South NSG 6020 3P’s EXAM Questions And Answers,Latest Update Best Exam Solution Correctly, Exams of Nursing

Download South NSG 6020 3P’s EXAM Questions And Answers,Latest Update Best Exam Solution Correctly and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! South NSG 6020 3P’s EXAM Questions And Answers,Latest Update Best Exam Solution Correctly Tested And Verified With 100% Guaranteed Success 1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means: a) have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen b) dilated the eye and retest c) refer the patient to an ophthalmologist d) document this as a normal finding 2. The American psychiatric association’s diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorder defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy a) a self-inflicted injury to gain attention b) a caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care c) an abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver d) a situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick. 3. Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication? a) dopamine serotonin, norepinephrine b) gabapentin c) mil d) cortisol 4. Which lesion is dark raised and asymmetric with irregular border? Quizlet Bates Chapter 20 a) Nevus b) Actinic keratosis c) Keratoacanthoma d) Melanoma 5. A 32 years old woman presents with dull puffiness of the ayes pronounced not pitting periorbital edema this finding is suggestive of this condition? APEA a) Nephrotic syndrome b) Myxedema c) Cushing syndrome d) Sinusitis Myxedema is a deposition of mucopolysaccarides in the dermis. Is commonly found if patients with advanced hypothyroidism. The classic skin changes are: swelling of face, lips, eyelids, and tongue or swelling and thickening of skin anywhere on the body, especially in the lower legs. Myxedema is the hallmark of Grave’s disease, an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism. Myxedema can also occur in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis a form of hypothyroidism. 6. A 42 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the Nurse practitioner prescribe? a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Amitriptyline (Elavil) c) Verapamil (verelan) d) Metoprolol (Lopressor) Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepresant and is considered offlabel use for prophylactic treatment of migrane. Sumatriptan (Imimtrex) Is aTriptans used to abort migraine 7. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia. This clinical finding is consistent with: a) Tinea capitis b) Seborrheic dermatitis c) Trichotillomania d) Alopecia areata 8. What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches? a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Propanolol (Inderal) c) Ibuprofeno (motrin) d) Dihydroergotamine (DHE) 9. Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36 year old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking and sedentary life a) She is obese b) She has type 2 diabetes mellitus c) Her age and tobacco use d) She leads a sedentary lifestyle Combined oral contraceptive is contraindicated in women older than 45, breastfeeding, smoking, HTN, diabetes or hx of stroke 10. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman the NP detects a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further evaluation. a) Fibroadenoma b) Polycystic breast disease Generalized breast pain or tenderness. Green or dark brown nonbloody nipple discharge that tends to leak without pressure or squeezing c) An intraductal papilloma d) Pituitary prolactinoma Intraductal papillomas are usually solitary and smaller than 1 cm. They are located in large lactiferous sinuses or ducts and have a tendency to bleed. Quizlet Nipple Discharge d) For 30 days to 5 weeks Because iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach, patients should be advised to take the supplement an hour before meals. Most patients can use the less expensive, more standard forms of ferrous sulfate (Quizlet Hematology Cht 33) 21. Which one of the following statements is true of Munchausen syndrome by proxy? a) The injury is self-inflicted as the patient is seeking attention from others b) Under the supervision of adults other than the abuser, the patient does not exhibit symptoms c) The caregiver is usually not involver in the abusive behavior d) The abuser is often inattentive and uncaring towards the victim Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSP) is a mental illness. It is also a form of child abuse. It affects caregivers, especially caregivers of children. It is also known as factitious disorder by proxy. Mothers of small children are most often affected by this condition. Fathers or other caregivers can have it as well. 22. Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of substance abuse in adolescents? a) Poor school performance b) change in sleep habits c) increased blood pressure d) changes in behavior 23. A woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has a maternity history of one full term vaginal delivery, a set of premature triplets delivered vaginally, and a first trimester abortion. Using her TPAL system to document her maternal status a) Gravida 4 para 1114 b) Gravida 4, para 1314 4 is the number of living children GTPAL c. Gravida 3, para 1114 c) Gravida 3, para 1112 Gravida, Term babies, Preterm babies, Abort and Living child 24. The nurse practitioner palpates an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node in a 30 years old patient. The Nurse Practitioner should asses the patents a) Throat, face, and right ear b) Neck and supraclavicular region c) Right forearm and hand d) Right groin and abdomen Lower arm and hand for erythema and swelling 25. Anticholinergics are indicated for the treatment of a) Asymptomatic bacteriuria b) Renal insufficiency c) Urge incontinence d) Overflow incontinence Anticholinergics are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine. Anticholinergics can treat a variety of conditions, including: urinary incontinence , overactive bladder , COPD, They also help block involuntary muscle movements associated with certain diseases such as Parkinson’s disease. 26. A patient presents with signs of chest pain, the nurse practitioner observes jugular venous distention. Their finding is consistent with a) Hypertension b) Heart failure c) Asthma d) Pneumonia Heart failure causes decreased cardiac output when the heart fails as a pump and the circulation becomes backed up and congested. Signs and symptoms: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, decreased blood pressure, dependent, pitting edema; anxiety; confusion; jugular vein distention; fatigue. The S3 may be the earliest sign of heart failure.(Studyblue) 27. On examination of the neck, a dome shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as a) Keloid b) Tophi c) A cutaneous cyst d) Chondrodermatitis Dome-shaped lump in the dermis forms a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis. A dark dot (blackhead) may be visible on its surface. Usually either an Epidermoid cyst (common on face/neck) or pilar (trichilemmal) cyst (common in the scalp). Both may become inflamed. Error! Filename not specified. 28. Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with: a) Hiatal hernia b) Gastroesophageal reflux c) Peptic ulcer disease d) Esophageal cancer Classic GERD symptoms are: Heartburn, Regurgitation: bitter, acidic fluid in the mouth when lying down or bending over 29. A 70 years old man walks 20 minutes most days of the week. He has begun to complain of pain of his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 20 minutes walks without stopping to rest. What choice best describes the pain associated with peripheral artery disease? a) A sharp, stabbing pain b) A dull pain and cramp c) An electric shock d) A pulsating pain Peripheral Artery disease signs and symptoms include: Painful cramping after certain activities, such as walking or climbing stairs (claudication), Leg numbness or weakness, Coldness in leg or foot, especially when compared with the other side, Sores on toes, feet or legs that won't heal, A change in the color , Hair loss or slower hair growth, Shiny skin, No pulse or a weak pulse in legs or feet 30. Papilledema is a cause for concern because it is suggestive of a) Optic atrophy b) Microaneurysms c) Increased intracranial pressure d) Retinal hemorrhage Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure. 31. A 38-year-old patient with a history of abdominal pain presents to the nurse practitioner. Findings reveal superficial edema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue around the umbilicus. Hemorrhagic pancreatic is suspected because of which finding? a) A positive Gray Turner’s sign b) A positive Cullen’s sign c) Kaposi’s sarcoma d) Petechiae 32. A 57 years old post-menopausal female presents with a complaint of vaginal burning, pruritus and painful intercourse. On examination, the nurse practitioner would be most concern with the findings Increased growth hormone produces enlargement of bone and soft tissues. Head elongated with bony prominence of forehead nose, and lower jaw. Soft tissues enlarge. Coarsened features. (Quizlet HEENT Abnormality Tables) 43. Why would a child diagnosed with beta thalassemia and hemosiderosis receive deferoxamine (desferal)? a) To prevent blood transfusion reactions b) To simulate red blood cell production c) To improve the oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs d) To eliminate excessive iron and prevent organ damage given SQ by pump overnight to prevent free iron released with RBC destruction from building up in tissues; binds the free iron so it doesn't do damage in tissues (Quizlet Hematology and Oncology Unit 6) 44. A patient has newly diagnosed hypothyroidism. What are the patients TSH level expected to be? a) Higher than normal b) Lower than normal c) Within normal range d) TSH is not used to diagnose hypothyroidism Suggest that the provider lower the dose. 45. Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis? a) Absence of symptoms b) Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area. c) Rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles d) Poor muscle coordination Other symptoms of secondary syphilis include: sore throat. fever. swollen lymph glands. headaches. fatigue. muscle aches. wart-like patches around skin folds or genitals. 46. An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of: a) Constipation b) Fecal incontinence c) Urinary tract infections d) Prostate cancer BPH increases the risk of: Acute urinary retention , UTI and Sepsis. 47. A characteristic lesion observed in a male with primary syphilis is a: A) Group of small scattered vesicles B) Chancre C) Papule of many shapes D) Non-tender penile indurated nodule Primary syphilis typically presents as a solitary, painless chancre, whereas secondary syphilis can have a wide variety of symptoms, especially fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, and genital or perineal condyloma latum. 48. During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe a) Colchicine (Colcrys) b) Allopurinol (zyloprim) c) Steroids d) NSAIDS Colchicine has two distinct applications in gout. First, it can be used to treat an acute gouty attack. Second, it can help prevent attacks in chronic gout 49. What two vitamins and minerals should be included in oral multivitamins in women a) Folic Acid and Vitamin C b) Iron and Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin D and Iron d) Folic Acid and Iron 50. In a patient with bacterial meningitis, the most common reason for finding of headaches: a) Meningeal erythema b) Increased intracranial pressure c) Meningeal irritation d) Swelling of the spinal cord 51. Janeway lesions, petechiae and Oster nodes are associated with: a) Gonococcemia b) Infective endocarditis c) Hyperthyroidism d) Peripheral vascular disease 52. A patient present with decreased hearing related to antibiotic use. Which class of antibiotics is this? a) Aminoglycosides b) Beta-lactams c) Cephalosporins d) Macrolides Aminoglycosides antibiotics, vancomycin and aspirin are some medication that can cause hearing loss. 53. Which antihypertensive would be appropriate to prescribe for a hypertensive patient (B/P 150/95) that is in her third trimester? a) Candesartan b) Lisinopril c) Methyldopa d) Furosemide Oral methyldopa has been assigned to pregnancy category B. Methyldopa is a drug of first choice for control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most widely prescribed antihypertensive 54. A 40-year-old admits to multiple sex partners presents with several lesions over his body. Finding reveals hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet. These lesions are most likely associated with: a) Gonococcemia b) Infective endocarditis c) Hyperthyroidism d) Peripheral vascular disease 55. Which agent is NOT useful in prophylactic treatment of migraine headaches? a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Amitriptyline (elavil) c) Verapamil (verelant) d) Metropolol (lopresor) Sumatriptan is used to treat migraines (not to prevent it). It helps to relieve headache, pain, and other migraine symptoms (including nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light/sound). 56. The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following expect the (APEA) a) Right side of the heard b) Right upper thorax c) Right arm b) Constipation c) Orthostatic hypotension d) Urinary retention 66. Examination of the hair reveals a fine silky appearance. This finding may be seen in patients that have: a) Hypothyroidism b) Hyperthyroidism c) Type 2 diabetes d) Celiac disease 67. A patient develops a cough secondary to an angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE). The most appropriate statement related to ACE-I cough is that the cough typically: a) Resolves within a week after stopping the ACE inhibitor b) Resolves with splitting the daily dose to twice daily dosing c) Occurs with an angiotensin- II receptor blocker (ARB) d) Affects men more than women A dry hacking cough usually begins 1-2 weeks of starting ACE, but may occur up to 6 months later. Typically resolves 1-4 days of discontinuation of therapy, buy may linger up to 4 weeks 68. A patient with a diagnosis of giardiasis is being treated with metronidazole (flagyl). What information would be important to obtain before prescribing this medication? a) If the patient allergic to sulfa b) If the patient has peptic ulcer disease c) If the patient is at least 18 year of age d) If the patient drinks alcohol 69. A 20 years old male living in the college dorm, complains of a dry cough for the past month. Assessment finding associated with an atypical, community acquired pneumonia would include: a) A low-grade fever, malaise, and clear lung fields on auscultation b) A low-grade fever, malaise, and crackles audible throughout the lung fields c) Temperature of 1010 F, sore throat, and diminished breath sounds on auscultation d) Temperature of 1020 F, dyspnea, and diminished lung sounds on auscultation 70. The most appropriate medication indicated for reversing the anticoagulated effects of dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) a) Idarucizumab (Praxbind) b) Vitamin K c) Protamine sulfate d) Fondaparinux (Arixtra) 71. A common pathological finding in patient with asthma a) Necrosis of small airway b) Absence of goblet cells c) Absence of ciliary regeneration d) Hypertrophy of smooth muscle 72. Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement? a) CN II, III, IV b) CN III, IV, VI c) CN II, IV, VI d) CN III, IV, VII oculomotor (III) nerve, trochlear (IV) nerve and the abducen (VI) nerve. 73. The typical presentation of severe acute aortic regurgitation (AR) includes sudden severe shortness of breath rapidly developing heart failure, and: a) Dry cough b) Chest pain c) Decreased blood pressure d) Systolic murmur 74. Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the: a) Flank b) Abdomen c) Back d) Suprapubic Renal and urethral pain is usually located in the flank area, abdomen or groin. 75. When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender, swollen, boggy and warm. This finding is consistent with: a) A normal prostate gland b) Acute bacterial prostatitis c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia d) Carcinoma of the prostate. A boggy prostate describes a gland that is edematous and tender such as in patients with bacterial prostatitis. 76. This contagious disease causes fever, headache, stiff neck, photophobia, nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status. What immunization prevents this? a) Meningococcal vaccine b) Pneumococcal vaccine c) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine d) Varicella vaccine 77. Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following a) New onset after 50 b) Aggravated or relieved by change or position c) Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver d) Headaches relieved with mild recurrent use of analgesics 78. Serotonin Syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with: a) Depression b) Anxiety c) Increased levels of serotonin d) Chlylothorax 79. Which one of the following statements about treating scabies with lindane (Kewell) is correct? Know that Nix is the treatment. a) Lindane is safe to use in pregnant women, babies, children, and the elderly b) Lindane lotion and/or shampoo in not considered first-line therapy c) Repeated applications of lindane can be used if there has been a twelve-hour interval d) Lindane can be used in patient with a history of seizures. 90. Alpha-adrenergic blocker increases urine outflow in males by: a) Improving detrusor muscle stability b) Shrinking the prostate gland c) Relaxing prostate smooth muscle d) Dilating the urethral vasculature 91. The scoliosis patient who would cause the greatest concern for the nurse practitioner is a: a) 13 y/o female with a 100 curve b) 17 y/o female with a 100 curve c) 12 y/o female with a 50 curve d) 18 y/o female with a 50 curve 92. Which finding bellow would be unusual in a patient with diabetic retinopathy? a) Papilledema b) Dot and blot hemorrhages c) Microaneurysms d) Cotton wool spots 93. Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks? a) At the level of the umbilicus b) At the level of the symphysis pubis c) Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus d) Bellow the symphysis pubis 94. Ophthalmoscopic examination of a 40 years old carpenter reveals a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea. This condition is termed: a) Corneal arcus b) Corneal scar c) Pterygium d) Cataract A pterygium is a growth of the conjunctiva (triangular thickening) that covers the cornea. 95. A patient calls the nurse practitioner, and states that he missed his morning daily dose of warfarin, 5 mg yesterday and today. The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to: a) Wait until tomorrow and resume daily dosing of warfarin 5 mg. b) Take warfarin 10 mg now c) Take warfarin 5 mg now, warfarin 5 mg at 5 pm, today and resume the daily warfarin 5 mg dose in the morning as schedule d) take warfarin 5 mg now and resume the warfarin 5 mg daily dose in the morning as schedule. 96. What common clinical finding is present in a patient who has croup? a) Barking cough b) Sudden onset of symptoms c) Nighttime symptoms d) Shortness of breath 97. A type of breast cancer that begins with erythema and swelling of the breast and progresses rapidly is termed: a) Paget’s disease b) Invasive ductal carcinoma c) Inflammatory breast cancer d) Invasive locular carcinoma 98. Salmeterol (sereventR) in combination with an inhaled steroid is prescribed for a patient with moderate persistent asthma. What is the most important teaching point about salmeterol? a) It is not effective during an acute asthma attack b) It may take 2 to 3 weeks to begin working c) The drug works within 10 minutes d) The drug may be used bay patients 6 years older. 99. A 50 years old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions: a) Orchitis b) Epididymitis c) Hydrocele d) Prostatitis Hydrocele is produced by fluid in the sac which normally surrounds the testicle. It often presents as painless swelling in the scrotum 100. Risk factors associated with breast cancer include all of the following except: a) Personal family history of breast cancer b) Use of hormone replacement therapy c) Post-menopausal obesity d) Low socioeconomic status. 101. A patient who has a sulfa allergy can safely take: a) A sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Celecoxib (Celebrex) c) Glimepiride (amaryl) d) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) 102. Which group of lymph nodes are locating on the medial surface of the arm approximately 3 cm above the elbow? a) Lateral axillary nodes b) Infraclavicular nodes c) Epitrochlear nodes d) Submental nodes The epitrochlear lymph nodes, also known as the cubital or supraepitrochlear lymph nodes, are part of the superficial lymphatic system of the upper limb. The epitrochlear nodes are in the subcutaneous connective tissue on the medial aspect of the elbow, about 4–5 cm above the humeral epitrochlea. 103. An elderly patient has been diagnosed with a cataract. What structure in the eye has become diseased? a) Retina b) Cornea c) Lens d) Optic nerve A cataract is a clouding of the lens in the eye that affects vision. Most cataracts are related to aging. 104. A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the: a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus c) Levator scapulae muscle d) Subscapularis Muscles: supraspinatus (initiates abduction - first 15 degrees), deltoid (up to 90 degrees), trapezius and serratus anterior (scapular rotation, for abduction beyond 90 degrees). The deltoid muscle abducts the arm, but at 90 degrees the humerus bumps into the acromion. 105. A patient with bulimia is likely to be: a) Very overweight b) Very underweight c) Of average weight d) Not concerned with weigh 106. Chronic bloody diarrhea could be suggestive of: a) Irritable bowel syndrome b) Crohn’s disease c) Hepatitis A d) Celiac disease 119) which form of urinary incontinence is present in a patient with Alzheimer’s disease who is unable to reach the toilet in time? (APEA) a) Functional incontinence b) Overflow incontinence c) Urge incontinence d) Stress incontinence Possible causes of functional incontinence include: poor vision, psychological issues, environmental barriers to using the restroom, cognitive issues, including forms of dementia, delirium, and intellectual disabilities, neurological or muscular limitations, such as arthritis 120) a 27y/o male patient presents with a painless chancre on the shaft of his penis and regional lymphadenopathy. He is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The best initial treatment is: a) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) b) Clindamycin (cleocin) c) Metronidazole (flagyl) d) Benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L.A) 121) An 80 y/o man is being evaluated for recent episodes of incontinence and confusion. His family states that he is usually independent with no altered mental issues, but has become forgetful within the last 2 weeks. Which medication is most likely associated with there symptoms ? a) Cimetidine (tagamet) b) Warfarin (coumadin) c) Ramipril (altace) d) Vitamin b12 122) When ordering an oral diabetes medication for a 72 y/o patient with a recent hx of decreased appetite and ongoing risk of hypoglycemia. The NP should Rx. a) Tolbutamide (orinase) b) Glipizide (Glucotol XL) c) Metformin (Gucophage) d) Chlorpopamide (diabinese) 123) to increases urine outflow in men with BPH, the NP should prescribe a) An alpha blocker b) An alpha agonist c) A calcium channel blocker d) A diuretic 124) A 64 y/o man c/o leg pain and occasional numbness that worsens with ambulation and improves with lumbar flexion. The symptoms are consistent with: a) Ankylosing spondylitis b) Spinal stenosis c) Bursitis d) Cauda equina syndrome Spinal stenosis or pseudoclaudication refer to pain in the back or legs when the patient walks but improves with rest, lumbar flexion or both. 125) which is a true statement about varicose veins? a) They are due to congenital valve deformities b) They are usually dx on clinical presentation c) They are not affected by pregnancy d) They are more symptomatic during ovulation Varicose veins are most often diagnosed with a physical exam, including examining your legs while you are standing. A weakened valve allows backflow of blood to the previous valve in a vein 126) a 17 y/o is dx. With mild bronchospasm. Which of the following would provide relief? a) Inhaled mometasone ( Asmanex) b) Inhaled levalbuterol (Xopenex) c) Oral mentelukast (Singulair) d) Oral dextromethorphan/guaifenesin product 127) a common cause of decrease libido in men is due to? a) Decrease blood flow in the hypogastric arterial system b) Endocrine dysfunction c) Neurologic deficit d) Impaired neural innervation 128) what should be included in the initial tx of bacterial epididymitis in a sexually active 22 y/0 male? a) Doxycycline and ceftriaxone b) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole c) Ciprofloxacin and fluconazole d) Levofloxacin and cephalexin In young men the usual cause is a sexually transmitted microorganism 129) which assessment findings are NOT associated with pyloric stenosis in a 2 month old infant? a) Projectile vomiting b) Severe dehydration as demonstrated by sunken eyeballs and depressed anterior fontanelle c) A bloated and tense tympanic abdomen d) A palpable mass the size and shape of an olive, located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen 130) hyperkalemia is associated with a) Increase BP b) Alpha-blockers c) Diminished renal function d) Loop diuretics chronic renal failure, hypoaldosteronism, and massive tissue breakdown as in rhabdomyolysis, are typical conditions leading to hyperkalemia. 131) the assessment of a 72 y/o male causes the NP to have concerns that the pt. is a suicide risk. Risk factors for suicide in the elderly do NOT include a) Chronic pain b) Comorbid physical illness c) Family hx of suicide d) Retirement 132) A pregnant pt presents for a routine 16 week prenatal visit. Her BP has decreased from 119/78 mm/Hg at her 12 week visit to 110/69 mmHg. What hemodynamic for the decrease BP? The safest choices are amoxicillin (moxatag), cefuroxime (Zinafed), cephalexin (Keflex) and Nicrofurantoin (Microbid) 143) which of the following medication is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms? a) Baclofen (lioresal) b) Tizanidine (Zanaflex) c) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) d) Carisoprodol (Soma) Antispastics are used to treat muscle spasticity. They should NOT be use to treat muscle spasms. Baclofen is used to relieve spasticity caused by MS. 144) during an abdominal examination the NP percusses the bulging area of the abdomen. Which sounds suggest the presence a) Tympanic b) Dullness c) Hyperresonant sounds d) Normal resonance 145) which pathogen is associated with common urinary tract infections? a) e.coli b) klebsiella c) streptococcus d) proteus mirabilis 146) which condition is caused by an insufficient production of intrinsic factor by gastric mucosa and vitamin B insufficiency? a) Diarrhea b) Pernicious anemia c) Osteoporosis d) Muscle weakness 147) A multiparous pregnant patient presents at 24 weeks gestation with complain of painless vaginal bleeding. This presentation is consistent with: a) Placenta accreta b) Placenta previa c) Placenta percreta d) Placental abruption Placenta accreta poses a major risk of severe vaginal bleeding (hemorrhage) after delivery. Placenta previa vary, but the most common symptom is painless bleeding during the third trimester. 148) when measuring the fundal high of a pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation, which measurement would the NP suspect fetal growth a) 29 cm b) 30cm c) 31cm d) 32 cm Fundal height is generally defined as the distance from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus measured in centimeters. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, your fundal height measurement often matches the number of weeks you've been pregnant. 149) A 40 y/o female, the overall texture of the breast is soft, with an uneven contour bilaterally. The NP informs the patient that: a) Warrants a mammogram b) Is considered normal c) May be suggestive of fibroadenoma d) May indicate cystic breast 150) A 74 y/o man who recently lost his spouse of 50 years in an auto accident tells the NP that “ he has no purpose in this life” a. Have you told your family how you feel? b. Have you thought about hurting yourself? c. Are you taking your medication? d. Do you have any friends? 151) A 67 y/o woman with Hx of A-fib and an ejection fraction of 48% has had normal digoxin levels. Which can cause a decrease of digoxin level? a. Decrease creatinine clearance b. Weight loss c. Increase exercise d. Regular use of antacid 152) 5-alpha reductase inhibitor work to improve symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia by? a. Decreasing the size of the prostate b. Increasing blood flow to the prostate c. Relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder neck d. Relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate capsule 5-alpha reductase such as finasteride reduced amount of dihydrotestosterone in the prostate causing it to shrink. This helps you to pass urine more easily. 153) which medication is indicated for patients with generalized anxiety disorder? a. Buspirone (Buspar) b. Citalopram (Celexa) c. Imipramine (Tofranil) d. Bupropion HCL (Welbutrin) Buspirone (Buspar) is an antianxiolytic, the other choices are antidepressants 154) pregnant women are evaluated for syphilis with serology testing because: a. Syphilis during pregnancy predisposes the fetus to spontaneously abort or the newborn to have congenital syphilis b. Hormonal changes associated with pregnancy may trigger activation of latent syphilis c. Syphilis may be passed to the fetus beginning in the third trimester d. Untreated syphilis can cause neonatal respiratory distress Syphilis can seriously complicate pregnancy and result in spontaneous abortion, stillborn, non- immune hydrops, intrauterine growth restriction and perinatal death, as well as liveborn infected children