i) What is morning sickness during first trimester? ii) Name the hormone secrete in second trimester. 1 mark each 2 35-36 5 Nullisomy is represented by..... A. (2n-1) B. (2n-2) C.(2n+1) D.(2n+2) Correct answer – 1mark 3 57 6 Identify the odd one:- A. Monoploidy B.Diploidy C.Polyploidy D.Hyperploidy Correct answer – 1mark 3 57 7 In humans, the sex chromosome complement is A.XX-XY B. XX-XO C.ZZ-ZO D. ZW-ZZ Correct answer – 1mark 3 64 8 A family has five daughters and expecting sixth child. The chance of its beings a son is …… A. zero B.25% C.50% D. 100% Correct answer – 1mark 3 64 9 In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes A. Down's syndrome B. Klinfelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Edward's syndrome Correct answer – 1mark 3 67 10 Webbed neck is characteristic of … syndrome. A.XXX Correct answer – 1mark 3 67 B. YY C. XXY D. XO Single sentence answers Key word in answer 1 Define inheritance. Transmission of characters from generation to generation 3 49 2 What is allelomorph? Alternating forms of genes 3 50 3 What is test cross? Cross between F1 plant and its recessive parent 3 53 4 Define euploidy. Chromosome number in a cell is exact multiple of primary basic number. 3 57 5 Give on example of complete linkage. X- chromosome of Drosophila male. 3 59 6 How many linkage groups are present in Drosophila melanogaster? 4 linkage groups 3 59 7 Which genes show straight inheritance? Y-linked genes 3 62 8 How drones are produced in honey bees? Parthenogenetically . 3 66 9 What is the reason for 21st trisomy? Non disjunction or failure of separation of chromosomes or autosomes during gametogenesis. 3 66 10 Give the example of X- monosomy you have studied. Turner’s syndrome. 3 67 2 marks 1 Discuss any two points due to which Mendel got success in his experiment? 1 mark each 3 49/ 50 2 Give any two points of difference between homozygous and heterozygous. 1 mark each. 3 50 3 Explain test cross with suitable example and state its ratios. Representation of cross- 1 mark Ratio( phenotypic and genotypic) -1 mark 3 53 4 Give an account of incomplete dominance with suitable example. Representation of cross- 1 mark Ratio( phenotypic and genotypic) -1 mark 3 54 5 Explain codominance in colour coat in cattle with checker board method. Representation of cross- 1 mark Ratio( phenotypic and genotypic) -1 mark 3 54 6 Write an account of chromosomal theory of inheritance. Four correct points -2 marks 3 56 7 Write a note on sex linkage. Complete sex linkage – 1 mark Incomplete sex linkage -1 mark 3 59 8 Differentiate between complete and incomplete linkage. Two correct points- 2 marks 3 59 9 Explain mechanism of sex determination in birds. Correct explanation -1 mark Representation – 1 mark 3 65 10 Give detail account of thalassemia. Correct explanation Two points-1 mark Symptoms any two- 1 mark 3 66 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 Find the odd one out: A H2A B H3 C H2B D H1 1 4 73 2 What happened when heat killed S-cells along with live R-cells were injected into mice? A Mice died and showed live S-cells B Mice survived and showed live S-cells C Mice died and showed live R-cells D Mice died and showed dead R-cells 1 4 71 3 Find out the double ring compound : A Adenine B Uracil C Cytosine D Thymine 1 4 76 4 If a DNA has 20 Adenine and 30 cytosine bases. What will be the total number of purine bases in the given sample? A 20 B 50 C 30 D 100 1 4 76 5 Semiconservative mechanism of DNA was detected using: A 35S B 14C C 32P 1 4 77 D 15N 6 A template strand of DNA has base sequence CATGATTAC. New strand synthesized on it will be : A GATCAUATG B GTACTAACG C GAACTAATG D GTACTAATG 1 4 76 7 During DNA replication, the separated strands of DNA are prevented from recoiling by A DNA primase B Sigma factor C Rho-factor D SSBP 1 4 75 8 In which of the following synthesis of DNA strand is not involved directly? A m RNA B t RNA C Another DNA strand D Protein 1 4 83 9 Wobble hypothesis is related with A Ambiguity in codon B Purine pyrimidine equality C Genetic code is triplet D Degeneracy of genetic code and economy of tRNA molecules in the cell 1 4 82 10 During elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma factor is : A Functionless B Retained for specific function C Released for re-use D Required during closing of chain 1 4 84 11 Enzyme required for peptide formation is : 1 4 83 A Peptidase B Peptidyl transferase C Nitrogenase D Nitrate reductase 12 Exon segments are reunited after splicing by A RNA primase B RNA protease C RNA polymerase D RNA ligase 1 4 79 13 In lac operon, lactose acts as: A Inducer B Co-inducer C Repressor D Co-repressor 1 4 87 14 A unit of lac-operon which in the absence of lactose, suppresses the activity of operator gene is : A Structural gene B Regulatory gene C Repressor protein D Promoter gene 1 4 86 15 A DNA segment has 75 cytosine and 40 thymine nucleotides. What shall be the total number of phosphates in the DNA segment? A 115 B 230 C 75 D 220 1 4 76 Single sentence answers 1 What is the principle of DNA profiling? 1 4 89 2 What is the use of southern blotting in DNA fingerprinting? 1 4 90 3 Enlist the genes in Lac operon 1 4 86 4 marks 1 Describe the process of semiconservative replication of DNA with the help of neat and labelled diagram. Four correct points-2 marks Diagram with four correct labels-2 marks 4 75,76 2 Describe the mechanism of translation with the help of neat and labelled diagram. Three correct points -3 marks Diagram with two labels-1 mark 4 83,84,85 3 Explain processing of hn-RNA with the help of neat and labelled diagram. Three steps-3 marks Diagram showing any one step correctly-1 mark 4 78,79 4 With respect to lac- operon explain the following terms:- i) regulator gene ii) promoter gene iii) structural gene iv) inducer Each term- 1 mark 4 86,87 5 Define DNA fingerprinting? State any three applications of it. Definition-1 mark Three applications- 3 marks 4 89,90 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 ____________ is considered as connecting link between ape and man. A Australopithecus B Homo habilis C Homo erectus D Neanderthal man Australopithecus 5 114 2 Humans are most closely related to _________. A Marsupial B Lemur C Chimpanzees D Tarsier Chimpanzees 5 113 3 The proportion of an allele in the gene pool to the total number of alleles at a given locus is called ___________. A gene pool B gene frequency C gene flow D genetic drift gene frequency 5 100 4 Transfer of a part of chromosome or set of genes to a non-homologous chromosome is called ___________. A deletion B duplication C inversion D translocation translocation 5 101 5 Any random fluctuation in allele frequency, occurring in the natural population by pure chance is called __________. A gene pool B gene mutation C genetic recombination Genetic drift 5 101 D genetic drift Single sentence answers 1 Define the term ‘Mendelian population’. Interbreeding population 5 100 2 Define Gene pool. Total number of genes 5 100 3 Name the ancestor of human also known as man with ape brain. Australopithecus 5 114 4 Name the ancestor of human nicknamed as Handy man Homo habilis 5 114 5 Whose fossils were discovered at the site of Shivalik hills, India? Ramapithecus 5 114 2 marks 1 Mention any two developments in human which helped him to move around safely on land. 2 points – 2 marks 5 115 2 Distinguish New world and old world monkeys based on their tail along with their examples. 1 point – 1 mark Example – 1 mark 5 113 3 What is hybrid sterility? Definition – 1 mark Example - 1 mark 5 103 4 What led to better utilization of hands for holding objects effectively and better motor skills? 2 points – 2 marks 5 115 5 Describe modern man. 2 points – 2 marks 5 114 6 Distinguish between Australopithecus and Neanderthal man 2 points – 2 marks 5 114 7 Distinguish between Homo erectus and Neanderthal man 2 points – 2 marks 5 114 3 marks 1 Name any three types of premating isolating mechanisms. 3 points – 3 marks 5 102 2 Name any three types of postmating isolating mechanisms. 3 points – 3 marks 5 103 3 Explain Geographical Isolation 3 points – 3 marks 5 102 4 Write down the three main concepts of modern synthetic theory. 3 points – 3 marks 5 100 C Starch D Pectin 6 Inner layer of root hair is made up of __________ A Cellulose B Lignin C Starch D Pectin 1 6 120 7 Cell wall is __________ A Selectively Permeable B Freely Permeable C Non Permeable D Impermeable 1 6 120 8 Plasma Membrane is ___________ A Selectively Permeable B Freely Permeable C Non Permeable D Impermeable 1 6 120 9 Root hair is _____________ extension of epiblema cells A Cytoplasmic B Protoplasmic C Nucleoplasmic D Cellulosic 1 6 120 10 Fine soil particles imbibe or absorb water and hold it. This is called as ___________ A Hygroscopic Water B Gravitational Water C Combined Water D Capillary Water 1 6 120 Single sentence answers 1 Why water acts as a thermal buffer? 1 6 119 2 Define : Root hair 1 6 119 3 What is meant by Gravitational water? 1 6 120 4 What is meant by Hygroscopic water? 1 6 120 5 What is meant by Combined water? 1 6 120 6 What is meant by Capillary water? 1 6 120 7 What is the composition of outer layer of root hair? 1 6 120 8 What is the composition of inner layer of root hair 1 6 120 9 From which type of cells, root hair is originated 1 6 120 10 Which type of tissue is present in epiphytic roots? 1 6 119 2 marks 1 Why water is called as ‘Elixir of Life’? Correct explanation- two points-1 mark each 6 119 2 What are the different types of water? Any two types- 1 mark each 6 120 3 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of “Structure of Root hair”. Four correct labels-2 marks 6 119 4 Explain the structure of root hair. Four correct points-2 marks 6 120 5 In which forms water is available to roots for absorption? Any two forms- 1 mark each 6 120 6 Explain the different properties of water. Any two- 2 marks 6 119 3 marks 1 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Root tip showing root hair zone. Three correct labels – 1 mark each 6 119 2 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Root hair. Three correct labels – 1 mark each 6 119 3 Write a note on morphological structure of root. Three correct regions of root-1 mark each 6 119,120 4 How roots can act as a water absorbing organ? Three correct points- 1 mark each 6 119 4 marks 1 Explain the structure of root hair with the help of neat and labelled diagrams. Four correct points- 2 marks Diagram with two correct labels-2 marks 6 119,120 Question no. Question Marking Scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 In human respiration, chemical energy is released in the form of ____. A) Acetyl co-enzyme A B) ADP C) ADPH2 D) ATP 1 mark 8 156 2 Alveoli provide the surface area for exchange of ________. A) food B) enzymes C) gases D) hormones 1 mark 8 156 3 The movement of diaphragm, intercostal muscles and rib cage helps in __________. A) digestion B) circulation C) excretion D) respiration 1 mark 8 156 4 The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum respiration is __________. A) 1000 to 1100 ml B) 1100 to 1200 ml C) 2000 to 3000 ml D) 5200 to 5800 ml 1 mark 8 5 Find out the example in which due to absence of respiratory pigment transport of respiratory gases does not takes place. A) Cockroach B) Scoliodon C) Frog D) Human 1 mark 8 163 6 Which of the following has thickest wall? A) Right auricle B) Right ventricle C) Left auricle D) Left ventricle 1 mark 8 170 7 The phase of contraction of heart is termed as _____. A) diastole B) systole C) heart beat D) heart sound 1 mark 8 171 8 The free edges of cuspid valves are attached to the papillary muscles of the heart by fibres are called ___________. A) chordae tendinae B) columnae carneae C) connecting fibres D) autorhythmic fibres 1 mark 8 170 9 Ventricular depolarization is represented by __________. A) P wave B) QRS complex C) T wave D) P and T waves 1 mark 8 176 10 The erythropoeitic tissue in adult is mainly found in ___________. A) kidney B) liver C) red bone marrow D) spleen 1 mark 8 165 Single sentence answer 1 Name the cartilage which divides the nasal cavity into right and left nasal chambers. 1 mark 8 154 2 Give the function of epiglottis. 1 mark 8 155 3 Define total lung capacity. 1 mark 8 158 4 Sachin shows symptoms of inflammation of the sinuses and mucous discharge due to viral and bacterial infection. Identify the disorder. 1 mark 8 161 5 Define haematology. 1 mark 8 164 6 Which type of blood flows through pulmonary veins? 1 mark 8 164 7 In between which layers of pericardium, pericardial fluid is present? 1 mark 8 168 8 How many molecules of haemoglobin are found in each erythrocyte? 1 mark 8 165 9 Identify ‘A’ from the following ECG. 1 mark 8 176 10 Identify the pulse point ‘A’ from below given diagram. 1 mark 8 174 2 marks 1 Fill in the blanks with the help of chart. Organism Habitat Respiratory surface/ organ Coelenterates --------- --------- Spiders --------- --------- ½ mark each 8 154 2 Define Bohr effect and Haldane effect. 1 mark each 8 158 3 Give any two effects of carbon monoxide poisoning. 2 points: 1 mark each 8 158 4 Define intracellular transport and extracellular transport. 1 mark each 8 162 5 Name the pigment and enzyme found in erythrocytes? 1 mark each 8 165 6 Draw diagram of conducting system of human heart. Label SA node and bundle of His. Appropriate diagram: 1 mark. Each correct label: ½ mark 8 171 7 How a portal vein differs from normal vein? 2 points: 1mark each 8 173 3 marks 1 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration. 3 points; 1 mark each 8 164 2 Write a note on Hering-Breuer reflex. 3 points; 1 mark each 8 160- 161 3 Define Hamburger’s phenomenon. Add a note on it. Definition: ½ mark. Note: 1 mark. 8 159 4 Draw the chart of double circulation and label A, B, C and D. 1 mark. for chart 8 164 Questio n no. Question Marking scheme Cha pter No. Page No. MCQ 1 Diffused type of nervous system is seen in ________. A Hydra B Planaria C Cockroach D Earthworm Hydra 9 182 2 Planaria shows ___________ type of nervous system. A nerve net. B ladder C ganglionated D brain ladder 9 183 3 In order for a stimulus to be effective, the stimulus must have a minimum intensity called _______ stimulus. A subliminal B depolarised C threshhold D polarised threshhold 9 186 4 The resting potential of a neuron is _____. A 30 millivolts B -30 millivolts C 70 millivolts D -70 millivolts -70 millivolts 9 189 5 The third ventricle of brain is connected to the fourth ventricle of brain through __________. A Foramen of Monro B Duct of Sylvius C Metacoel D Eustachian tube Duct of Sylvius 9 193 6 Degeneration of dopamine producing neurons in the CNS causes __________ disease. A ADHD B Alzheimer’s C Parkinson’s D Fever Parkinson’s 9 206 7 ________ is a mineralocorticoid secreted by Adrenal gland. A Aldosterone B Cortisol C Corticoid D Androgen Aldosterone 9 214 8 ________ has an important role in the development of immune system by maturation of T lymphocytes. A Thyroxine B Thymosin C Aldosterone D Parathormone Thymosin 9 214 9 Hyper secretion of growth hormone in childhood causes ________. A Acromegaly B Dwarfism C Gigantism D Goitre Gigantism 9 210 10 __________ shows gastric contractions and inhibit the secretion of gastric juice. A Gastrin B Secretin C Entero- gastrone D Inhibin Entero- gastrone 9 217 Single sentence answers 1 Which cells of PNS secrete myelin sheath around the nerves? Schwann cells 9 185 2 Give function of astrocytes in nervous system. 1 mark 9 185 3 What is the covering of nerve fascicule called? Endoneurium 9 185 4 How electrical synapse differs from chemical synapse? 1 point – 1 mark 9 187 5 What is the function of red nucleus? 1 function – 1 mark 9 194 6 Define Saltatory conduction. Definition – 1 mark 9 189 7 Name the hormone secreted by Pars intermedia in lower vertebrates. Melanocyte stimulating hormone 9 211 8 Which disease is caused by hyper secretion of Glucocorticoids? Cushing’s disease 9 215 9 Which organ acts a temporary endocrine gland in females? Placenta 9 216 10 Give one role of hormone therapy. Definition – 1 mark 9 217 2 marks 1 ‘Injury to the medulla oblongata causes sudden death’ Explain. 2 points – 2 marks 9 194 2 Which two hormones are responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphorus in the blood? Calcitonin parathormone 9 213 3 Describe any two hormones produced by the ovaries 2 hormones – 2 marks 9 216 4 Name the glucocorticoid used in treatment of allergy and why? Name – 1 mark Reason – 1 mark 9 215 5 Which hormone is secreted by Pineal gland? What is its function? Name – 1 mark Function – 1 mark 9 211 6 Sketch and label T.S of Spinal cord. Labelled diagram 9 195 7 Sketch and label V.S of Pituitary gland. Labelled diagram 9 209 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 Immunity acquired after an infection is ________ immunity A. Artificial Acquired B. Passive C. Innate D. Natural Acquired 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 223 2 Passive immunity is ____________. A. Acquired through natural overt or latent infection B. Acquired through Vaccination C. Acquired through readymade antibodies D. Acquired by activating immune system of the body 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 223 3 'Pathogens' are ____________ A. Substances produced against any disease. B. Chemical substances produced by the host cells to kill the parasite animal. C. Disease causing organisms. D. Cells which kill the parasites 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 228 4 Which one of the following diseases is a communicable? A. Rickets B. Malaria C. Diabetes D. Scurvy 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 228 5 Which one of the following is the most accurate definition of the term ‘health’? A. Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition. B. Health is the reflection of a smiling face. C. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. D. Health is the symbol of economic prosperity. 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 221 6 AIDS is caused by ____________ A. Fungus B. Virus C. Bacterium D. Helminth worm 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 237 7 A person preparing food in an unhygienic place can be a major source of spread of disease _____________ A. Pneumonia B. Syphilis C. Typhoid D. Cancer 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 232 8 Carcinoma is cancer of ____________ cells. A. Epithelial B. Connective tissue C. Bone D. Blood 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 235 9 Inactive gene that can cause cancer is called ________ A. Transposon B. Proto-oncogene 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 236 C. Tumour promoter gene D. Tumour suppressor gene 10 antiviral proteins released by cells infected by the virus are called ________ A. histamines B. interferons C. pyrogens D. allergens 1 mark for correct answer 10 Pg. 222 Single sentence answers 1 Define ‘Health’, as given by WHO. 1 mark 10 Pg. 221 2 What are Non-communicable diseases? 1 mark 10 Pg.228 3 Name the causative pathogen of Ascariasis. 1 mark 10 Pg.230 4 What is ‘serology’ 1 mark 10 Pg.226 5 Name the vector of malarial pathogen. 1 mark 10 Pg. 229 6 What are congenital diseases? 1 mark 10 Pg.228 7 Name the vector of pathogen responsible for filariasis. 1 mark 10 Pg. 232 8 When a drug addict is not allowed to take drugs he shows certain typical symptoms. What are these symptoms termed as? 1 mark 10 Pg. 242 9 What is ‘Leukemia’? 1 mark 10 Pg. 235 10 Define ‘Adolescence’. 1 mark 10 Pg. 239 2 Marks 1 Enlist the four types of T- lymphocytes, responsible for immune response of our body ½ mark for each 10 Pg. 224 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 Wheat -Atlas 66 has high contents of _______. A protein B vitamin C carbohydrates D Fats 1 11 253 2 Species of ___ is involved in cheese formation. A Penicillium B Lactobacillus C Saccharomyces D Leuconostoc 1 11 259 3 Aspergillus niger is used to prepare vit ___ A D B B2 C B12 D C 1 11 260 4 Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to produce enzyme ___. A Invertase B Pectinase C Lipase D Cellulase 1 11 261 5 Select the odd one from given herbicides. A Cactoblastis B Alternaria C Fusarium D Phytophthora 1 11 266 6 _________ associated with plants like Azolla and Cycas can be used as a biofertilizers. A Anabaena 1 11 266 B Nostoc C Plectonema D Oscillatoria 7 Antibiotic Chloromycetin is obtained from ____________. A Streptomyces erythreus B Penicillium chrysogenum C Streptomyces venezuelae D Streptomyces griseus 1 11 261 8 Indian curd is prepared by inoculating milk with ___________. A Lactobacillus acidophilus B Lactobacillus bulgaricus C Penicillium roquefortii D Penicillium camembertii 1 11 259 Single sentence answer 1 What is biofortification? 1 11 252 2 Name biofortified wheat variety for high protein content. 1 11 253 3 What is the main function of a fermenter? 1 11 259 4 Name the chamber in which the suspended objects are filtered and removed during sewage treatment? 1 11 262 5 What is mycorrhiza? 1 11 267 6 Name the tank to which the sewage water is passed after the preliminary treatment? 1 11 263 7 What are flocs with respect to sewage treatment 1 11 263 8 Small part of activated sludge is passed back into primary sedimentation tank. 1 11 263 If the above statement is correct then rewrite as it is and in case it is incorrect then reframe it. 2 marks 1 Rearrange the names of tanks used in sewage treatment as per the flow of procedure. a) settling tank b) Grit Chamber c) aeration tanks d) primary sedimentation tank. ½ mark for each correct position 11 263 2 Give names of two organisations which provide most commonly used models of biogas plants. 1+1 11 264 3 A young girl is health conscious. Her dietician advised her to include mushrooms in her diet. What must be the reason? Two points _ 1mark each 11 259 4 Match the column A with B and rewrite correct pairs. A B i. Atlas 66 a)vit A ii. Rice b) vit C iii. Spinach c)protein iv. bitter gourd d)Iron 1/2mark for each correct pair 11 253 5 Name two bacteria which are responsible for fermenting dough of idli, dosa. Two names_ 1mark each 11 259 6 Name two acids produced by using Aspergillus niger? Two names _ 1mark each 11 260 7 Name two amino acids found in fortified Maize variety? Two names_ 1mark each 11 253 3 marks 1 Match the column A with B and rewrite correct pairs A B I. Mycoherbicides a)Cactoblastis II. Bacterial herbicides b) Alternaria III. Insects as herbicides c)Xanthomonas 1 mark for each correct pair 11 265 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 The technique which involves addition or deletion of genes is…. A genetic engineering B gene therapy C gene splicing D gene piracy 1 12 273 2 ECoRI is obtained from… A Escherichia coli R13 B Escherichia coli Ry13 C Escherichia coli R225 D Escherichia coli RC 1 12 275 3 The enzyme restriction endonuclease … A cuts double strand of DNA B joins strand of DNA C cuts RNA strand D cuts single stranded DNA 1 12 275 4 Ti plasmid being used for introducing genes in plants obtained from…. A Agrobacterium rhizogenes B Escherichia coli C Agrobacterium T20 D Agrobacterium tumefaciens 1 12 277 Polymerase chain reaction is most useful in…. A DNA amplification B DNA synthesis C protein synthesis D selective replication of DNA 1 12 274 5 In Bt cotton a transgenic plant, Bt refers to…. A bold cotton B Bacillus thuringiensis 1 12 283 C beta carotene D tumor inducing bacteria 7 In transgenic crop substance provitamin A is obtained in…. A rice B tomato C canola D sugarcane 1 12 283 8 In Anaemia the Recombinant protein….is produced by r-DNA technology. A Relasein B Insulin C Erythroprotein D Antoitrpsin 1 12 280 9 In biotechnology GMO refers to…. A generation mediated organisms B genetically modified organisms C good modified organisms D gross modified organisms 1 12 282 10 First biopatent to genetically engineered bacterium…. A Pseudomonas B Agrobacterium C Azatobacter D E. coli. 1 12 289 Single sentence answers 1 In which transgenic plant the substance Flavonoids obtained as antioxidants. 1 12 283 2 What is Germline therapy? 1 12 282 3 Which Recombinant proteins is obtained for Hepatitis-B by r-DNA technology. 1 12 280 4 What is plasmid? 1 12 277 5 What is Palindromic sequence? 1 12 276 6 Alu-I is obtained from which organism? 1 12 275 7 What is the role of Taq-polymerase in PCR technology? 1 12 274 8 Bt-cotton shows adverse effect on the population of which butterfly? 1 12 288 2 marks 1 What is Biopiracy? Explain it with respect to Turmeric. Definition- 1 mark Two correct points-1 mark 12 290 2 How Biotechnology is applicable with respect to Genomics? Any two correct points-2 marks 12 279 3 Explain how transgenic fish is commercially beneficial. Any two correct points-2 marks 12 287 4 Write any two human disorders and to cure which recombinant proteins are produced? Two points- 1 mark each 12 280 5 For production of edible vaccines plants are used. Explain this any one example. Correct explanation- 1 mark Example-1 mark 12 285 6 Write a note on uses of somatic cell gene therapy. Any two applications- 1 mark each 12 282 7 Define vector? write any two examples, Definition - 1 mark Two examples- 1/2 mark each. 12 277 3 marks 1 Explain traditional use of Biotechnology. Three correct points-1 m ark each 12 272 2 Define biotechnology? Which are the basic principles and process of biotechnology? Definition-1 mark 12 272 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is called as… A biotic community. B population. C ecosystem. D tropical niche. 1 13 293 2 Community is defined as…. A Group of similar Angiosperms. B interacting populations. C interacting ecosystem D group of mangroves. 1 13 293 3 Regional and local variations within each biome lead to the formation of variety of… A Habitats B niches C species D genus 1 13 293 4 Maximum absorption of rainfall water is done by…. A tropical evergreen forest. B tropical deciduous forest. C coniferous forest. D deserts 1 13 293 5 The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association is a classic example of… A Mutualism. B Parasitism. C Commensalism. D Competition 1 13 305 6 The ecological niche of population is a … A geographical area where it lives. B set of conditions and resources that it uses. C habitat of organisms D place of origin of organisms 1 13 294 7 Tropical dense forests are due to… A high rainfall and low temperature B high rainfall and warm temperature C low rainfall and high temperature D low rainfall and low temperature 1 13 295 8 Polar bears show hibernation during… A winter B summer C rainy season D favourable conditions 1 13 297 9 In Logistic growth curve lag phase shows… A fast growth B initial stage of growth C stationary phase of growth D diminishing phase of growth 1 13 300 10 The number of deaths under ideal conditions is known as A Absolute mortality B Realized mortality C Absolute natality D Realized natality 1 13 298 Single sentence answers 1 Define Absolute Mortality. 1 13 298 2 How absolute Natality differs from Realized Natality. 1 13 298 3 What is population ecology? 1 13 298 4 Define the term spatial niche. 1 13 295 5 What is ESS? 1 13 298 6 Define the term Habitat. 1 13 294 7 Rearrange the terms population, Biome, Community and Organisms in ecological hierarchy 1 13 293 8 What Allen’s rule indicates in adaptation? 1 13 297 2 marks 1 Show the graphical representation of mean annual rainfall with respect to mean annual temperature. Any two correct representations- 1 mark each 13 293 2 Define the term Biome and population. 1 mark each 13 293 3 How Habitat differs from Niche? Any two correct points- 1mark each 13 294 4 How ‘Temperature’ as an abiotic factor plays a role in ecology? Any two correct points- 1 mark each 13 295 5 Define the term Adaptation. State its two advantages. Definition- 1 mark Any two advantages-1/2 mark each 13 297 6 What is Mortality? What are its two types? Definition- 1 mark Each type-1/2 mark 13 298 7 Define the term population interactions. State its two types Definition- 1 mark Each type-1/2 mark 13 301 3 marks 1 Define Niche with its different types. Definition – 1mark Any two types -1 mark each 13 295 2 Define mutualism. Explain its one type. Definition -1 mark 13 302 2 Marks 1 Name the types of succession of plants based on the nature of habitat. 1 mark each 14 Pg. 317 2 Give reasons – ‘Primary succession is always slower than secondary succession’ 1 mark each 14 Pg. 317 3 Marks 1 What are ‘pioneer species’? Give two examples of them. 1 mark each 14 Pg. 317 2 Explain the following sequence of succession after a forest fire. 1 mark each 14 Pg. 317 Answer the following – 4 Marks 1 Explain the progress of ecological succession in newly formed volcanic island. 1 mark each 14 Pg. 317 Question no. Question Marking scheme Chapter No. Page No. MCQ 1 Dodo bird, stellar sea cow and passenger pigeon are few examples of extinction due to __________. A habitat loss B hunting C Alien species invasion D overexploitation. 1 15 326 2 Select the odd example with respect to types of conservation strategies. A Pawra tribals in Satpuda have protected varieties of corn with different coloured kernels. B Kanha forest as tiger reserve. C Crocodile bank of Chennai D Sacred groves 1 15 328 3 India boasts a handsome share of ____ % of total biodiversity wealth of the earth. A 2.4 B 8.1 C 14 D 22 1 15 325 Single sentence answers 1 What is ‘Hello Forest’? 1 15 341 2 Name the Japanese method of plantation adapted by our government. 1 15 341 3 A medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria shows variations in concentration of reserpine from location to location. What type of level of biodiversity is this? 1 15 322 2 marks 1 Write full form of __ i) IUCN ii) NBA 1+1 15 326 330 2 Give any four factors that favour high speciation at lower altitudes. ½ mark each =2 15 323 3 With the help of any one example explain Alien species invasion as one of the causes of Biodiversity losses. Meaning 1mark+exa 1 mark 15 326 3 marks 1 Enlist any six categories into which a given species is placed once it has been thoroughly evaluated by IUCN. 1/2mark each =3 15 327 2 The reasons for conservation of biodiversity can be classified into three categories. Name them and describe each in brief. ½ mark name+1/2 mark describe 15 328 4 marks 1 Describe any four measures to achieve Mission Harit Maharashtra 1mark each 15 341 +
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