Social Science – History, Civics, Geography & Economics – NCERT – CBSE – Class 9 Workbook, Slides of Political studies

Download Social Science – History, Civics, Geography & Economics – NCERT – CBSE – Class 9 Workbook and more Slides Political studies in PDF only on Docsity! G9/SOC/PJ1 HISTORY, CIVICS , GEOGRAPHY & ECONOMICS CBSE GRADE IX Strictly based on NCERT WORKBOOK G9/SOC/PJ2 CONTENTS… CHAPTER NUMBER CHAPTER NAME PAGE NO 3-13 HISTORY Chapter 1 The French Revolution Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution Chapter 3 Nazism and the rise of Hitler Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism CIVICSPAGE NO 14- 30 Chapter 1 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Chapter 2 Constitutional Design Chapter 3 Electoral Politics Chapter 4 Working of Institutions Chapter 5 Democratic Rights GEOGRAPHYPAGE NO 31- 45 Chapter 1 India- Size and Location Chapter 2 Physical features of India Chapter 3 Drainage Chapter 4 Climate Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Chapter 6 Population ECONOMICSPAGE NO 46- 58 Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur Chapter 2 People as a Resource Chapter 3 Poverty as Challenge Chapter 4 Food Security in India G9/SOC/PJ5 (a) 'Two Treaties of Government' (b) 'The Spirit of the Laws' (c) 'Le Moniteur Universal' (d) 'The Social Contract' 11. King in France at the time of the Revolution (a) Louis XIV (b) Louis XVI (c) Marie Antoinette (d) Nicholas II 12. Political body of France (a) Duma (b) Reichstag (c) Lok Sabha (d) Estates General 13. Voting in the Estates General was conducted on the principle of (a) Each member one vote (b) male adult franchise (c) universal adult franchise (d) Each Estate one vote 14. The Estates General was last convened in (a) 1604 (b) 1614 (c) 1416 (d) 1641 15. Where did the Third Estate form and announce the National Assembly? (a) Indoor Tennis Court (b) Hall of Mirrors (c) Firoz Shah Ground (d) Winter Palace 16. Members of the Third Estate were led by (a) Louis XVI and Marie Antionette (b) Lenin and Kerensky (c) Mirabeau and Abbe Sieyes (d) Rousseau and Voltaire 17. Which of the following was the main objective of the Constitution of 1791? (a) To limit the powers of the king alone (b) do away with feudal privileges (c) Give equal rights to women (d) establish a constitutional monarchy 18. A broken chain symbolised a) Chains used to fetter slaves (b) Strength lies in unity (c) Royal power (d) Act of becoming free 19. The winged woman personified (а) National colours of France (b) Act of becoming free (c) Personification of Law (d) Rays of the Sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance 20. Bundle of rods or fasces symbolised (a) Royal power (b) Equality before law (c) Law is the same for all (d) Strength lies in unity 21. Which of the following symbolised Eternity? G9/SOC/PJ6 (a) Sceptre (b) Eye within a triangle radiating light (c) The Law Tablet (d) Snake biting its tail to form a ring 22. Which of the following were the national colours of France during the? (a) Blue-green-yellow (b) Red-green-blue (c) Blue-white-red (d) Yellow-red-white 23. National Anthem of France (a) Vande Matram (b) Roget de L Isle (c) Le Moniteur Universal (d) Morseillaise 24. Members of the Jacobian Club were known as (a) Conservatives (b) Revolutionaries (c) Terrorists (d) San-culottes 25. France on 21st September, 1792 was declared a (a) Socialist State (b) Democracy (c) Communist State (d) Republic 26. Which of the following was a factor in the rise of Napoleon? (a) Fall of the Jacobin government (b) Robespierre Reign of Terror (c) Political instability of the Directory (d) Nationalist forces 27. French legacy to the world (a) Democracy (b) Socialism and nationalism (c) Republicanism (d) Liberty, Freedom and Equality G9/SOC/PJ7 DATE: DAY: 2. SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND RUSSIAN REVOLUTION MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change? (a) Nationalists (b) conservatives (c) liberals (d) radicals 2. The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe (In 1815) were called: (a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals 3. Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution? (a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century. (b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society. (c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society. (d) All the above 4. The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________ (a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church (b) Russian Orthodox Church (c) Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists (d) Both (b) and (c) 5. Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia? (a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra (b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin (c) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I (d) Both (a) and (b) 6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914? (a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe (b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced legislation (c) They succeeded in forming a government in Europe (d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals 7. How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’? (a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise (b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote (c) Women should not have right to vote (d) All the above 8. Which of the following statements is not correct about the ‘radicals’? (a) They supported women’s right to vote (b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners G9/SOC/PJ10 DATE: DAY: 3. NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. When did Hitler become the Chancellor of Germany? (a) January 30, 1923 (b) January 30, 1929 (c) January 30, 1933 (d) March 3, 1933 2. Who amongst these offered chancellorship to Hitler? (a) Churchil (b) Goebbels (c) Helmuth (d) Hindenburg 3. When did Hitler try to seize control of Bavaria and capture Berlin? (a) 1919 (b) 1923 (c) 1929 (d) 1933 4. When did Hitler join German Worker’s Party? (a) 1918 (b) 1919 (c) 1920 (d) 1921 5. The Nazi Party became the largest party by? (a) 1930 (b) 1931 (c) 1932 (d) 1933 6. Who among the following was assigned the responsibility of economic recovery by Hitler? (a) Goebbels (b) Hindenburg (c) Hjalmar Schacht (d) Adam Smith 7. US entered into World War II due to (a) annexation of Poland by Germany (b) aerial bombing on London (c) Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour (d) non payment of reparation dues by Germans 8. The Great Depression was a period of (a) Political crisis (b) Social crisis (c) Global crisis (d) Economic crisis 9. Hitler took over the German Worker’s Party and renamed it as (a) Secular German Workers (b) Socialist Workers of Germany (c) National Socialist Party (d) National Workers of Germany 10. What was the name given to gas chambers by Nazis? (a) Killing Machine (b) Solution Areas (c) Revolutionary Ground (d) Disinfection Areas 11. What was ‘Dawes Plan’? (a) A plan secure loans from US bankers (b) A plan to ease reparation terms on Germany (c) A plan to overtake Rhineland mines (d) An extension of Versailles treaty 12. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler? (a) Hjalmar Schacht (b) Hindenburg (c) Goebbels (d) Helmuth 13. Why Weimar Republic was called ‘November Criminals’? (a) Because they signed armistice agreement and conceded Germany to Allies (b) because they crushed Spartacists with the help of free Corps (c) because they misused Article 48 (d) they secured loans from USA G9/SOC/PJ11 14. Who from the following were not ‘November Criminals’? (a) Socialists (b) Spartacists (c) Catholics (d) Democrats 15. Reichstag refers to (a) Imperial Germany (b) German Parliament (c) French Parliament (d) Imperial England 16. During First World War against whom Germany did not fight? (a) Austria (b) England (c) France (d) Belgium 17. When was the First World War fought? (a) 1911-1914 (b) 1914-1918 (c) 1916-1920 (d) 1941-1945 18. When did Germany withdraw herself from the League of Nations? (i) 1931 (ii) 1932 (iii) 1933 (iv) 1934 21. Who supported the Weimar Republic? (i) Socialists, Liberals, Democrats (ii) Conservatives (ii) Catholics, Liberals, Conservatives (iv) Socialists, Catholics, Democrats 22. The German Parliament is known as: (i) National Parliament (ii) German Legislature (iii) Reichstag (iv) German National Congress 23. Who were called the ‘November criminals’? (i) The Opponents of Weimar Republic (ii) Chancellor of Germany (iii) The supporters of Weimar Republic (iv) None of the above 24. What was ‘Jungvolk’ in Nazi Germany? (i) A Book (ii) Jews Teachers (iii) Schools (iv) Youth organisation 25. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler? (i) Hjalmar Schacht (ii) Hindenburg (iii) Goebbels (iv) Helmuth 26. After the Second World War, which committee was formed to prosecute Nazi war criminals for War Crimes? (i) Treaty of Versailles (ii) Reichstag committee (iii) International Military Tribunal (iv) International Peace Forum 27. When did the Second World War come to an end? (i) March 1945 (ii) May 1945 (iii) June 1945 (iv) March 1948 28. Which countries signed Tripartite Pact? (i) Germany, Austria and Japan (ii) Germany, Italy and Japan (iii) UK, France and Japan (iv) France, UK and USSR G9/SOC/PJ12 DATE: DAY: 4. FOREST SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Who were the colonial powers in Indonesia? (a) British (b) Dutch (c) French (d) Portuguese 2. Which place is now famous as a rice-producing island in Indonesia? (a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Borne (d) Kalimantan 3. Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia? (a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Bali (d) None of the above 4. Who were ‘Kalangs’ of Java? (a) Dynasty of rulers (b) Skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators (c) A community of moneylenders (d) none of the above 5. The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in (a) 1700 (b) 1750 (c) 1770 (d) 1800 6. According to the forest laws enacted by the Dutch in Java, (a) Villagers’ access to forest was restricted (b) Wood could be cut only for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses (c) Villagers were punished for grazing cattle (d) All the above 7. What was the system of ‘blandongdiensten’? (a) A system of education (b) Industrialisation (c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption (d) None of the above 8. What did Surontiko Samin of Randublatung village, a teak forest village, begin questioning? (a) The foreign policy of the Dutch (b) State ownership of the forest (c) The export policy of the Dutch (d) none of the above 9. What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars? (a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs (b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British (c) More and more trees were planted to give employment to Indians (d) None of the above 10. What is the goal of governments across Asia and Africa since the 1980s? (a) Conservation of forests (b) Collection of timber (c) Settling people in forest areas (d) Destroying old forests and growing new ones 11. Who wrote the book ‘The Forests of India’ in the year 1923? (a) David Spurr (b) E.P. Stebbing (c) Verrier Elvin (d) John Middleton 12. Which of the following is not associated with Sweden agriculture? (a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Bewar (d) Penda G9/SOC/PJ15 DATE: DAY: 1. WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY? MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1.The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word – (a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia 2.What kind of government is there in Myanmar? (a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government (c) Army rule (d) Monarchy 3.The head of the government in Nepal is the: (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) King (d) Vice President 4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999? (a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Nawaz Sharif (c) Pervez Musharraf (d) None of the above 5. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives? (a) India in Sri Lanka (b) US in Iraq (c) USSR in Communist Poland (d) Both (b) and (c) 6. ‘One person, one vote’ means (a) One person is to be voted by all (b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value (c) A person can vote only once in his life (d) Both (a) and (c) 7. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China? (a) 3050 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 2000 8. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held there? (a) Army participates in election (b) Government is not accountable to the people (c) Some parts of China are not represented at all (d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party 9.Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000? (a) Revolutionary Party (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party (c) Institutional Revolutionary Party (d) Institutional Party 10. Democracy must be based on (a) One-party system (b) Free and fair election (c) Choice from only the ruling party (d) All the above 11. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom? (a) 1970, from Black minority rule (b) 1880, from White minority rule (c) 1980, from Americans (d) 1980, from White minority rule G9/SOC/PJ16 12.Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler? (a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda (c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson 13. Which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens? (a) Citizens should be free to think (b) should be free to form associations (c) Should be free to raise protest (d) All the above 14.Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens? (a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Independent judiciary (d) Police 15. What is Constitutional Law? (a) Provisions given in the Constitution (b) Law to make Constitution (c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly (d) none of the above 16.Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law? (a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution (b) Police has a right to kill anybody (c) Women can be paid lesser salaries (d) President can rule for as long as he wants. 17.Some of the drawbacks of democracy is (a) Instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy (c) Politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above 18. In which of these cases can democracy not provides a complete solution? (a) Removing poverty completely (b) Providing education to all (c) Giving jobs to all (d) All the above 19. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world? (a) 1932-36 (b) 1958-61 (c) 2001-2002 (d) 2004-2007 20 A democratic government is better than a non-democratic government because (a) It may or may not be accountable (b) It always responds to the needs of the people (c) It is a more accountable form of government (d) None of the above 21. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because (a) Decisions are taken by educated people (b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion (c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time (d) All decisions are approved by judiciary 22.How does democracy allows us to correct its own mistakes? (a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected (b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes (c) The rulers can be changed (d) none of the above 23.The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of (a) Limited democracy (b) representative democracy (c) Maximum democracy (d) none of the above G9/SOC/PJ17 DATE: DAY: 2. CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment? (a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws (c) For corruption charges (d) for possessing illegal property 2. What is apartheid? (a) Election in proportion to population (b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks (c) Equality among all (d) None of the above 3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans? (a) Restricted social contacts between the races (b) Segregation of public facilities (c) Created race-specific job categories (d) All the above 4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation. (a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress (c) African National Congress (d) All National Party 5. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies? (a) Increase in protests and struggles (b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult (c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks (d) Both (a) and (b) 6. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government? (a) Discriminatory laws were repealed (b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted (c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d) More discriminatory laws were passed 7. When did South Africa become a democratic country? (a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996 8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic? (a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha (c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above 9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela. (a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom (c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom 10. What did the black population want in the new Constitution? (a) A black President (b) Substantial social and economic rights (c) Whites should be turned out of the country (d) Apartheid for the whites 11. What did the white minority want from the new Constitution? (a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves (c) Reservation in legislature (d) some special rights G9/SOC/PJ20 37. When did the Indian constitution come into force? (a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930 38. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928? (a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 39When was the Constitution of India adopted? (a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950 40. Drafting Committee was chaired by: (a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar G9/SOC/PJ21 DATE: DAY: 3. ELECTORAL POLITICS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’? (a)Chaudhary Charan Singh (b)ChaudharyDeviLal (c) Ajit Singh (d) None of these 2.What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen? (a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen (b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans (c) He would modernise agriculture (d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them 3. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy? (a) India has the largest number of voters in the world (b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful (c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote (d) ) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict 4. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election? (a) Everyone is allowed to vote (b) There are political parties to contest elections (c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected (d) Elections are held at regular intervals 5. What is meant by the term ‘constituency’? (a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept (b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / VidhanSabha (c) A body of voters (d) None of the above 6.Which of the options below is the demerit of the electoral competition? (a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections (c) Parties respect each other (d) both (a) and (b) 7. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years? (a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha 8. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called- (a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections 9.What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called? (a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of these 10. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections? (a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535 G9/SOC/PJ22 11.Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to (a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly (c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies 12. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes? (a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71 13. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies? (a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha 14. Which of the options given below is applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise? (a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote (c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) only employed people can vote 15. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof? (a) Ration card (b) Driving license (c) Election Photo Identity Card (d) None of these 16. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha? (a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years 17. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections? (a) Serious criminal cases pending against them (b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family (c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above 18. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called? (a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b) 19 Name the body which conducts the elections in India (a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission 20. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen? (a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people (c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs 21. When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work? (a) Central Government (b) Election Commission (c) District Magistrate (d) District Court 22. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections? (a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women 23. What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean? (a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election (c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above 24.An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful Purpose is (a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact G9/SOC/PJ25 (d) None of the above 12. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha? (a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister 13. Two features of Indian judicial system are: (a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary (c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b) 14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed? (a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment (c) By the President alone (d) By the Police 15. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country? (a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament 16. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament’s power of amendment of the Constitution? (a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution (b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution (c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (d) None of the above 17. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights? (a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court (c) Election Commission (d) Legislature 18. What is a Public Interest Litigation? (a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public (b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements (c) Procedure of removal of a judge (d) None of the above 19. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive? (a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people (c) Political leaders are more educated (d) None of the above 20. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government? (a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker 21.Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister? (a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party (c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes (d) None of the above 22. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister? (a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure 23. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called? (a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government (c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government G9/SOC/PJ26 24. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution? (a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c) 25. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister? (a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings (b) He distributes work to the different departments (c) He can dismiss ministers (d) All the above 26. What is the position of the President? (a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state (c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above 27. Which of the following statements is not true? (a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws (c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives (d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants 28. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to (a) The President (b) the Prime Minister (c) The Rajya Sabha (d) the Lok Sabha 29. The president of India is elected by (a) Direct Election by citizens ... 18 years of age (b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College (c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers (d) None of the above 30. President of India is (a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State (c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above 31.The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister G9/SOC/PJ27 DATE: DAY: 5. DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay? (a) They had been caught spying. (b) They were planning to kill the US President. (c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA. (d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001. 2. Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws? (A) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice (c) Amnesty International (d) Supreme Court of USA 3. Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system? (a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary (b) Citizens cannot form political parties (c) There is no freedom of religion (d) none of the above 4. What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia? (a) Women are given all the rights (b) Women are given equal status with men (c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions (d) They are offered high positions 5. What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians? (a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians (b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians (c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians (d) Both (a) and (c) 6. How was the massacre of Albanians finally stopped? (a) The UN ordered for Milosevic’s arrest (b) Several countries intervened to stop the massacre (c) The Serbs turned against Milosevic (d) Milosevic reformed himself 7. What is meant by ‘rights’? (a) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others (b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government (c) Not possessing any freedoms (d) none of the above 8. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy (c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy (d) All the above G9/SOC/PJ30 (c) The state has no religion of its own (d) none of the above. 31. Civil Rights are given to the individual by: (a) Nature (b) God (c) The State (d) The people 32. The Indian Constitution prescribes Fundamental Rights in: (a) Part III (b) part VII (c) part V (d) part IV 33. Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution? (a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rajendra Prasad 34. The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law in the year: (a) 1993 (b) 1995 (c) 1999 (d) 2001 35.Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India? (a) Freedom of speech and expression (b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government (c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner (d) Freedom to form associations and unions 36. Which among the following is correct regarding PIL? (a) Public Interest Legislature (b) Public Interest Litigation (c) Public Information Litigation (d) Public Information Legislature 37. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen? (a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion (c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country (d) All the above 38.Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India? (a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture. (b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided educational organisations set up by cultural groups. (c) All minority groups have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. (d) None of these 39. Which one of the following is not a Political Right? (a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote (c) Right to seek any political office (d) Right to freedom 40. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the: (a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Vice President G9/SOC/PJ31 GEOGRAPHY G9/SOC/PJ32 DATE: DAY: 1. INDIA – SIZE AND LOCATION MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time? (a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T. (c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (d) None of the above 2.Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km? (a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal (c) Indira Gandhi Canal (d) Buckingham Canal 3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north? (a) Longitudinal extent (b) Latitudinal extent (c) Standard Meridian (d) All the above 4. The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30′E passes through which of the following places? (a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh (c) Kachchh in Gujarat (d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh 5.The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show in Gujarat if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh? (a) 4.16 am (b) 7.44 am (c) 6 am (d) 5.44 am 6. If the local time at Dwarka (69°01′E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am, what will be the local time at Dibrugarh (94°58′E approximately 95°), in Assam, in the east? (a) 4.16 am (b) 6 am (c) 7.44 am (d) 7.44 pm 7. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of: (a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 30 minutes 8. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of India which of the following alternatives do you observe about India’s size? (a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent (b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent (c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal (d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent 9. Approximately what is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland of India? (a) 97° (b) 68° (c) 30° (d) 8° 10. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude? (a) Young Fold Mountains (b) Sandy Desert (c) Lava Plateaus (d) Seas and Ocean 11.By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north-east? (a) Seas (b) Lave Plateaus (c) Young Fold Mountains (d) Sandy Desert 12. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world? (a) First (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Seventh G9/SOC/PJ35 DATE: DAY: 2. PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1.Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India? (a) Difference in rock formations (b) Weathering (c) Erosion and deposition (d) Land use 2.Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features? (a) Geological formations (b) Population density (c) Weathering (d) Erosion and deposition 3.Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms? (a)Theory of Motion (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics (c) Theory of Evolution (d) Theory of Relativity 4.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates? (a)Three (b) Five (c) Seven (d) Ten 5.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity? (a) Volcanic activity (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) Glaciation 6.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the following is formed? (a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary (c) Transform boundary (d) Colliding boundary 7.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of the following is formed? (a)Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary (c) Transform boundary (d) None of the above 8.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ in the event of two plates coming together, which of the following is not possible? (a)The plates may collide and crumble. (b) The plates may move horizontally past each other. (c) The plates may form divergent boundary. (d) One plate may slide under the other. 9.According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates? (a) Change in position and size of continents. (b) Formation of ocean basins. (c) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India. (d) All of the above. 10. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as (a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) None of the above G9/SOC/PJ36 11.Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass? (a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert 12. The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass? (a) Angaraland (b) Gondwanaland (c) Tethys (d) Eurasian Plate 13.Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland? (a) India (b) Australia (c) Europe (d) South America 14.The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger Eurasian plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision? (a) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates. (b) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed. (c) Sedimentary rocks accumulated in the Tethys geosyncline were folded. (d) India and Australia were formed. 15.Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the Tethys geosyncline? (a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert 16. The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this depression? (a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Coastal Plains 17.Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks? (a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert 18.From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an unstable zone? (a) The Himalayan Mountains (b) The Peninsular Plateau (c) The Indian Desert (d) The Islands 19. Which of the following are young-fold mountains? (a) The Aravalis (b) The Nilgiris (c) The Himalayas (d) The Sahyadri 20.Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India? (a) Kunlun Mountains (b) Plateau of Tibet (c) River Brahamaputra (d) The Himalayas 21.The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range? (a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Purvanchal 22.Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound? (a) Great Himalayas or Himadri (b) Lesser Himalayas or Himachal (c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal G9/SOC/PJ37 23.Which of the following is the highest peak in India? (a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanga Parbat (d) Nandadevi 24.Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas? (a)Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila (b) Nathula (c) Khyber pass (d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh 25.What are Lesser Himalayas known as? (a)Himadri (b) Himachal (c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal 26.Which of the following ranges are not part of the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal? (a) Pir Panjal (b) Dhaula Dhar (c) Mahabharat (d) Kamet 27.In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located? (a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Duns 28. Which of the following ranges of the Himalayas are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers? (a) The Pir Panjal range (b) The Karakoram range (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Ladakh range 29.The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as . (a) Kangra Valley (b) Patkai Bum (c) Passes (d) Duns 30. From west to east, the divisions of the Himalayas are demarcated by river valleys. The part of the Himalayas lying between the Satluj and Kali rivers is known as . (a) Punjab Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas (c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Assam Himalayas 31. Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ? (a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills (c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills (d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills 32. Which islands of India are called Coral Islands? (a) Lakshadweep (b) Andaman and Nicobar (c) both (d) None of these 33. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is: (a) Mound (b) Pass (c) Strait (d) Valley G9/SOC/PJ40 DATE: DAY: 4. CLIMATE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. What generally happens to air temperature as we move from the equator to the poles? (a) it decreases (b) it increases (c) it remains constant (d) None of the above 2. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in: (a) Early May (b) Early June (c) Early July (d) Early August 3. Which one of the following warm ocean currents replaces the Peruvian cold currents? (a) Kuroshio (b) El Nino (c) South Pacific Currents (d) Gulf Stream 4. Which is the coldest place in India? (a) Dras (b) Srinagar (c) Shimla (d) Jaipur 5. Which of the following states suffer from loo? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) None of these 6. What is the full form of ITCZ (a) International Tropical Convergence Zone (b) Interstate Tropical Convergence Zone (c) International Tropical Convergent Zone (d) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone 7. The amount of....................... present in the atmosphere is called Humidity (a) Smog (b) Dust (c) Pollution (d) Water Vapours 8. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India? (a) Warm days and warm nights (b) Warm days and cold nights (c) Cool days and cold nights (d) Cold days and warm nights 9. Which of the crop is associated with the winter rainfall? (a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these 10. Mawsynram ................ place on the earth is also famous for its stalagmites and stalactite caves. (a) Coldest (b) Hottest (c) Wettest (d) Driest 11. The term monsoon originates from (a) German (b) Hindi (c) Latin (d) Arabic 12. Which of the following forces is responsible for the deflection of winds from its normal path? (a) Centripetal Force (b) Coriolis Force (c) Applied Force (d) Gravitational Force 13. Mango showers helps in ripening of (a) Apples (b) Mangoes (c) Bananas (d) Coconut G9/SOC/PJ41 14. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India? (a) Cyclonic depression (b) Western disturbances (c) Retreating monsoon (d) Southwest monsoon 15. Mawsynram is located in which of the hills? (a) Garo Hills (b) Jainita Hills (c) Khasi Hills (d) Shillong Hills 16. Which of the following areas is not an area of low precipitation? (a) Western parts of Gujarat (b) Leh in Jammu & Kashmir (c) Deccan Plateau (d) Assam 17. Fast flowing and narrow air currents are called (a) Monsoon (b) Cyclone (c) Jet Streams (d) Anticyclone 18. Wind generally blow from areas of (a) Low Pressure to High Pressure (b) High Pressure to Low Pressure (c) Low Pressure to Moderate Pressure (d) None of these 19. How many seasons do we have in India? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 20. In which latitude of tropical areas are monsoon experienced? (a) 20oN and 20oE (b) 20oN and 20oS (c) 20oN and 20oW (d) 20oE and 20oW 21. Which one of the following is an element of weather? (a) Climate (b) Temperature (c) Humidity (d) Both (b) & (c) 22. Which imaginary line passes through the centre of our country? (a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn c) Tropic of Cancer (d) None of these 23. The state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time is called (a) Temperature (b) Climate (c) Weather (d) Air Pressure 24. Which of the following control is not affecting the climate of India? (a) Altitude (b) Cyclones (c) Latitude (d) Pressure & Winds 25. The seasonal reversal in wind direction during a year is called (a) Monsoon (b) Cyclone (c) Jet Streams (d) Anticyclone G9/SOC/PJ42 DATE: DAY: 5. NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. India belongs to which of the following categories according to natural vegetation and wildlife? a. A country lacking in biodiversity cover b. One of the twelve mega biodiversity countries of the world c. The country with the greatest forest cover d. None of these 2. Which is not included in the group of non-flowering plants? a. Orchids b. Algae c. Fungi d. None of these 3. Which type of vegetation does not belong to the category of natural vegetation? a. Horticulture b. Forests c. Mangroves d. All of these 4. Which term is used for the original plant cover of an area which has grown naturally? a. Garden b. Agriculture c. Virgin Vegetation d. Indigenous species 5. What is the position of India in the world with regard to plant diversity? a. First b. Tenth c. Twelfth d. None of these 6. Which term is used for virgin vegetation, which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants. a. Indigenous plants b. Endemic species c. Exotic Plants d. None of these 7. Which term is used for virgin vegetation which is purely Indian in origin? a. Normal species b. Endemic species c. Exotic species d. None of these 8. Which term is used to denote animal species of a particular region or period? a. Fauna b. Ferns c. Flora d. None of these 9. Which type of vegetation is common in fertile, level lands? a. Forests b. Cultivated crops c. Grasslands d. None of these 10. The yak, shaggy-horned wild ox and the Tibetan antelope are found in which one of the following regions? (a) Tibet (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Ladakh 11. Which term is used to denote plants of a particular region or period? a. Flora b. Fauna c. Ferns d. All of these 12. Which type of vegetation usually develops on undulating and rough terrains? a. Mangroves b. Grasslands and woodlands c. Cactus and thorny bushed d. None of these 13. Which type of vegetation grows in wet, marshy soil? a. Cactus b. Alpine vegetation c. Mangroves d. None of these 14. The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by which of the climatic factor? a. Temperature b. Humidity c. Precipitation d. All the above 15. Which factor influence the type and distribution of natural vegetation? a. Landform b. Soil c. Climate d. All the above G9/SOC/PJ45 14. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of: a. High death rate b. High married rate c. High birth rate d. None of these 15. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time? a. Age Composition b. Literacy Rate c. Sex Ratio d. Death Rate 16. Which one of the following state in India has a population density below 250 persons per square km? a. Punjab b. Haryana c. Chhattisgarh d. None of these 17. What is referred as the rate or pace of population increase per year? a. Annual growth rate b. Population change c. Absolute Increase d. None of these 18. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2001 census? a. 956 b. 973 c. 933 d. 945 19. What is referred as the number of people in different age groups? a. Adolescent population b. Age composition c. Sex ratio d. All of these 20. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census? a. 5 years b. 16 years c. 2 years d. 10 years G9/SOC/PJ46 ECONOMICS G9/SOC/PJ47 DATE: DAY: 1. THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following is grown in the rainy season? (a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soyabean (d) Rice 2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop? (a) Wheat b) Rice (c) Cotton (d) Jowar and bajra 3. Which of the following is fixed capital? (a) Tools and machines (b) Fertilisers and pesticides (c) Soil (d) Seeds 4. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land? (a) Bigha (b) Hectare (c) Acre (d) Guintha 5. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is (a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 80 6.Money in hand is an example of (a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital 7. HYV seeds stands for (a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds (c) Half yielding variety seeds (d) None 8. What is the main production activity in Palampur village? (a) Farming (b) Animal husbandry (c) Transport (d) Small-scale manufacturing 9. Multiple cropping means growing (a) only two crops (b) only three crops (c) upto four crops (d) more than one crop 10. Land under cultivation (in million hectares) in India in the year 2000 was (a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150 11. Which area in India has a low level of irrigation? (a) Deccan plateau (b) Coastal regions (c) Riverine plains (d) Both (a) and (b) 12. Modern farming methods were tried in India for the first time in (a) Punjab (b) Western U.P. (c) Haryana (d) All the above 13. Which of the following is a modern farming method? (a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds (c) Use of chemical fertilisers (d) Both (b) and (c) 14. Production of pulses (in million tonnes) in India during 2000-01 was (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12 G9/SOC/PJ50 DATE: DAY: 2. PEOPLE AS A RESOURCE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Why is literacy rate is low in the females? (a) Lack of equal education opportunities (b) lack of transport facilities (c) Lack of infrastructure (d) lack of income 2. Which state has highest literacy rate as per 2001? (a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa 3. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age group of 6-14 years? (a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (b) Adult Education Programme (c) Mid-day meal (d) none 4. Market activity known as production for (a) Exchange (b) earning income (c) earning profit (d) all the above 5. Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of (a) Good quality of life (b) improvement in health sector (c) Better HDI (Human Development Index) (d) all the above 6. What is Self-consumption is called (a) Non-production activity (b) non-market activity (c) Non-economic activity (d) none of the above 7. Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes (a) Trade (b) marketing (c) manufacturing (d) education 8. One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as (a) Student (b) adult (c) child (d) literate 9. What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world? (a) First (b) second (c) third (d) fourth 10. Investment in human capital is expenditure on (a) Education (b) training (c) medical care (d) all the above 11. The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is (a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas (c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) none of the above 12. Services of housewives are included in (a) National income (b) domestic income (c) household income (d) none of the above 13. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years G9/SOC/PJ51 14. Choose the non-market activities (i) Vilas sells fish in the village market (ii) Vilas cooks food for his family (iii) Sakal works in a private firm (iv) Sakal looks after his younger brother and sister (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv) 15. Which one from the following is the primary sector activity? (i) Forestry (ii) Poultry farming (iii) Animal husbandry (iv) Manufacturing (a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All the above 16. What are Tertiary sector provides (a) Services (b) goods (c) Both goods and services (d) none of the above 17. The quality of population depends on (a) Literacy rate (b) health (c) Skill (d) all the above 18. People as a resource refers to the (a) Educational skills (b) productive skills (c) Health skills (d) none of the above 19. Where is Seasonal unemployment found? (a) Urban areas (b) rural areas (c) In remote areas (d) both in rural and urban areas 20. Bribe taking by parent is an (a) Economic activity (b) marketing activity (c) Non-economic activity (d) none of the above 21. The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under (a) Seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment (c) educated unemployment (d) none of the above 22. Disguised unemployment when the number of persons working on a farm is (a) Only what is required (b) more than required (c) Less than required (d) None of the above 23. If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called? (a) Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment (c) Seasonal unemployment (d) none of these 24.What is the literacy rate of India as per 2011 census? (a) 60% (b) 62% (c) 74.04% (d) 70% 25. What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census? (a) 921 females per 1000 (b) 930 females per 1000 (c) 928 females per 1000 (d) 933 females per 1000 26. Forestry and dairy are related to which? (a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above G9/SOC/PJ52 27. What is the expended form of PHC? (a) Public Health Club (b) Private Health Club (c) Primary Health Centre (d) None of these 28. From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found? (a) Industries (b) Agriculture (c) Mining (d) Fisheries 29. What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan? (a) To provide elementary education to women (b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor (c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years (d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor 30. Which one from the following is related to the tertiary sector? (a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (c) Mining (d) Communication 31. Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector? (a) Agriculture (b) Fisheries (c) Poultry farming (d) Mining 32. Which one is an economic activity in the following? (a) Work of Nurse at her home (b) Work of Doctor at their home (c) Work of Teacher in the school (d) none of the above 33. Which one of the following is considered important to create a 'virtuous cycle' by the parents? (a) To send their children to the school (b) To provide goods food to their children (c) To join their children in corporate schools (d) To take care of the health and education of their children 34. Infant mortality rate in 2001 was: (a) 85 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 35 35. What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000? (a) 72 years (b) 53 years (c) 64 years (d) 80 years 36. Tenth Plan endeavoured to increase enrolment in higher education from 6% to: (a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12% 37. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies: (a) Increase in life expectancy (b) Increase in GNP (c) Economic development of a country (d) Increase in number of colleges in a country 38. Which one is odd in the following (with reference to population)? (a) Education (b) Medical Care (c) Training (d) Computers 39. The number of females per thousand males refers to: (a) Sex Ratio (b) Literacy Rate (c) Infant Mortality Rate (d) Birth Rate G9/SOC/PJ55 30. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns? (a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana 31. For how many days MNREGA provides employment? (a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100 32.Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty? (a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour (c) Rural agricultural households (d) All the above 33.By which year governments are aiming to meet the Millennium Development Goals including halving the rate of global poverty? (a) 2011 (b) 2015 (c) 2045 (d) 2035 34.Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India? (a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land (c) Gap between rich and the poor (d) Increase in population 35. In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001? (a) Sub-Saharan Africa (b) India (c) China (d) Russia 36. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because: (a) They do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas. (b) Food items are expensive. (c) They are engaged in mental work. (d) People are engaged in physical labour. 37. Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India? (a) Income level (b) Illiteracy level (c) Employment level (d) All of these 38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India? (a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting (c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes 39. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period? (a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above 40. Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio? (a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka G9/SOC/PJ56 DATE: DAY: 4. FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. The most affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are: (a) Landless people (b) traditional artisans (c) Beggars (d) all the above 2. MSP is stand for: (a) Minimum Support Price (b) Maximum Support Price (c) Marginal Support Price (d) None of these 3. Green Revolution of 1960s was associated with: (a) Use of HYV seeds (b) tree plantation programme (c) Fisheries development (d) none of these 4. P D S is associated with: (a) Fair price shops (b) cooperative stores (c) Super bazaars (d) none of the above 5. Revamped Public Distribution System provides benefits to: (a) Cities (b) remote and backward areas (c) Self-help groups (d) cooperative societies 6. White Revolution of the country is associated to: (a) Sugar (b) milk (c) paper (d) none of the above 7. Annapurna Scheme fulfils the food requirements of: (a) Indigent senior citizens (b) children (c) pregnant ladies (d) young persons 8. Antyodaya cards are related to (a) All poor (b) poorest of the poor (c) persons below poverty line (d) none of the above 9. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with: (a) Public distribution system (b) mid-day meal (c) special nutrition programme (d) none of the above 10. Under the Public Distribution System food grains given per family per month are: (a) 40 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 20 kg 11. In which state more than 90% ration shops are run by cooperatives (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar 12. The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is: (a) Amul (Gujarat) (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra) (c) Mother Dairy (Delhi) (d) None of the above 13. NREGA provides: (a) 200-days of assured work (b) 100-days of assured work (c) No assured work (d) None of the above G9/SOC/PJ57 14. Minimum Support Price is announced by the government to provide (a) incentives to farmers for raising production (b) incentives to traders to earn maximum profit from farmers (c) incentives to moneylenders to lend maximum to farmers (d) none of the above 15. Seasonal hunger mostly found in (a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) metro cities (d) both (a) and (b) 16. In which crop largest increase in production as a result of Green Revolution? (a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) none of the above 17. Main purpose of buffer stock is (a) to save food grains from pest attack (b) to stop price fluctuations (c) to meet the crisis of low production (d) both (b) and (c) 18. Who is the nodal officer at district level? (a) Commissioner (b) Superintendent of police (c) District officer (d) Collector 19.What is Food security means (a) availability of food (b) accessibility of food (c) affordability of food (d) all the above 20. Massive starvation takes place due to (a) rise in the price of essential commodities (b) decline in production of foodgrains (c) drought (d) both (a) and (b) 21. Chronic hunger refers to (a) low income (b) inadequate quantity of food (c) inadequate quality of food (d) all the above 22. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in (a) Assam (b) Bengal (c) Bihar (d) Orissa 23. In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people? (a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat (c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamilnadu (d) Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka 24. In which state of India, Amul Dairy is situated? (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Bihar 25. Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru 26. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called (a) Issue price (b) Fair price (c) Market price (d) Minimum support price 27. To whom the yellow card is issued? (a) To shop keeper (b) To land lord's (c) To government employee (d) People below the poverty line