STERILE PROCESSING FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE CHAPTERS 1-23 2024/2025 VERIFIED 100% CORRECT, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Nursing

Download STERILE PROCESSING FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE CHAPTERS 1-23 2024/2025 VERIFIED 100% CORRECT and more Study Guides, Projects, Research Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! STERILE PROCESSING FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE CHAPTERS 1-23 2024/2025 VERIFIED 100% CORRECT What is Central Service ? - answerCentralized distribution of supplies to all customers in the hospital. What is the Central Service One Way Work Flow ? - answer-Decontamination (soiled) -Preparation, Packaging, Sterilization (clean) -Sterile Storage (sterile) What is the purpose of a One Way Work Flow ? - answerTo prevent cross contamination. Decontamination - answerPhysically or chemically render instruments or equipment that may be contaminated with harmful micro organisms to make it safe to handle. Negative air flow - answerAir flows into a room from other surrounding areas, pressure is less than other adjacent areas. Positive Air Pressure - answerMaintains air flow out of a room, this helps with keeping all dust particles and microorganisms out. Standard Precautions - answerTreat everyone and everything as infected /contaminated. Job Description - answerDefine and communicate job duties and requirements in organization. Nosocomial Infection - answerHospital Acquired Infection. Textile Packaging Materials should be held at a room temperature of and a relative humidity of for a minimum of prior to sterilization. - answer-64-72 degrees F -35-70% -2 Hours Superheating - answerWhen steam is at a temperature which exceeds that of saturated steam at the same pressure. Linen packaging material is limited to a size of ,not weigh more than , and maximum density must not exceed . - answer-12x12x20 -12 lbs -7.2 lbs What is a wet pack? - answerContainers with moisture after the sterilization process is complete. What are the 2 flat wrapping techniques and the 2 folds? - answer-Sequential -Simultaneous -Square Fold -Envelope Fold Wrapped pans of instruments should not exceed in weight. - answer16 lbs What is the maximum weight for containerized instrument sets recommended by AAMI/ANSI? - answer25 lbs Wrapped basin sets should not exceed . - answer7 lbs Sterility (time-related) - answerPackage is considered sterile until a specific expiration date is reached. Sterility (event-related) - answerItems are considered sterile unless the integrity of the packaging is compromised or suspected of being compromised. Name the 4 things that event-related sterility depends on. - answer1. Quality of the wrapping material. 2. Handling procedures. 3. Storage and transport conditions. 4. Number of times the package has been handled (4 times). Name 4 concerns when it comes to packaging. - answer1. Moisture contamination. 2. Dirt, Dust, and Debris. 3. Physical damage. 4. Breakdown of packaging material due to wear of age. Sterile Storage standards, temperatures should be at and relative humidity should be less than . - answer- 64-75 degrees F - 75% Sterile storage standards, sterile items should be stored at least away from exterior walls, above the floor and from the ceiling. - answer-2 inches -8-10 inches What is Passivation? - answerA chemical process applied during instrument manufacture that provides a corrosion-resistant finish by forming a thin transparent oxide film. Scissors 4 1/2" and larger use a test material and scissors 4" or smaller use material to check blades for sharpness. - answer-red -yellow 4. Right Ventricle (lower) Bacteria are often classified by their what? - answer-Shape -Color change -Need for oxygen What are the 2 common stain tests? - answer-Gram stain (purple is gram positive) (pink is gram negative) -Ziehl-Nelson (acid-fast stain) (bright red) likes cold temperatures, likes moderate temperatures, and likes warm temperatures. - answer-Psychrophiles -Mesophiles -Thermophiles What does MRSA stand for? - answerMethicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus What does VRE stand for? - answerVancomycin-Resistant Eneterococcus How do bacteria reproduce? - answerBy a process called Binary fission. What is the chain of infection? Please explain. - answer1. Causative agent- microorganism that causes infection 2. Reservoir of the agent- where infectious agent stays 3. Portal of Exit- where infectious agent leaves 4. Mode of transmission- method of transfer from reservoir to a susceptible host 5. Portal of Entry- path used to enter susceptible host 6. Susceptible Host- Person fighting off infection What does FDA regulate? - answerThe manufacturer of all medical devices. What is the classification of medical devices? What is the risk? Does it require a 510k or pre-market approval? Please explain and give an example of each. - answer1. Class I Medical devices-low risk, no pre-market approval. Ex:Ultrasonic cleaners 2. Class II Medical devices- medium risk, needs 510k. Ex: Sterilizers 3. Class III Medical devices-high risk, requires pre-market approval. Ex: Heart valves What is a 510k application vs Pre-market approval ? - answer-510k application is used when there are changes in the product. -Pre-market approval is done when there is a new product being released. Due to the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990, healthcare facilities are required to report events to the FDA and manufacturer within working days. - answer10 What are the categories for FDA recalls ? What is their risk? What can it cause? - answerClass I-High risk, causes serious health/death Class II-medium risk, causes temporary health problems Class III-low risk, low chance of causing health issues What is the Umbrella? Please illustrate. - answer(U.N.S.A.F.E.J.O.E) CDC - answerCenters for Disease Control. Federal agency that issues infection control guidelines. EPA - answerEnvironmental Protection Agency. Establishes in 1970 to enforce federal laws pertaining to air and water pollution and other environmentally related statues. DOT - answerDepartment of Transportation. Federal agency that regulates labeling and containment of hazardous waste, biohazard items and minimally processed items for transport. OSHA - answerOccupational Safety and Health Administration. Primary role is to protect workers from conditionally caused illnesses and injuries. AAMI - answerAssociation for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation. Develops recommended practices and standards. ANSI - answerAmerican National Standards Institute. Standards are submitted to ANSI for approval, such as AAMI. AORN - answerAssociation of Operating Room Nurses. Dedicated to providing optimal care to the surgical patient. APIC - answerAssociation for professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology. Voluntary international organization dedicated to the prevention and control of infections and related outcomes. ISO - answerInternational Standards Organization. Globally based non-governmental standards organization. Joint Commission - answerIndependent non-profit organization, sets healthcare quality standards and protects patients and visitors, conducts inspections of healthcare facilities. NFPA - answerNational Fire Protection Association. International association that works to reduce the burden of fire and other hazards; sets fire safety standards. USP-NF - answerUnited States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary. Sets standards for packaging, labeling, bacteriological purity, pH, and mineral content. WHO - answerWorld Health Organization. Combats infectious diseases and promotes the general health of the people of the world. SGNA - answerSociety of Gastroenterology Nurses and Associates. A non-profit organization that collects information and establishes standards and guidelines relating to the processing of flexible endoscopes. IAHCSMM - answerInternational Association of Healthcare Central Service Material Management At what length should fingernails be maintained and y? - answer1/4" or less because they may harbor microorganisms. What is the temperature, humidity, and air exchange in each area of CPD? - answer-Decontamination: temp is 60-65 degrees F, humidity is 30-60%, air exchanges is 10 per hour. -Prep and Pack: temp is 68-73 degrees F, humidity is 30-60%, air exchanges is 10 per hour. -Sterile storage: temp is 75 degrees or lower, humidity is less than 75%, air exchanges is 4 per hour. What do you wear in the different areas ? - answer-Decon: scrubs, hair cover, shoe cover, gown, eye goggles, face shield, gloves, and face mask. -Assembly and Sterile storage: scrubs and hair cover. - Sequestering agent - answerChemicals that remove hard water minerals. Surfactant - answerA surface-acting agent that lowers the surface tension of a liquid so it can penetrate deeper. Chelating agent - answerChemicals that hold hard water minerals in solution and prevent soaps or detergents from reacting with minerals. 3-sink setup - answer1. Wash sink-water and detergent 2. Intermediate rinse sink- plain deionized water 3. Final rinse sink- deionized water Water temperatures should be below to prevent coagulation. - answer110 degrees F Name 8 items that should not be placed in the ultrasonic cleaner. - answer1. Chrome-plated instruments 2. Ebonized instruments 3. Plastic 4. Cork 5. Glass 6. Wood 7. Chrome 8. Rubber What process is used for Ultrasonic Cleaners? please explain. - answerCavitation process, which is when ultrasonic vibrations create tiny air bubbles that grow larger until they implode (collapse). This process reaches small areas that brushes cannot reach. What process is used for Mechanical Washers? - answerImpingement, which is a spray force of water. What are prions? What do they cause? - answerA sort of virus that is hard to kill, has a misfolded protein, it lacks DNA and RNA. It causes Mad Cow Disease, and TSE (Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy) Shelf life vs Use life? - answer-Shelf life: Length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored till expired. -Use life: Length of time or number of times disinfectant can be used until efficiency (strength) or disinfectant is diminished. What is MEC and what level should it be at? - answerMEC is a test used to check the effectiveness of the chemical concentration level, which should be at 0.3% or higher for OPA. Fill in the blanks in the Spaulding Classification System. - answerBody Contact Destruction Method Item Class Intact skin High-Level Critical Name 3 types of PSI? - answer1. Electrically powered instruments 2. Pneumatic powered instruments 3. Battery powered instruments What is an AER? - answerAutomatic Endoscope Reprocessors, they clean, disinfect, and rinse flexible endoscopes. Name 5 advantages of using AERs. - answer1. Timed cleaning 2. Consistent exposure 3. Timed contact 4. Air flush cycle 5. Use of of copious rinse water What is a leak test? How is it done? - answerIt is done to check for holes on the scopes' shaft. Close all port openings with proper caps, submerge endoscope shaft in water, force air through it using a syringe or wall powered air then look for continuous bubbles, if there is a leak take it out of rotation. What are the different Endoscope channels? - answer-Instrument Channel -Suction Channel -Optical Channel -Air/Water Channel -Some flexible scopes have separate air and water channels. Tell me what each scope is used for. (Endoscope man) - answer1. Laryngoscope-to visualize the larynx. 2. Esophagoscope-to visualize the esophagus. 3. Colonoscope-to visualize the large intestine. 4. Sigmoidoscope-to visualize the lower part of the large intestine. 5. Esophagogastro Duodenoscope-to visualize esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. 6. Bronchoscope-to visualize the tracheobronchial tree. 7. Gastroscope-to visualize the upper GI tract and stomach. 8. Laparoscope-to visualize the abdominal cavity. 9. Cystoscope-to visualize the urethra and bladder. Point of use Processing - answerOccurs immediately before an item is used and/or close to a patient care area. Flash Sterilization - answerThe process by which unwrapped instruments are sterilized for immediate use when and emergency situation arises. Validation - answerProcedures used by equipment manufacturers to obtain, record, and interpret test results required to establish that a process consistently produces a sterile product. Verification - answerProcedures used by healthcare facilities to confirm that the validation undertaken by the equipment manufacturer is applicable to the specific setting. What is the most common temperature for Dry Heat sterilization ? - answer320 degrees F for preferably 2 hours. D-Value - answerThe amount of time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms present. Please explain how you clean the chamber drain filter. - answerClean daily, under running water with mild detergent using a non-abrasive brush. Name 4 factors that impact sterilization. - answer1. Type of microorganisms present 2. Number of microorganisms present 3. Amount and type of soil present 4. Amount of protection the medical device provides Residual (EtO) - answerThe amount of EtO that remains inside the materials after they have been sterilized. PEL - answerLimits developed by OSHA to indicate the maximum airborne concentration of a contaminant to which an employee may be exposed over the duration assigned to that contaminant. What is the aeration time for EtO sterilized items ? - answer-8 hours at 140 degrees F -12 hours at 122 degrees F Aeration - answerA process in which a device is actively subjected to moving air. When transferring loads to the aerator, do not the load to prevent from inhaling any fumes. - answerPull, push Gas plasma kills by what process ? - answerOxidation Name the different inventory control methods. - answer-Min/max System -Economic Order Quantity -Stockless supplies -Just-in-time System -Consignment System What are 2 inventory tracking systems ? - answer-Bar codes -Radio Frequency Identification Patient Care Equipment - answerPortable equipment used to assist in the care and treatment of patients. Who is responsible for performing safety inspections and function tests on medical equipment ? - answer-Biomedical Engineering Department Biomed Techs perform periodical or scheduled safety inspections established by . - answer-Joint Commission